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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 4

Options:

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Questions 5

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

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Questions 6

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

Options:

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

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Questions 7

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

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Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 8

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

A)

200-301 Question 8

B)

200-301 Question 8

C)

200-301 Question 8

D)

200-301 Question 8

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 9

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 10

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.0/27

B.

10.10.10.0/28

C.

0.0.0.0/0

D.

10.10.13.0/24

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Questions 11

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 11

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

Options:

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Seria10 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Seria10.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

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Questions 12

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

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Questions 13

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 13

Options:

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Questions 14

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 14

Options:

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Questions 15

Why is UDP more suitable than TCP tor applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

Options:

A.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

B.

TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

C.

UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

D.

TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery and UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets.

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Questions 16

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 16

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 17

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

200-301 Question 17

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

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Questions 18

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 18

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

200-301 Question 18

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 19

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Questions 20

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

Options:

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

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Questions 21

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

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Questions 22

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 23

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

200-301 Question 23

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 24

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 24

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

Options:

A.

when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid

B.

when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP

C.

when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop

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Questions 25

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Options:

A.

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

inspected and dropped by the switch

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 26

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

Options:

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

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Questions 27

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

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Questions 28

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

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Questions 29

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

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Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 30

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)

200-301 Question 30

B)

200-301 Question 30

C)

200-301 Question 30

D)

200-301 Question 30

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 31

TION NO: 228

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

200-301 Question 31

B)

200-301 Question 31

C)

200-301 Question 31

D)

200-301 Question 31

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 32

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required.

B.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management.

C.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gtk-randomize State to disable.

D.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

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Questions 33

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Questions 34

200-301 Question 34

200-301 Question 34

200-301 Question 34

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 35

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Questions 36

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security violation access

B.

switchport port-security violation protect

C.

switchport port-security violation restrict

D.

switchport port-security violation shutdown

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 37

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Questions 38

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

200-301 Question 38

Options:

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Questions 39

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 39

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

Options:

A.

the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

B.

the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

C.

the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

D.

the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

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Questions 40

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

200-301 Question 40

Options:

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Questions 41

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

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Questions 42

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

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Questions 43

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

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Questions 44

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 44

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 45

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 46

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 46

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 47

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Questions 48

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 49

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 50

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

200-301 Question 50

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 51

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

A.

WPA2 + AES

B.

WPA + AES

C.

WEP

D.

WPA + TKIP

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Questions 52

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 52

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

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Questions 53

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

200-301 Question 53

Options:

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Questions 54

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 55

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 56

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Questions 57

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 57

An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1

B.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89

C.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171

D.

ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255

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Questions 58

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them

D.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

E.

The two routers share the same interface IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

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Questions 59

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 60

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 60

B)

200-301 Question 60

C)

200-301 Question 60

D)

200-301 Question 60

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 61

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 62

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

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Questions 63

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Options:

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

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Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 64

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

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Questions 65

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 66

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

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Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

200-301 Question 67

Options:

A.

Is the internet reachable?

B.

Is the default gateway reachable?

C.

Is the DNS server reachable?

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Questions 68

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 68

Options:

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Questions 69

200-301 Question 69

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip access-list extended Services

35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

B.

no ip access-list extended Services

ip access-list extended Services

30 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

C.

ip access-list extended Services

permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

D.

no ip access-list extended Services

ip access-list extended Services

permit udp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any eq 53

permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

deny ip any any log

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Questions 70

200-301 Question 70

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

200-301 Question 70

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 71

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

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Questions 72

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

Options:

A.

1.544 Mbps

B.

2.048 Mbps

C.

34.368 Mbps

D.

43.7 Mbps

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Questions 73

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

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Questions 74

200-301 Question 74

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?

Options:

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.

O 100.100.100.100'32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the route

S 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.

D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,

R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

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Questions 75

200-301 Question 75

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 Question 75

Options:

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Questions 76

Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

delete

B.

create

C.

update

D.

read

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Questions 77

A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ip forward-protocol udp 137

B.

ip default-network 192.168.52.253

C.

ip helper-address 172.16.32.15

D.

ip default-gateway 192.168.52.253

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Questions 78

What does the term "spirt MAC” refer to in a wireless architecture?

Options:

A.

divides data link layer functions between the AP and WLC

B.

combines the management and control functions from the data-forwarding functions

C.

uses different MAC addresses for 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands on the same AP

D.

leverages two APs to handle control and data traffic

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Questions 79

What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?

