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156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

B.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

C.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

D.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

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Questions 5

Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?

Options:

A.

SMS Alert, Log, SNMP alert

B.

Syslog, None, User-defined scripts

C.

None, Log, Syslog

D.

Alert, SNMP trap, Mail

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Questions 6

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Questions 7

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

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Questions 8

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

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Questions 9

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

Options:

A.

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

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Questions 10

How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications.

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application.

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation.

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client.

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Questions 11

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 12

In R81.20 a new feature dynamic log distribution was added. What is this for?

  • Configure the Security Gateway to distribute logs between multiple active Log Servers to support a better rate of Logs and Log Servers redundancy

  • In case of a Management High Availability the management server stores the logs dynamically on the member with the most available disk space in /var/log

  • Synchronize the log between the primary and secondary management server in case of a Management High Availability

Options:

A.

To save disk space in case of a firewall cluster local logs are distributed between the cluster members.

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Questions 13

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Questions 14

When performing a minimal effort upgrade, what will happen to the network traffic?

Options:

A.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be dropped, causing network downtime

B.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be handled normally

C.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be handled by the standby gateway

D.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be handled by the active gateway

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Questions 15

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

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Questions 16

Which is the lowest gateway version supported by R81.20 management server?

Options:

A.

R77.30

B.

R80.20

C.

R77

D.

R65

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Questions 17

You want to allow your Mobile Access Users to connect to an internal file share. Adding the Mobile Application 'File Share' to your Access Control Policy in the SmartConsole didn't work. You will be only allowed to select Services for the 'Service & Application' column How to fix it?

Options:

A.

A Quantum Spark Appliance is selected as Installation Target for the policy packet.

B.

The Mobile Access Blade is not enabled for the Access Control Layer of the policy.

C.

The Mobile Access Policy Source under Gateway properties Is set to Legacy Policy and not to Unified Access Policy.

D.

The Mobile Access Blade is not enabled under Gateway properties.

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Questions 18

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

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Questions 19

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.20 management server?

Options:

A.

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

B.

It generates indexes of data written to the database

C.

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

D.

Writing all information into the database

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Questions 20

The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

Options:

A.

Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.

B.

Generates an event based on the Event policy.

C.

Assigns a severity level to the event.

D.

Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.

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Questions 21

Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.20. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R81 configuration, clean install R81.20 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

CPUSE online upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Questions 22

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

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Questions 23

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Light

D.

Complete

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Questions 24

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

Options:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

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Questions 25

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Run cprestart from clish

B.

After upgrading the hardware, increase the number of kernel instances using cpconfig

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Hyperthreading must be enabled in the bios to use CoreXL

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Questions 26

Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?

Options:

A.

Check Point Security Management HA (Secondary): set cluster member mvc on

B.

Check Point Security Gateway Only: set cluster member mvc on

C.

Check Point Security Management HA (Primary): set cluster member mvc on

D.

Check Point Security Gateway Cluster Member: set cluster member mvc on

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Questions 27

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

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Questions 28

Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API?

Options:

A.

API key

B.

session ID token

C.

content-type

D.

Request payload

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Questions 29

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Questions 30

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Expert

B.

Clish

C.

Admin

D.

Normal

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Questions 31

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

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Questions 32

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Questions 33

When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?

Options:

A.

18191

B.

18192

C.

18194

D.

18190

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Questions 34

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Options:

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Questions 35

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

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Questions 36

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

Options:

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

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Questions 37

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

156-315.81 Question 37

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Questions 38

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Questions 39

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Questions 40

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

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Questions 41

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

Options:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

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Questions 42

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Questions 43

NO: 219

What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

Options:

A.

Check Point Protect Application

B.

Management Dashboard

C.

Behavior Risk Engine

D.

Check Point Gateway

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Questions 44

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

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Questions 45

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

Options:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

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Questions 46

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements about SecureXL NAT Templates is true?

Options:

A.

NAT Templates are generated to achieve high session rate for NAT. These templates store the NAT attributes of connections matched by rulebase so that similar new

connections can take advantage of this information and do NAT without the expensive rulebase lookup. These are enabled by default and work only if Accept Templates are enabled.

B.

