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712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which level of data destruction applies logical techniques to sanitize data in all user-addressable storage locations?

Options:

A.

Purge

B.

Clear

C.

Mangle

D.

Destroy

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Questions 5

Which of the following areas are beyond the duties of the CISO?

Options:

A.

IT security compliance

B.

lnformation Technology (IT) portfolio management

C.

Network monitoring

D.

Cybersecurity policy

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Questions 6

During a cyber incident, which non-security personnel might be needed to assist the security team?

Options:

A.

Threat analyst, IT auditor, forensic analyst

B.

Network engineer, help desk technician, system administrator

C.

CIO, CFO, CSO

D.

Financial analyst, payroll clerk, HR manager

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Questions 7

UESTION NO: 459

A company wants to fill a Chief Information Security Officer position. Which of the following qualifications and experience would be MOST desirable in a candidate?

Options:

A.

Multiple certifications, strong technical capabilities and lengthy resume

B.

Industry certifications, technical knowledge and program management skills

C.

College degree, audit capabilities and complex project management

D.

Multiple references, strong background check and industry certifications

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Questions 8

Devising controls for information security is a balance between?

Options:

A.

Governance and compliance

B.

Auditing and security

C.

Budget and risk tolerance

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 9

What is defined as the friction or opposition resulting from actual or perceived differences or incompatibilities?

Options:

A.

Disgruntlement

B.

Silos

C.

Conflict

D.

Disagreement

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Questions 10

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

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Questions 11

What is the primary difference between Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Only IDS is susceptible to false positives

B.

An IPS examines network traffic flows to detect and actively stop exploits and attacks

C.

IPS identify potentially malicious traffic based on signature or behavior and IDS does not

D.

IDS are typically deployed behind the firewall and IPS are deployed in front of the firewall

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Questions 12

You have been promoted to the CISO of a big-box retail store chain reporting to the Chief Information Officer (CIO). The CIO’s first mandate to you is to develop a cybersecurity compliance framework that will meet all the store’s compliance requirements.

Which of the following compliance standard is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

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Questions 13

What organizational structure combines the functional and project structures to create a hybrid of the two?

Options:

A.

Traditional

B.

Composite

C.

Project

D.

Matrix

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Questions 14

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

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Questions 17

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

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Questions 18

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

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Questions 19

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

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Questions 20

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

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Questions 21

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

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Questions 22

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

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Questions 23

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

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Questions 24

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

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Questions 25

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

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Questions 27

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

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Questions 28

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

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Questions 29

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

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Questions 30

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

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Questions 31

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

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Questions 32

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

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Questions 33

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

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Questions 34

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

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Questions 35

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

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Questions 36

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

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Questions 37

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

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Questions 38

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

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Questions 39

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

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Questions 40

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

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Questions 41

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

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Questions 42

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

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Questions 43

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

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Questions 44

Dataflow diagrams are used by IT auditors to:

Options:

A.

Order data hierarchically.

B.

Highlight high-level data definitions.

C.

Graphically summarize data paths and storage processes.

D.

Portray step-by-step details of data generation.

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Questions 45

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

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Questions 46

The MOST common method to get an unbiased measurement of the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS) is to

Options:

A.

assign the responsibility to the information security team.

B.

assign the responsibility to the team responsible for the management of the controls.

C.

create operational reports on the effectiveness of the controls.

D.

perform an independent audit of the security controls.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is the MOST important goal of risk management?

Options:

A.

Identifying the risk

B.

Finding economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the control

C.

Identifying the victim of any potential exploits.

D.

Assessing the impact of potential threats

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Questions 48

If your organization operates under a model of "assumption of breach", you should:

Options:

A.

Protect all information resource assets equally

B.

Establish active firewall monitoring protocols

C.

Purchase insurance for your compliance liability

D.

Focus your security efforts on high value assets

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Questions 49

The framework that helps to define a minimum standard of protection that business stakeholders must attempt to achieve is referred to as a standard of:

Options:

A.

Due Protection

B.

Due Care

C.

Due Compromise

D.

Due process

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Questions 50

Which of the following intellectual Property components is focused on maintaining brand recognition?

Options:

A.

Trademark

B.

Patent

C.

Research Logs

D.

Copyright

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Questions 51

When briefing senior management on the creation of a governance process, the MOST important aspect should be:

Options:

A.

information security metrics.

