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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

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Questions 5

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

Options:

A.

Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.

B.

Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.

C.

Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.

D.

Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.

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Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 6

Which command provides this output?

Options:

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

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Questions 7

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Questions 8

200-301 Question 8

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 Question 8

Options:

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Questions 9

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 9

Options:

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Questions 10

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 10

Options:

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Questions 11

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 11

Options:

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Questions 12

200-301 Question 12

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 Question 12

Options:

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Questions 13

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 Question 13200-301 Question 13

Options:

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Questions 14

200-301 Question 14

200-301 Question 14

200-301 Question 14

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 15

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

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Questions 16

How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

B.

The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".

C.

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

D.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

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Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 17

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

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Questions 18

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

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Questions 19

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

Options:

A.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

B.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.

C.

Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

D.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

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Questions 20

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

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Questions 21

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

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Questions 22

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

Options:

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

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Questions 23

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

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Questions 24

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

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Questions 25

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

Options:

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

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Questions 26

200-301 Question 26

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

200-301 Question 26

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 27

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

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Questions 28

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

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Questions 29

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

Options:

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

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Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 30

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

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Questions 31

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

Options:

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

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Questions 32

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

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Questions 33

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Options:

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.

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Questions 34

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Options:

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

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Questions 35

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

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Questions 36

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Questions 37

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

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Questions 38

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 Question 38

Options:

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Questions 39

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 40

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

Options:

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtimt

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

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Questions 41

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

200-301 Question 41

Options:

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Questions 42

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

200-301 Question 42

Options:

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Questions 43

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

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Questions 44

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

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Questions 45

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

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Questions 46

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Questions 47

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Questions 48

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

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Questions 49

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

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Questions 50

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

Options:

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

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Questions 51

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

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Questions 52

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

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Questions 53

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

serves as the network aggregation point

B.

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

C.

designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

D.

is the backbone for the network topology

E.

physical connection point for a LAN printer

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Questions 54

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Questions 55

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Options:

A.

VTP

B.

DTP

C.

egress traffic

D.

ingress traffic

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 56

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

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Questions 57

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Questions 58

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

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Questions 59

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

Options:

A.

high bandwidth usage

B.

a physical cable fault

C.

a speed mismatch

D.

a cable that is too long

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Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 60

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

200-301 Question 60

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 61

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Options:

A.

outside global

B.

outsdwde local

C.

inside global

D.

insride local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

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Questions 62

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 62

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

Options:

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

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Questions 63

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security violation access

B.

switchport port-security violation protect

C.

switchport port-security violation restrict

D.

switchport port-security violation shutdown

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Questions 64

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

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Questions 65

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

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Questions 66

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 67

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

200-301 Question 67

Options:

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Questions 68

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

200-301 Question 68

Options:

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Questions 69

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 69

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

Options:

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

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Questions 70

A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

clock summer-time recurring

B.

clock timezone

C.

clock summer-time date

D.

clock set

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Questions 71

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

200-301 Question 71

Options:

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Questions 72

Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 72

Options:

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Questions 73

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Options:

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

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Questions 74

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

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Questions 75

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

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Questions 76

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 76

Options:

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Questions 77

Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?

Options:

A.

EtherChannel

B.

LAG

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 78

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services firm the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 78

Options:

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Questions 79

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

200-301 Question 79

Options:

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Questions 80

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

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Questions 81

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 81

Options:

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Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 82

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

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Questions 83

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Questions 84

Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

site-to-site VPN

B.

IDMVPN

C.

IGETVPN

D.

IPsec remote access

E.

clientless VPN

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Questions 85

What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

Increase the available throughput on the link.

B.

Increase security by encrypting management frames

C.

Allow for stateful failover between WLCs

D.

Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations

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Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 86

What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?

Options:

A.

Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool

B.

Configure the NAT outside interface

C.

Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1

D.

Apply the ACL to the pool configuration

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Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 87

How many arrays are present in the JSON data?