DROP Templates are generated to achieve high session rate for NAT. These templates store the NAT attributes of connections matched by rulebase so that similar new

connections can take advantage of this information and do NAT without the expensive rulebase lookup. These are disabled by default and work only if NAT Templates are disabled.

C.

NAT Templates are generated to achieve high session rate for NAT. These templates store the NAT attributes of connections matched by rulebase so that similar new

connections can take advantage of this information and do NAT without the expensive rulebase lookup. These are disabled by default and work only if Accept Templates are disabled.

D.

ACCEPT Templates are generated to achieve high session rate for NAT. These templates store the NAT attributes of connections matched by rulebase so that similar new connections can take advantage of this information and do NAT without the expensive rulebase lookup. These are disabled by default and work only if NAT Templates are disabled.

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Questions 48

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Questions 49

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

Options:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

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Questions 50

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

156-315.81 Question 50

Options:

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

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Questions 51

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

Options:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

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Questions 52

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

Options:

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

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Questions 53

After having saved the Cllsh Configuration with the "save configuration config.txt* command, where can you find the config.txt file?

Options:

A.

You will find it in the home directory of your usef account (e.g. /home/admirV)

B.

You can locate the file via SmartConsole > Command Line.

C.

You have to launch the WebUl and go to "Config" -> "Export Conflg File" and specifly the destination directory of your local tile system

D.

You cannot locate the file in the file system sine© Clish does not have any access to the bash fie system

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Questions 54

What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

Options:

A.

1 - 254

B.

1 - 255

C.

0 - 254

D.

0 - 255

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Questions 55

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Questions 56

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

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Questions 57

In ClusterXL Load Sharing Multicast Mode:

Options:

A.

only the primary member received packets sent to the cluster IP address

B.

only the secondary member receives packets sent to the cluster IP address

C.

packets sent to the cluster IP address are distributed equally between all members of the cluster

D.

every member of the cluster received all of the packets sent to the cluster IP address

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Questions 58

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

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Questions 59

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

Options:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

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Questions 60

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

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Questions 61

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Questions 62

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

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Questions 63

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

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Questions 64

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Questions 65

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

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Questions 66

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Questions 67

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

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Questions 68

In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

Options:

A.

TXT, XML and CSV

B.

PDF and TXT

C.

PDF, HTML, and XML

D.

PDF and HTML

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Questions 69

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Questions 70

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Questions 71

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

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Questions 72

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.

A 5-tuple match

C.

Multicast packets

D.

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

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Questions 73

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

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Questions 74

Which command shows the current Security Gateway Firewall chain?

Options:

A.

show current chain

B.

show firewall chain

C.

fw ctl chain

D.

fw ctl firewall-chain

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Questions 75

What is the command used to activated Multi-Version Cluster mode?

Options:

A.

set cluster member mvc on in Clish

B.

set mvc on on Clish

C.

set cluster MVC on in Expert Mode

D.

set cluster mvc on in Expert Mode

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Questions 76

What are the three SecureXL Templates available in R81.20?

Options:

A.

PEP Templates. QoS Templates. VPN Templates

B.

Accept Templates. Drop Templates. NAT Templates

C.

Accept Templates. Drop Templates. Reject Templates

D.

Accept Templates. PDP Templates. PEP Templates

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Questions 77

Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

Options:

A.

Central Licensing actually not supported with Gaia.

B.

Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gala.

C.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.

D.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

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Questions 78

What mechanism can ensure that the Security Gateway can communicate with the Management Server with ease in situations with overwhelmed network resources?

Options:

A.

The corresponding feature is new to R81.20 and is called "Management Data Plane Separation"

B.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Dispatching"

C.

There is a feature for ensuring stable connectivity to the management server and is done via Priority Queuing.

D.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Split"

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Questions 79

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

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Questions 80

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

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Questions 81

To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, what two items are needed?

Options:

A.

File name and Gateway

B.

Object Name and MD5 signature

C.

MD5 signature and Gateway

D.

IP address of Management Server and Gateway

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Questions 82

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

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Questions 83

What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?

Options:

A.

UDP VOIP protocol extension

B.

In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication

C.

Special TCP handshaking extension

D.

Supplement DLP data watermark

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Questions 84

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Questions 85

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

Options:

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

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Questions 86

You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?

Options:

A.

dbedit is not supported in R81.20

B.

dbedit is fully supported in R81.20

C.