B.

knowledge required to analyze each issue.

C.

baseline against which metrics are evaluated.

D.

linkage to business area objectives.

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Questions 52

Which of the following represents the HIGHEST negative impact resulting from an ineffective security governance program?

Options:

A.

Reduction of budget

B.

Decreased security awareness

C.

Improper use of information resources

D.

Fines for regulatory non-compliance

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Questions 53

The exposure factor of a threat to your organization is defined by?

Options:

A.

Asset value times exposure factor

B.

Annual rate of occurrence

C.

Annual loss expectancy minus current cost of controls

D.

Percentage of loss experienced due to a realized threat event

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Questions 54

Risk is defined as:

Options:

A.

Threat times vulnerability divided by control

B.

Advisory plus capability plus vulnerability

C.

Asset loss times likelihood of event

D.

Quantitative plus qualitative impact

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Questions 55

A security manager has created a risk program. Which of the following is a critical part of ensuring the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Providing a risk program governance structure

B.

Ensuring developers include risk control comments in code

C.

Creating risk assessment templates based on specific threats

D.

Allowing for the acceptance of risk for regulatory compliance requirements

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Questions 56

An organization's Information Security Policy is of MOST importance because

Options:

A.

it communicates management’s commitment to protecting information resources

B.

it is formally acknowledged by all employees and vendors

C.

it defines a process to meet compliance requirements

D.

it establishes a framework to protect confidential information

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Questions 57

An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?

Options:

A.

Determine the risk tolerance

B.

Perform an asset classification

C.

Create an architecture gap analysis

D.

Analyze existing controls on systems

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Questions 58

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of an effective security governance process?

Options:

A.

Reduction of liability and overall risk to the organization

B.

Better vendor management

C.

Reduction of security breaches

D.

Senior management participation in the incident response process

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Questions 59

Which of the following activities is the MAIN purpose of the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Creating an inventory of information assets

B.

Classifying and organizing information assets into meaningful groups

C.

Assigning value to each information asset

D.

Calculating the risks to which assets are exposed in their current setting

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Questions 60

Which of the following set of processes is considered to be one of the cornerstone cycles of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 standard?

Options:

A.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

B.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

C.

Plan-Select-Implement-Evaluate

D.

SCORE (Security Consensus Operational Readiness Evaluation)

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Questions 61

What role should the CISO play in properly scoping a PCI environment?

Options:

A.

Validate the business units’ suggestions as to what should be included in the scoping process

B.

Work with a Qualified Security Assessor (QSA) to determine the scope of the PCI environment

C.

Ensure internal scope validation is completed and that an assessment has been done to discover all credit card data

D.

Complete the self-assessment questionnaire and work with an Approved Scanning Vendor (ASV) to determine scope

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Questions 62

The effectiveness of social engineering penetration testing using phishing can be used as a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for the effectiveness of an organization’s

Options:

A.

Risk Management Program.

B.

Anti-Spam controls.

C.

Security Awareness Program.

D.

Identity and Access Management Program.

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Questions 63

A global health insurance company is concerned about protecting confidential information. Which of the following is of MOST concern to this organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.

B.

Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.

C.

Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.

D.

Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.

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Questions 64

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002 standard?

Options:

A.

To give information security management recommendations to those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization.

B.

To provide a common basis for developing organizational security standards

C.

To provide effective security management practice and to provide confidence in inter-organizational dealings

D.

To established guidelines and general principles for initiating, implementing, maintaining, and improving information security management within an organization

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Questions 65

What is the SECOND step to creating a risk management methodology according to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30 standard?

Options:

A.

Determine appetite

B.

Evaluate risk avoidance criteria

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Mitigate risk

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Questions 66

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission is known as

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk acceptance

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Questions 67

When managing an Information Security Program, which of the following is of MOST importance in order to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization

B.

Alignment of security goals with business goals

C.

Compliance with local privacy regulations

D.

Support from Legal and HR teams

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Questions 68

Which of the following is a term related to risk management that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to transpire?

Options:

A.

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

B.

Exposure Factor (EF)

C.

Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

D.

Temporal Probability (TP)

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Questions 69

Which of the following is considered the MOST effective tool against social engineering?

Options:

A.

Anti-phishing tools

B.