Options:

A.

one

B.

three

C.

six

D.

nine

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Questions 88

200-301 Question 88

Refer to the exhibit. The router R1 is in the process of being configured. Routers R2 and R3 are configured correctly for the new environment. Which two commands must be configured on R1 for PC1 to communicate to all PCs on the 10.10.10.0/24 network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.3

B.

ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.2.2

C.

ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 g0/1

D.

ip route 10.10.10.8 255.255.255.248 g0/1

E.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 192.168.2.2

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Questions 89

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

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Questions 90

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

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Questions 91

What describes a northbound REST API for SON?

Options:

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

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Questions 92

What is a function of MAC address learning?

Options:

A.

It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.

C.

It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks

D.

lt increases security on the management VLAN

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Questions 93

Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

200-301 Question 93

Options:

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Questions 94

What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

Options:

A.

ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

B.

2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::

C.

fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::

D.

fe80:4433:034:0dd::2

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Questions 95

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 95

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)

200-301 Question 95

B)

200-301 Question 95

C)

200-301 Question 95

D)

200-301 Question 95

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 96

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 96

Options:

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Questions 97

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

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Questions 98

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 98

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.

the 10.0.0.0 network

B.

a single destination address

C.

the source 10.0.1.100

D.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

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Questions 99

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

Options:

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

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Questions 100

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 101

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

Options:

A.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown

B.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown

C.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk

channel-group 1 mode desirable

no shutdown

D.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown

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Questions 102

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

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Questions 103

What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topology?

Options:

A.

It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

B.

It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.

C.

It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.

D.

It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.

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Questions 104

What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It groups two or more routers to operate as one virtual router.

B.

It improves network availability by providing redundant gateways.

C.

It passes configuration information to hosts in a TCP/IP network.

D.

It helps hosts on the network to reach remote subnets without a default gateway.

E.

It provides a mechanism for diskless clients to autoconfigure their IP parameters during boot.

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Questions 105

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

Options:

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

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Questions 106

What is a specification for SSIDS?

Options:

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

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Questions 107

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

Client

C.

Enterprise

D.

Personal

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 108

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 109

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

200-301 Question 109

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

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Questions 110

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

200-301 Question 110

Options:

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Questions 111

200-301 Question 111

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

200-301 Question 111

Options:

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Questions 112

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

200-301 Question 112

Options:

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Questions 113

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.

B.

Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network.

C.

Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT.

D.

All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet.

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Questions 114

An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

B.

R1(config-if)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

C.

R1(config-if)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

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Questions 115

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

200-301 Question 115

Options:

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Questions 116

200-301 Question 116

Options:

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Questions 117

200-301 Question 117

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)

200-301 Question 117

B)

200-301 Question 117

C)

200-301 Question 117

D)

200-301 Question 117

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 118

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B.

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

C.

moves packets within a VLAN

D.

moves packets between different VLANs

E.

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

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Questions 119

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 119

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

Options:

A.

Set PMF to Required.

B.

Enable MAC Filtering.

C.

Enable WPA Policy.

D.

Set Fast Transition to Enabled

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Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 120

Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF

configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?

200-301 Question 120

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 121

What Is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Questions 122

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.

1 Hz signal

B.

1 GHz signal

C.

60 Hz signal

D.

60 GHz signal

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Questions 123

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

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Questions 124

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

Options:

A.

The control parameters of the MRP run

B.

The creation date of the materials

C.

The low-level code of the materials

D.

The replenishment lead time of the materials

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Questions 125

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 126

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 126

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

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Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 127

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0

R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

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Questions 128

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

200-301 Question 128

Options:

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Questions 129

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

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Questions 130

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

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Questions 131

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 131

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 132

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

Options:

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

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Questions 133

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Questions 134

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 134

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

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Questions 135

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

Options:

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

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Questions 136

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

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Questions 137

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

Options:

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

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Questions 138

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

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Questions 139

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Options:

A.