Options:

A.

UCS-2

B.

UTF-8

C.

Hex

D.

GB18030

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Questions 80

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate register and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.

One-Click

B.

Hotspot

C.

Enhanced Bluetooth

D.

Whole Home

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Questions 81

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking?

Options:

A.

application

B.

services

C.

control

D.

data

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Questions 82

200-301 Question 82

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.

ipv6 address autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

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Questions 83

200-301 Question 83

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination address of 10.10.10.147?

Options:

A.

FastEthemet 0/0

B.

Senal0/0

C.

FastEthemet 0/1

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Questions 84

200-301 Question 84

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements:

• Create the username as CCUser.

• Create the password as NA!2Scc.

• Encrypt the user password.

What must be configured to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

username CCUser privies 10 password NA!2Scc

B.

username CCUser password NA!2Scc enable password level 5 NA!2$cc

C.

username CCUser secret NA!2Scc

D.

username CCUser privilege 15 password NA!2Scc enable secret 0 NA!2$cc

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Questions 85

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

B.

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

C.

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

D.

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

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Questions 86

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

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Questions 87

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Questions 88

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

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Questions 89

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 Question 89

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 90

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 90

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

C.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

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Questions 91

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

Options:

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

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Questions 92

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

200-301 Question 92

Options:

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Questions 93

Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

service port

C.

virtual

D.

management

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Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 94

Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

200-301 Question 94

B)

200-301 Question 94

C)

200-301 Question 94

D)

200-301 Question 94

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 95

200-301 Question 95

Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?

Options:

A.

They are routed to 172.16.20.2.

B.

They are routed to 192.168.100.2.

C.

They are distributed sent round robin to interfaces SO/0/0 and SO/0/1.

D.

They are routed to 10.0.0.2.

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Questions 96

NO: 105

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

Options:

A.

00-00-0C-07-AD-89

B.

00-00-5E-00-01-0a

C.

00-07-C0-70-AB-01

D.

00-C6-41-93-90-91

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Questions 97

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 97

Options:

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Questions 98

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

200-301 Question 98200-301 Question 98

Options:

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Questions 99

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 99

Options:

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Questions 100

Which advantage does machine learning offer for network security?

Options:

A.

It improves real-time threat detection.

B.

It manages firewall rule sets.

C.

It enforces password complexity requirements.

D.

It controls VPN access permissions.

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Questions 101

What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute data-plane functions.

B.

Controller-based networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute control-plane functions.

C.

Traditional networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute control-plane functions.

D.

Traditional networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute data-plane functions.

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Questions 102

200-301 Question 102

200-301 Question 102

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 103

200-301 Question 103

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

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Questions 104

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 floating

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 10

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Questions 105

What are two facts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

C.

It provides greater throughput options.

D.

It carries signals for longer distances.

E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

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Questions 106

200-301 Question 106

200-301 Question 106

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 107

When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0.0/0

B.

10.56.0.1

C.

10.56.128.19

D.

Vlan57

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Questions 108

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

relay agent information

B.

database agent

C.

address pool

D.

smart-relay

E.

manual bindings

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Questions 109

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

Options:

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

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Questions 110

200-301 Question 110

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer just installed network 10.120.10.0/24. Which configuration must be applied to the R14 router to add the new network to its OSPF routing table?

Options:

A.

router ospf 100

network 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B.

router ospf 120

network 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

ip route 10.120.10.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/1

C.

router ospf 100 area 0

network 10.120.10.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 111

A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter incoming messages into different files based on their Importance. Which filtering criteria must be used?

Options:

A.

level

B.

message body

C.

process ID

D.

facility

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Questions 112

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

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Questions 113

200-301 Question 113

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 Question 113

Options:

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Questions 114

200-301 Question 114

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

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Questions 115

Drag and drop the common functions from the left onto the cofresponding network topology architecture layer on the right. Not all common functions are used.

200-301 Question 115

Options:

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Questions 116

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 Question 116200-301 Question 116

Options:

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Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 117

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

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Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 118

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

Options:

A.

Set PMF to Required.

B.

Enable MAC Filtering.

C.

Enable WPA Policy.

D.