Anti-malware tools

C.

Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program

D.

Effective Security awareness program

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Questions 70

The PRIMARY objective for information security program development should be:

Options:

A.

Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.

B.

Establishing strategic alignment with bunsiness continuity requirements

C.

Establishing incident response programs.

D.

Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.

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Questions 71

What is the MAIN reason for conflicts between Information Technology and Information Security programs?

Options:

A.

Technology governance defines technology policies and standards while security governance does not.

B.

Security governance defines technology best practices and Information Technology governance does not.

C.

Technology Governance is focused on process risks whereas Security Governance is focused on business risk.

D.

The effective implementation of security controls can be viewed as an inhibitor to rapid Information Technology implementations.

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Questions 72

The patching and monitoring of systems on a consistent schedule is required by?

Options:

A.

Local privacy laws

B.

Industry best practices

C.

Risk Management frameworks

D.

Audit best practices

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Questions 73

A method to transfer risk is to:

Options:

A.

Implement redundancy

B.

move operations to another region

C.

purchase breach insurance

D.

Alignment with business operations

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Questions 74

You are the Chief Information Security Officer of a large, multinational bank and you suspect there is a flaw in a two factor authentication token management process. Which of the following represents your BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Validate that security awareness program content includes information about the potential vulnerability

B.

Conduct a thorough risk assessment against the current implementation to determine system functions

C.

Determine program ownership to implement compensating controls

D.

Send a report to executive peers and business unit owners detailing your suspicions

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Questions 75

Which of the following information may be found in table top exercises for incident response?

Options:

A.

Security budget augmentation

B.

Process improvements

C.

Real-time to remediate

D.

Security control selection

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Questions 76

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

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Questions 77

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

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Questions 78

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

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Questions 79

Which of the following is MOST beneficial in determining an appropriate balance between uncontrolled innovation and excessive caution in an organization?

Options:

A.

Define the risk appetite

B.

Determine budget constraints

C.

Review project charters

D.

Collaborate security projects

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Questions 80

Which one of the following BEST describes which member of the management team is accountable for the day-to-day operation of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Security administrators

B.

Security mangers

C.

Security technicians

D.

Security analysts

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Questions 81

Which of the following is the MOST important component of any change management process?

Options:

A.

Scheduling

B.

Back-out procedures

C.

Outage planning

D.

Management approval

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Questions 82

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

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Questions 83

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

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Questions 84

Which of the following will be MOST helpful for getting an Information Security project that is behind schedule back on schedule?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

More training of staff members

D.

Involve internal audit

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Questions 85

The Security Operations Center (SOC) just purchased a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) that needs to be deployed in-line for best defense. The IT group is concerned about putting the new IPS in-line because it might negatively impact network availability. What would be the BEST approach for the CISO to reassure the IT group?

Options:

A.

Work with the IT group and tell them to put IPS in-line and say it won’t cause any network impact

B.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS won’t cause any network impact because it will fail open

C.

Explain to the IT group that this is a business need and the IPS will fail open however, if there is a network failure the CISO will accept responsibility

D.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS will fail open once in-line however it will be deployed in monitor mode for a set period of time to ensure that it doesn’t block any legitimate traffic

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Questions 86

Which of the following is critical in creating a security program aligned with an organization’s goals?

Options:

A.

Ensure security budgets enable technical acquisition and resource allocation based on internal compliance requirements

B.

Develop a culture in which users, managers and IT professionals all make good decisions about information risk

C.

Provide clear communication of security program support requirements and audit schedules

D.

Create security awareness programs that include clear definition of security program goals and charters

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Questions 87

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?

Options:

A.

it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan

B.

it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition

C.

it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget

D.

the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders

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Questions 88

Which of the following functions evaluates patches used to close software vulnerabilities of new systems to assure compliance with policy when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

System testing

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Planning

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Questions 89

A CISO implements smart cards for credential management, and as a result has reduced costs associated with help desk operations supporting password resets. This demonstrates which of the following principles?

Options:

A.

Security alignment to business goals

B.

Regulatory compliance effectiveness

C.

Increased security program presence

D.

Proper organizational policy enforcement

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Questions 90

Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

low risk-tolerance

B.

high risk-tolerance

C.

moderate risk-tolerance

D.

medium-high risk-tolerance

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Questions 91

Your incident response plan should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Procedures for litigation

B.