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B.

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C.

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D.

It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

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Questions 140

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 140

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

200-301 Question 140

Options:

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Questions 141

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 141

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

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Questions 142

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Options:

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

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Questions 143

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

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Questions 144

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

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Questions 145

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

Options:

A.

Exchange

B.

2-way

C.

Full

D.

Init

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Questions 146

200-301 Question 146

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Questions 147

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

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Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 148

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

200-301 Question 148

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 149

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 149

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 150

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

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Questions 151

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

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Questions 152

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 152

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 153

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Questions 154

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 154

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

Options:

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

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Questions 155

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

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Questions 156

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Options:

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Questions 157

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 157

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Options:

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

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Questions 158

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 159

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

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Questions 160

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Questions 161

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

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Questions 162

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

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Questions 163

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.

configure ISL

D.

configure DSCP

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Questions 164

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

Options:

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

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Questions 165

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

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Questions 166

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 166

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

Options:

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

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Questions 167

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Questions 168

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

Options:

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: application/json

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Questions 169

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

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Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 170

200-301 Question 170

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

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Questions 171

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

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Questions 172

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Questions 173

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 173

Options:

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Questions 174

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 175

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 175

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

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Questions 176

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Options:

A.

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

B.

transfers files between file systems on a router

C.

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

D.

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

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Questions 177

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

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Questions 178

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

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Questions 179

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 179

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 Question 179

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 180

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

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Questions 181

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Questions 182

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 182

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

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Questions 183

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 183

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Questions 184

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 184

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

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Questions 185

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 185

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

200-301 Question 185

B)

200-301 Question 185

C)

200-301 Question 185

D)

200-301 Question 185

E)

200-301 Question 185

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 186

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 186

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

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Questions 187

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

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Questions 188

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 188

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

200-301 Question 188

B)

200-301 Question 188

C)

200-301 Question 188

D)

200-301 Question 188

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 189

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 190

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 190

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

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Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 191

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

200-301 Question 191

B)

200-301 Question 191

C)

200-301 Question 191

D)

200-301 Question 191

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 192

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 192

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Questions 193

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 194

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

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Questions 195

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 196

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

200-301 Question 196

B)

200-301 Question 196

C)

200-301 Question 196

D)

200-301 Question 196

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 197

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

200-301 Question 197

Options:

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Questions 198

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 198

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 199

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Questions 200

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

hello interval 15

interface e1/1

Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Questions 201

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 202

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 202

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

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Questions 203

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

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Questions 204

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

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Questions 205

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 205

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

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Questions 206

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

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Questions 207

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

200-301 Question 207

Options:

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Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 208

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 209

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 210

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 211

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 211

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

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Questions 212

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 212

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Questions 213

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

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Questions 214

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 Question 214

Options:

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Questions 215

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 215

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Questions 216

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

200-301 Question 216

Options:

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Questions 217

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 217

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Questions 218

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 219

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

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Questions 220

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 220

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 221

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

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Questions 222

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 222

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

200-301 Question 222

B)

200-301 Question 222

C)

200-301 Question 222

D)

200-301 Question 222

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 223

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Buy Now
Questions 224

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 224

B)

200-301 Question 224

C)

200-301 Question 224

D)

200-301 Question 224

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 225

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 225

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Questions 226

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

Options:

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

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Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 227

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Questions 228

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 228

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 229

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 229

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

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Questions 230

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 230

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 231

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 231

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

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Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 232

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

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Questions 233

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Questions 234

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 234

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

200-301 Question 234

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 235

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 235

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 235

B)

200-301 Question 235

C)

200-301 Question 235

D)

200-301 Question 235

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 236

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 Question 236

B)

200-301 Question 236

C)

200-301 Question 236

D)

200-301 Question 236

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 237

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 237

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Questions 238

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Questions 239

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 Question 239200-301 Question 239

Options:

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Last Update: Apr 23, 2024
Questions: 951

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