You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers

D.

dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R81.20

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Questions 87

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

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Questions 88

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Questions 89

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

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Questions 90

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.

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Questions 91

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Questions 92

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ____________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 93

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

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Questions 94

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source address based

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

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Questions 95

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

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Questions 96

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

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Questions 97

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

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Questions 98

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Options:

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

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Questions 99

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Questions 100

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

Options:

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

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Questions 101

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Questions 102

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

Options:

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

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Questions 103

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

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Questions 104

Fill in the blank: The R81 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Options:

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

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Questions 105

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

Options:

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Questions 106

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

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Questions 107

What is the benefit of “tw monitor” over “tcpdump”?

Options:

A.

“fw monitor” reveals Layer 2 information, while “tcpdump” acts at Layer 3.

B.

“fw monitor” is also available for 64-Bit operating systems.

C.

With “fw monitor”, you can see the inspection points, which cannot be seen in “tcpdump”

D.

“fw monitor” can be used from the CLI of the Management Server to collect information from multiple gateways.

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Questions 108

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

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Questions 109

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

Options:

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

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Questions 110

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 111

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Questions 112

With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

Options:

A.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

B.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

C.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.

D.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.

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Questions 113

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

Options:

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

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Questions 114

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

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Questions 115

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

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Questions 116

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

Options:

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

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Questions 117

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

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Questions 118

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

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Questions 119

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 120

Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

Options:

A.

18191

B.

18190

C.

8983

D.

19009

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Questions 121

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

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Questions 122

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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Questions 123

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

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Questions 124

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Options:

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

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Questions 125

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

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Questions 126

How can SmartView application accessed?

Options:

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

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Questions 127

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

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Questions 128

What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?

Options:

A.

fw monitor –e “accept[12:4,b]=224.0.0.18;”

B.

fw monitor –e “accept port(6118;”

C.

fw monitor –e “accept proto=mcVRRP;”

D.

fw monitor –e “accept dst=224.0.0.18;”

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Questions 129

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

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Questions 130

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

Options:

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

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Questions 131

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Questions 132

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

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Questions 133

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

Options:

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

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Questions 134

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 135

What is true about VRRP implementations?

Options:

A.

VRRP membership is enabled in cpconfig

B.

VRRP can be used together with ClusterXL, but with degraded performance

C.

You cannot have a standalone deployment

D.

You cannot have different VRIDs in the same physical network

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Questions 136

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

Options:

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 137

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Questions 138

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

Options:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

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Questions 139

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

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Questions 140

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Questions 141

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

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Questions 142

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Questions 143

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Questions 144

What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 145

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Questions 146

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Questions 147

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

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Questions 148

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 149

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

Options:

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

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Questions 150

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Options:

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

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Questions 151

The installation of a package via SmartConsole CANNOT be applied on

Options:

A.

A single Security Gateway

B.

A full Security Cluster (All Cluster Members included)

C.

Multiple Security Gateways and/or Clusters

D.

R81.20 Security Management Server

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Questions 152

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n)_____________ Server.

Options:

A.

SecurID

B.

NT domain

C.

LDAP

D.

SMTP

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Questions 153

What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?

Options:

A.

fw sam -I dport 22

B.

fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22

C.

fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016

D.

fwaccel dos config set dport ssh

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Questions 154

What are the main stages of a policy installation?

Options:

A.

Initiation, Conversion and FWD REXEC

B.

Verification, Commit, Installation

C.

Initiation, Conversion and Save

D.

Verification Compilation, Transfer and Commit

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Questions 155

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Application Control

D.

Threat Extraction

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Questions 156

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

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Questions 157

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

C.

Firewall Blade, URL/Application Blade, and IPS

D.

Stateful Inspection, URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

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Questions 158

156-315.81 Question 158

What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Rule 7 was created by the ‘admin’ administrator in the current session

B.

8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation

C.

The rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the ‘admin’ administrator

D.

Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator

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Questions 159

There are multiple types of licenses for the various VPN components and types. License type related to management and functioning of Remote Access VPNs are - which of the following license requirement statement is NOT true:

Options:

A.

MobileAccessLicense ° This license is required on the Security Gateway for the following Remote Access solutions

B.