Procedures for reclamation

C.

Procedures for classification

D.

Procedures for charge-back

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Questions 92

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

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Questions 93

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

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Questions 94

Which of the following best summarizes the primary goal of a security program?

Options:

A.

Provide security reporting to all levels of an organization

B.

Create effective security awareness to employees

C.

Manage risk within the organization

D.

Assure regulatory compliance

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Questions 95

When managing the critical path of an IT security project, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Knowing who all the stakeholders are.

B.

Knowing the people on the data center team.

C.

Knowing the threats to the organization.

D.

Knowing the milestones and timelines of deliverables.

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Questions 96

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

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Questions 97

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

Options:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

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Questions 98

Which of the following can the company implement in order to avoid this type of security issue in the future?

Options:

A.

Network based intrusion detection systems

B.

A security training program for developers

C.

A risk management process

D.

A audit management process

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Questions 99

You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Options:

A.

Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert

B.

Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better

C.

Request additional resources to handle the workload

D.

Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts

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Questions 100

Which of the following functions evaluates risk present in IT initiatives and/or systems when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

System Testing

D.

Vulnerability Assessment

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Questions 101

Which of the following methodologies references the recommended industry standard that Information security project managers should follow?

Options:

A.

The Security Systems Development Life Cycle

B.

The Security Project And Management Methodology

C.

Project Management System Methodology

D.

Project Management Body of Knowledge

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Questions 102

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

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Questions 103

A department within your company has proposed a third party vendor solution to address an urgent, critical business need. As the CISO you have been asked to accelerate screening of their security control claims. Which of the following vendor provided documents is BEST to make your decision:

Options:

A.

Vendor’s client list of reputable organizations currently using their solution

B.

Vendor provided attestation of the detailed security controls from a reputable accounting firm

C.

Vendor provided reference from an existing reputable client detailing their implementation

D.

Vendor provided internal risk assessment and security control documentation

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Questions 104

Which of the following methods are used to define contractual obligations that force a vendor to meet customer expectations?

Options:

A.

Terms and Conditions

B.

Service Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Statement of Work

D.

Key Performance Indicators (KPI)

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Questions 105

The newly appointed CISO of an organization is reviewing the IT security strategic plan. Which of the following is the MOST important component of the strategic plan?

Options:

A.

There is integration between IT security and business staffing.

B.

There is a clear definition of the IT security mission and vision.

C.

There is an auditing methodology in place.

D.

The plan requires return on investment for all security projects.

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Questions 106

If the result of an NPV is positive, then the project should be selected. The net present value shows the present

value of the project, based on the decisions taken for its selection. What is the net present value equal to?

Options:

A.

Net profit – per capita income

B.

Total investment – Discounted cash

C.

Average profit – Annual investment

D.

Initial investment – Future value

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Questions 107

Acceptable levels of information security risk tolerance in an organization should be determined by?

Options:

A.

Corporate legal counsel

B.

CISO with reference to the company goals

C.

CEO and board of director

D.

Corporate compliance committee

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Questions 108

Scenario: As you begin to develop the program for your organization, you assess the corporate culture and determine that there is a pervasive opinion that the security program only slows things down and limits the performance of the “real workers.”

What must you do first in order to shift the prevailing opinion and reshape corporate culture to understand the value of information security to the organization?

Options:

A.

Cite compliance with laws, statutes, and regulations – explaining the financial implications for the company for non-compliance

B.

Understand the business and focus your efforts on enabling operations securely

C.

Draw from your experience and recount stories of how other companies have been compromised

D.

Cite corporate policy and insist on compliance with audit findings

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Questions 109

During the 3rd quarter of a budget cycle, the CISO noticed she spent more than was originally planned in her

annual budget. What is the condition of her current budgetary posture?

Options:

A.

The budget is in a temporary state of imbalance

B.

The budget is operating at a deficit

C.

She can realign the budget through moderate capital expense (CAPEX) allocation

D.

She has a surplus of operational expenses (OPEX)

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Questions 110

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Your Corporate Information Security Policy should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information security theory

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Incident response contacts

D.

Desktop configuration standards

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Questions 111

The primary purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

Maintain a log of discovered risks

B.

Track individual risk assessments

C.

Develop plans for mitigating identified risks

D.