Set Fast Transition to Enabled

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Questions 119

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 119

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

200-301 Question 119

B)

200-301 Question 119

C)

200-301 Question 119

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

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Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 120

In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?

Options:

A.

array

B.

object

C.

Boolean

D.

string

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Questions 121

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

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Questions 122

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 122

Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?

Options:

A.

2001 :db8::5000:0004:5678:0090/64

B.

2001 :db8:4425:5400:77ft:fe07:/64

C.

2001 :db8::5000:00ff:fe04 0000/64

D.

2001 :db8::5200:00ff:fe04:0000/64

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 123

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

Options:

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

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Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 124

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

B.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

C.

It discards the packets.

D.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.

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Questions 125

Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.

200-301 Question 125

Options:

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Questions 126

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 126

Options:

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Questions 127

What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

Options:

A.

ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

B.

2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::

C.

fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::

D.

fe80:4433:034:0dd::2

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Questions 128

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 128

Options:

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Questions 129

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10

switchport

switchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10

no switchport

ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 130

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

Options:

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

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Questions 131

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Questions 132

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 132

B)

200-301 Question 132

C)

200-301 Question 132

D)

200-301 Question 132

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 133

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user's computer?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /all

B.

ifconfig -a

C.

show interface

D.

netstat -r

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Questions 134

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

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Questions 135

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 Question 135

Options:

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Questions 136

ESTION NO: 268

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

Options:

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

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Questions 137

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 137

Options:

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Questions 138

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 138

A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Enable Session Timeout option and set the value to 3600.

B.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 10.

C.

Enable the Client Exclusion option and set the value to 3600.

D.

Enable the Wi-Fi Direct Clients Policy option.

E.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients Per AP Radio value to 10.

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Questions 139

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

Options:

A.

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection

B.

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources

C.

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions "admin" accounts

D.

IPS with a block list of known attack vectors

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Questions 140

200-301 Question 140

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 2 mode desirable

B.

interface fasteinernet 1/1

channel-group 2 mode active

C.

interface fasteinernet 1/1

channel-group 2 mode on

D.

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 2 mode auto

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Questions 141

200-301 Question 141

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?

Options:

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 142

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

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Questions 143

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middIe attacks?

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

console

C.

HTTPS

D.

SSH

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Questions 144

What is an Ansible inventory?

Options:

A.

file that defines the target devices upon which commands and tasks are executed

B.

unit of Python code to be executed within Ansible

C.

collection of actions to perform on target devices, expressed in YAML format

D.

device with Ansible installed that manages target devices

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Questions 145

200-301 Question 145

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure preshared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wireless network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the 802.1 x option for Auth Key Management.

B.

Select the WPA Policy option.

C.

Select the PSK option for Auth Key Management.

D.

Select the AES option for Auth Key Management.

E.

Select the AES (CCMP128) option for WPA2/WPA3 Encryption.

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Questions 146

200-301 Question 146

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

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Questions 147

How does machine learning improve the detection of unauthorized network access?

Options:

A.

It monitors for outdated software.

B.

It dictates security policy updates.

C.

It identifies patterns indicating intrusions.

D.

It assigns security clearance levels.

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Questions 148

Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?

Options:

A.

password

B.

muftifactor

C.

biometric

D.

certificate

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Questions 149

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 Question 149200-301 Question 149

Options:

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Questions 150

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 150

A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?

Options:

A.

In the Management Software activation configuration, set the Clients value to 125.

B.

In the Controller IPv6 configuration, set the Throttle value to 125.

C.

In the WLAN configuration, set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 125.

D.

In the Advanced configuration, set the DTIM value to 125.

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Questions 151

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

Options:

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

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Questions 152

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Questions 153

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

Options:

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable "box by box" configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

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Questions 154

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

200-301 Question 154

Options:

A.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

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Questions 155

What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA Center from traditional campus device management?

Options:

A.

per-device

B.

centralized

C.

device-by-device hands-on

D.

CLI-oriented device

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Questions 156

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 156

Options:

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Questions 157

How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

Options:

A.

ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wireless device

B.

signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal

C.

measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal

D.

any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

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Questions 158

What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

forwarding packets

C.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

D.

setting packet-handling policies

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Questions 159

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 159

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

200-301 Question 159

200-301 Question 159

200-301 Question 159

200-301 Question 159

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

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Questions 160

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

200-301 Question 160

Options:

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Questions 161

Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?