EndpointPolicyManagementLicense ° The Endpoint Security Suite includes blades other than the Remote Access VPN, hence this license is required to manage the suite

C.

EndpointContainerLicense ° The Endpoint Software Blade Licenses does not require an Endpoint Container License as the base

D.

IPSecVPNLicense • This license is installed on the VPN Gateway and is a basic requirement for a Remote Access VPN solution

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Questions 160

Alice was asked by Bob to implement the Check Point Mobile Access VPN blade - therefore are some basic configuration steps required - which statement about the configuration steps is true?

Options:

A.

1. Add a rule in the Access Control Policy and install policy

2. Configure Mobile Access parameters in Security Gateway object

3. Enable Mobile Access blade on the Security Gateway object and complete the wizard

4. Connect to the Mobile Access Portal

B.

1. Connect to the Mobile Access Portal

2. Enable Mobile Access blade on the Security Gateway object and complete the wizard

3. Configure Mobile Access parameters in Security Gateway object

4. Add a rule in the Access Control Policy and install policy

C.

1. Configure Mobile Access parameters in Security Gateway object

2. Enable Mobile Access blade on the Security Gateway object and complete the wizard

3. Add a rule in the Access Control Policy and install policy

4. Connect to the Mobile Access Portal

D.

1. Enable Mobile Access blade on the Security Gateway object and complete the wizard

2. Configure Mobile Access parameters in Security Gateway object

3. Add a rule in the Access Control Policy and install policy

4. Connect to the Mobile Access Portal

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Questions 161

From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

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Questions 162

What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?

Options:

A.

You have to specify it in the YAML file api.yml which is located underneath the /etc. directory of the security management server

B.

You have to change to the zsh-Shell which defaults to the Gaia API context.

C.

No need to specify a context, since it defaults to the Gaia API context.

D.

mgmt_cli --context gaia_api

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Questions 163

When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, which of the following query syntax would you use?

Options:

A.

Toni? AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

B.

To** AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

C.

Ton* AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.75

D.

"Toni" AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

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Questions 164

What component of Management is used tor indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Questions 165

What solution is multi-queue intended to provide?

Options:

A.

Improve the efficiency of traffic handling by SecureXL SNDs

B.

Reduce the confusion for traffic capturing in FW Monitor

C.

Improve the efficiency of CoreXL Kernel Instances

D.

Reduce the performance of network interfaces

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Questions 166

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

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Questions 167

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

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Questions 168

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

Options:

A.

fwaccel status

B.

fwaccel stats -m

C.

fwaccel -s

D.

fwaccel stat

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Questions 169

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

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Questions 170

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Questions 171

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

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Questions 172

What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

Options:

A.

cpmq get

B.

show interface all

C.

cpmq set

D.

show multiqueue all

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Questions 173

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Questions 174

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Questions 175

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

Options:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

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Questions 176

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

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Questions 177

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

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Questions 178

Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

Options:

A.

Read/Write, Read Only

B.

Read/Write, Read Only, None

C.

Read/Write, None

D.

Read Only, None

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Questions 179

The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:

Options:

A.

DBMS

B.

MongoDB

C.

PostgreSQL

D.

MySQL

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Questions 180

How does the Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy block traffic from infected websites?

Options:

A.

By dropping traffic from websites identified through ThreatCloud Verification and URL Caching

B.

By dropping traffic that is not proven to be from clean websites in the URL Filtering blade

C.

By allowing traffic from websites that are known to run Antivirus Software on servers regularly

D.

By matching logs against ThreatCloud information about the reputation of the website

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Questions 181

What a valid SecureXL paths in R81.20?

Options:

A.

F2F (Slow path). Templated Path. PQX and F2V

B.

F2F (Slow path). PXL, QXL and F2V

C.

F2F (Slow path), Accelerated Path, PQX and F2V

D.

F2F (Slow path), Accelerated Path, Medium Path and F2V

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Questions 182

How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

10 interfaces

B.

3 interfaces

C.

4 interfaces

D.

5 interfaces

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Questions 183

Matt wants to upgrade his old Security Management server to R81.x using the Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration. What is one of the requirements for a successful upgrade?

Options:

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

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Questions 184

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

D.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

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Questions 185

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

Options:

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

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Exam Code: 156-315.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20
Last Update: Apr 18, 2024
Questions: 617

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