Coordinate the timing of scheduled risk assessments

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Questions 112

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

During initial investigation, the team suspects criminal activity but cannot initially prove or disprove illegal actions. What is the MOST critical aspect of the team’s activities?

Options:

A.

Regular communication of incident status to executives

B.

Eradication of malware and system restoration

C.

Determination of the attack source

D.

Preservation of information

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Questions 113

Which of the following is MOST useful when developing a business case for security initiatives?

Options:

A.

Budget forecasts

B.

Request for proposals

C.

Cost/benefit analysis

D.

Vendor management

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Questions 114

The process for management approval of the security certification process which states the risks and mitigation of such risks of a given IT system is called

Options:

A.

Security certification

B.

Security system analysis

C.

Security accreditation

D.

Alignment with business practices and goals.

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Questions 115

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

B.

The NPV of the project is negative

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is larger than 10 months

D.

The ROI is lower than 10 months

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Questions 116

A consultant is hired to do physical penetration testing at a large financial company. In the first day of his

assessment, the consultant goes to the company’s building dressed like an electrician and waits in the lobby for

an employee to pass through the main access gate, then the consultant follows the employee behind to get into

the restricted area. Which type of attack did the consultant perform?

Options:

A.

Shoulder surfing

B.

Tailgating

C.

Social engineering

D.

Mantrap

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Questions 117

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

Which of the following frameworks and standards will BEST fit the organization as a baseline for their security program?

Options:

A.

NIST and Privacy Regulations

B.

ISO 27000 and Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards

C.

NIST and data breach notification laws

D.

ISO 27000 and Human resources best practices

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Questions 118

As the CISO, you have been tasked with the execution of the company’s key management program. You

MUST ensure the integrity of encryption keys at the point of generation. Which principal of encryption key

control will ensure no single individual can constitute or re-constitute a key?

Options:

A.

Dual Control

B.

Separation of Duties

C.

Split Knowledge

D.

Least Privilege

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Questions 119

Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates.

When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:

Options:

A.

Easiest regulation or standard to implement

B.

Stricter regulation or standard

C.

Most complex standard to implement

D.

Recommendations of your Legal Staff

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Questions 120

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage their bank information?

Options:

A.

Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country

B.

Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity

C.

Force a change of all passwords

D.

Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN

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Questions 121

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

When adjusting the controls to mitigate the risks, how often should the CISO perform an audit to verify the controls?

Options:

A.

Annually

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Quarterly

D.

Never

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Questions 122

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

Options:

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

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Questions 123

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

How can you reduce the administrative burden of distributing symmetric keys for your employer?

Options:

A.

Use asymmetric encryption for the automated distribution of the symmetric key

B.

Use a self-generated key on both ends to eliminate the need for distribution

C.

Use certificate authority to distribute private keys

D.

Symmetrically encrypt the key and then use asymmetric encryption to unencrypt it

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Questions 124

Which of the following is a primary method of applying consistent configurations to IT systems?

Options:

A.

Audits

B.

Administration

C.

Patching

D.

Templates

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Questions 125

Scenario: You are the CISO and are required to brief the C-level executive team on your information security audit for the year. During your review of the audit findings you discover that many of the controls that were put in place the previous year to correct some of the findings are not performing as needed. You have thirty days until the briefing.

To formulate a remediation plan for the non-performing controls what other document do you need to review before adjusting the controls?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity plan

C.

Security roadmap

D.

Annual report to shareholders

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Questions 126

Scenario: As you begin to develop the program for your organization, you assess the corporate culture and determine that there is a pervasive opinion that the security program only slows things down and limits the performance of the “real workers.”

Which group of people should be consulted when developing your security program?

Options:

A.

Peers

B.

End Users

C.

Executive Management

D.

All of the above

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Questions 127

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

What type of control is being implemented by supervisors and data owners?

Options:

A.

Management

B.

Operational

C.

Technical

D.

Administrative

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Questions 128

What is one key difference between Capital expenditures and Operating expenditures?

Options:

A.

Operating expense cannot be written off while Capital expense can

B.

Operating expenses can be depreciated over time and Capital expenses cannot

C.

Capital expenses cannot include salaries and Operating expenses can

D.

Capital expenditures allow for the cost to be depreciated over time and Operating does not

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Questions 129

Where does bottom-up financial planning primarily gain information for creating budgets?