Options:

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1,6, and 11

C.

channels 1,5, and 11

D.

channels 1,6, and 10

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Questions 162

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.

E.

Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

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Questions 163

Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Backup device configurations to encrypted USB drives for secure retrieval

B.

maintain network equipment in a secure location

C.

Use a cryptographic keychain to authenticate to network devices

D.

Place internal email and file servers in a designated DMZ

E.

Disable unused or unnecessary ports, interfaces and services

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Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 164

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

Options:

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

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Questions 165

What are two reasons to implement DHCP in a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

reduce administration time in managing IP address ranges for clients

B.

control the length of time an IP address is used by a network device

C.

manually control and configure IP addresses on network devices

D.

dynamic control over the best path to reach an IP address

E.

access a website by name instead of by IP address

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Questions 166

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 166

Options:

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Questions 167

200-301 Question 167

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.30.1

B.

10.10 105

C.

10.10.10.6

D.

192.168.201

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Questions 168

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Questions 169

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

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Questions 170

What is the role of SNMP in the network?

Options:

A.

to monitor network devices and functions using a TCP underlay that operates on the presentation layer

B.

to collect data directly from network devices using an SSL underlay that operates on the transport layer

C.

to monitor and manage network devices using a UDP underlay that operates on the application layer

D.

to collect telemetry and critical information from network devices using an SSH underlay that operates on the network layer

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Questions 171

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

Options:

A.

source MAC address and aging time

B.

destination MAC address and flush time

C.

source MAC address and source port

D.

destination MAC address and destination port

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Questions 172

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 172

B)

200-301 Question 172

C)

200-301 Question 172

D)

200-301 Question 172

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

Options:

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192 168 010 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

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Questions 174

Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

Options:

A.

AES256

B.

AES

C.

RC4

D.

SHA

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Questions 175

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 175

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

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Questions 176

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 176

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0

R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20

R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0

R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 177

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

Options:

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

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Questions 178

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 178

Options:

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Questions 179

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

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Questions 180

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 181

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

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Questions 182

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

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Questions 183

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

Options:

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

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Questions 184

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

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Questions 185

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

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Questions 186

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 186

Options:

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Questions 187

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

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Questions 188

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 188

A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

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Questions 189

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

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Questions 190

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

Options:

A.

enforcing routing policies

B.

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.

applying security policies

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Questions 191

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Questions 192

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

200-301 Question 192

Options:

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Questions 193

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

200-301 Question 193

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 194

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

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Questions 195

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

200-301 Question 195

Options:

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Questions 196

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ASCII

B.

base64

C.

binary

D.

decimal

E.

hexadecimal

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Questions 197

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 197

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

200-301 Question 197

B)

200-301 Question 197

C)

200-301 Question 197

D)

200-301 Question 197

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 198

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

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Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 199

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

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Questions 200

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

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Questions 201

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

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Questions 202

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

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Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 203

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

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Questions 204

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

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Questions 205

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 205

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

200-301 Question 205

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

Options:

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

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Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 206

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

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Questions 207

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

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Questions 208

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

200-301 Question 208

Options:

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Questions 209

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

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Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 210

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

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Questions 211

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 212

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Options:

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 213

200-301 Question 213

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

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Questions 214

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Questions 215

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Options:

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

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Questions 216

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

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Questions 217

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Options:

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access posits

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

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Questions 218

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Questions 219

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

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Questions 220

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 221

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Questions 222

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Questions 223

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 224

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

Options:

A.

It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

B.

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

C.

It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

D.

It is at most 32 characters long.

E.

IT provides secured access to a WLAN

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Questions 225

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 225

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

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Questions 226

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Questions 227

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Options:

A.

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B.

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C.

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D.

It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

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Questions 228

What Is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Questions 229

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

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Questions 230

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Questions 231

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

200-301 Question 231

Options:

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Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 232

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

Options:

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

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Questions 233

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Options:

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

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Questions 234

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

200-301 Question 234

Options:

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Questions 235

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

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Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 236

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

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Questions 237

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Questions 238

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

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Questions 239

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Options:

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

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Questions 240

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

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Questions 241

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

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Questions 242

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

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Questions 243

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NTP authentication.

B.

Verify the time zone.

C.

Disable NTP broadcasts

D.

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP server private key

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Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 244

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Last Update: Mar 14, 2025
Questions: 1005

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