Options:

A.

By adding all capital and operational costs from the prior budgetary cycle, and determining potential

financial shortages

B.

By reviewing last year’s program-level costs and adding a percentage of expected additional portfolio costs

C.

By adding the cost of all known individual tasks and projects that are planned for the next budgetary cycle

D.

By adding all planned operational expenses per quarter then summarizing them in a budget request

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Questions 130

Which of the following information would MOST likely be reported at the board-level within an organization?

Options:

A.

System scanning trends and results as they pertain to insider and external threat sources

B.

The capabilities of a security program in terms of staffing support

C.

Significant risks and security incidents that have been discovered since the last assembly of the

membership

D.

The numbers and types of cyberattacks experienced by the organization since the last assembly of the

membership

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Questions 131

When creating contractual agreements and procurement processes why should security requirements be included?

Options:

A.

To make sure they are added on after the process is completed

B.

To make sure the costs of security is included and understood

C.

To make sure the security process aligns with the vendor’s security process

D.

To make sure the patching process is included with the costs

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Questions 132

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

Options:

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

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Questions 133

The Annualized Loss Expectancy (Before) minus Annualized Loss Expectancy (After) minus Annual Safeguard Cost is the formula for determining:

Options:

A.

Safeguard Value

B.

Cost Benefit Analysis

C.

Single Loss Expectancy

D.

Life Cycle Loss Expectancy

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Questions 134

Which of the following is used to lure attackers into false environments so they can be monitored, contained, or blocked from reaching critical systems?

Options:

A.

Segmentation controls.

B.

Shadow applications.

C.

Deception technology.

D.

Vulnerability management.

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Questions 135

What is the name of a formal statement that defines the strategy, approach, or expectations related to specific concerns within an organization:

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

standard

C.

Procedure

D.

Guideline

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Questions 136

A university recently hired a CISO. One of the first tasks is to develop a continuity of operations plan (COOP).

In developing the business impact assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relate to the data backup and restoral?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Mean Time to Delivery (MTD)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

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Questions 137

Who is responsible for verifying that audit directives are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT Management

B.

Internal Audit

C.

IT Security

D.

BOD Audit Committee

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Questions 138

Which of the following are the triple constraints of project management?

Options:

A.

Time, quality, and scope

B.

Cost, quality, and time

C.

Scope, time, and cost

D.

Quality, scope, and cost

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Questions 139

What is the primary difference between regulations and standards?

Options:

A.

Standards will include regulations

B.

Standards that aren’t followed are punishable by fines

C.

Regulations are made enforceable by the power provided by laws

D.

Regulations must be reviewed and approved by the business

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Questions 140

Providing oversight of an information security program for the organization is the primary responsibility of which group?

Options:

A.

Office of the Auditor

B.

Senior Executives

C.

Office of the General Counsel

D.

All employees and users

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Questions 141

Optical biometric recognition such as retina scanning provides access to facilities through reading the unique characteristics of a person’s eye.

However, authorization failures can occur with individuals who have?

Options:

A.

Glaucoma or cataracts

B.

Two different colored eyes (heterochromia iridium)

C.

Contact lens

D.

Malaria

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Questions 142

Which of the following is the MOST important to share with an Information Security Steering Committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels

B.

Review audit and compliance reports

C.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor

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Questions 143

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

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Questions 144

Which of the following refers to the quantity or quality of project deliverables expanding from the original project plan?

Options:

A.

Deliverable expansion

B.

Scope creep

C.

Deadline extension

D.

Scope modification

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Questions 145

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

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Questions 146

What standard would you use to help determine key performance indicators?

Options:

A.

ITIL

B.

FIPS140-2

C.

NI5TSP800-53

D.

NISTSP800-5S

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Questions 147

If a CISO wants to understand the liabilities of the company, she will refer to the:

Options:

A.

Statement of Proxy

B.

Statement of Retained Earnings

C.

once Sheet

D.

Profit and Loss Statement

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Questions 148

What key technology can mitigate ransomware threats?

Options:

A.

Use immutable data storage

B.

Phishing exercises

C.

Application of multiple end point anti-malware solutions

D.

Blocking use of wireless networks

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Exam Code: 712-50
Exam Name: EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO)
Last Update: Sep 16, 2025
Questions: 494

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