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CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following presents the highest money laundering risk from a money services business (MSB)?

Options:

A.

Some MSBs provide bureau de change services to retail customers after they complete a due diligence process.

B.

Some MSBs process large, individual cash transactions on behalf of customers.

C.

Some MSBs allow regular and frequent transactions to the same family members based in another country

D.

Some MSBs process small remittance payments on behalf of workers based abroad sending money home.

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Questions 5

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

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Questions 6

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

Options:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

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Questions 7

A financial institution is exploring automation to assist investigators in reviewing flagged transactions. Currently, investigators spend a significant amount of time gathering data from multiple sources.

Which of the following automation features would be most effective in improving investigator efficiency?

Options:

A.

Pre-populated templates for SAR filing

B.

Integration of open-source tools to gather real-time intelligence

C.

Automated case prioritization based on risk scoring

D.

AI-powered dashboards summarizing flagged transactions

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Questions 8

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

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Questions 9

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

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Questions 10

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

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Questions 11

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

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Questions 12

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

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Questions 13

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

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Questions 14

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

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Questions 15

The compliance officer at an EU bank is investigating one of the customer accounts maintained with the bank for the last two years. According to bank records, the company's primary economic activity is import and export of petrochemical products Over a period of one year, the account transactions have exceeded US$500 million with various high-value inward wire transfers received from suppliers in Yemen followed by outward wire transfers to counterparties in Azerbaijan.

Which factor should give the compliance officer the greatest concern If observed in the investigation?

Options:

A.

Media searches reveal a report that the customer was accused of misconduct three years ago.

B.

The EU bank considers the origin and destination countries Involved in the transactions to be high-risk.

C.

The customer's activity includes multiple cross-border transactions involving various counterparties.

D.

The EU bank received no originator or beneficiary information for the wire transfers.

E.

The customer specializes in the import and export of petrochemical products.

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Questions 16

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

Options:

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

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Questions 17

News published in Country A reports that a politically exposed person (PEP) had received a bribe from a transnational company headquartered in a developing country of approximately USS1.5 million deposited into on account at a financial institution (Fl> located in Country B Both countries are members of the Egmont Group The account where the money was deposited belongs to the PEP's immediate family member. To corroborate the facts, the PIU of Country A sent a formal request via secure communication channels for further information from its counterpart FIU in Country B.

According to Egmont principles, the FIU of Country B can:

Options:

A.

provide the information available to them because the exchange is between two FlUs that are members of the Egmont Group, and the formal request was made using secure communication channels.

B.

provide the requested information only if a memorandum of understanding (MoU) is signed between Country A and Country

C.

direct the FIU of Country A to the Fl where the account was opened for further information.

D.

deny the request if the FIU of Country B has not received a suspicious activity report (SAR) from the Fl where the account was opened.

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Questions 18

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

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Questions 19

A bank has been fined for failing to take reasonable care to establish and maintain effective systems and controls for high-risk customers, including politically exposed persons (PEPs).

Which typical financial crime risks should the bank have addressed? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Gathering sufficient information to establish the source of funds and source of wealth

B.

Assessing the level of money laundering risk posed by prospective and existing high-risk customers

C.

Assessing and reviewing the minutes of the relevant committee responsible for onboarding customers

D.

Ensuring an employee is responsible for liaison with the authorities on matters related to countering the finance of terrorism

E.

Ensuring that resources in its compliance and AML areas kept pace with the bank's growth

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Questions 20

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

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Questions 21

An employee at a financial institution (Fl) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate. Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Question their co-worker to determine If their suspicions are correct before reporting to the Fl's Human Resources department

B.

Use the Fl's whistle blowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Warn colleagues and customers of the F1 that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

D.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the F1 to take the required action

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Questions 22

Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.

Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?

Options:

A.

A lack of professional body oversight or required use of accounting and auditing standards in the country of incorporation of the entity

B.

Criminals posing as individuals seeking financial advice to place assets out of reach to avoid future liabilities

C.

Incomplete records being provided during bookkeeping, making them difficult to audit

D.

Accountants being used as intermediaries to introduce criminals to financial institutions

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Questions 23

An adequate organizational policy is: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

up to date and reflects all relevant regulatory developments

B.

signed off by the board of directors and regulators

C.

approved by the clients and third parties

D.

clearly communicated and understood by staff

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Questions 24

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

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Questions 25

A customer of a financial Institution (Fl) complained that they had received multiple emails appearing to originate from the Fl urging them to click on a link or open a remittance attachment for confirmation. After opening the attachment, the customer later realized that funds had been systematically transferred out of their bank account without their knowledge

Which type of cybercrime is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Vishing

B.

Pharming

C.

SMSishing

D.

Spear phishing

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Questions 26

When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:

Options:

A.

the operational burden of dealing with potential matches.

B.

the value of fines for non-compliance.

C.

the experience of the team dealing with potential matches.

D.

whether the data to be screened is reliable and verified.

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Questions 27

A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.

Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Percentage of regulatory reports for high-risk customers not completed within the required regulatory deadlines

B.

Percentage change of transaction monitoring alerts escalated for investigation compared to the previous quarter

C.

Percentage of customers for whom onboarding verification was not completed within KYC policy service-level agreement (SLA) requirements

D.

Number and percentage of senior politically exposed persons (PEPs) who were onboarded in the past quarter compared to all active customers

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Questions 28

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

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Questions 29

Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer deposits a large number of consecutively numbered money orders.

B.

A customer requests loans made to local companies or secured by obligations of local banks.

C.

A customer has regular deposits and withdrawals primarily in wire transfers.

D.

A customer receives wire transfers from different unknown accounts which are immediately wired onwards to a third party.

E.

A customer withdraws cash in amounts just under the reporting threshold.

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Questions 30

A Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) serves as a national center for the receipt and analysis of suspicious activity reports (SARs) and can obtain additional information from other reporting entities relevant to:

Options:

A.

public administration.

B.

legal assessment.

C.

law enforcement.

D.

legal activity.

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Questions 31

A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.

Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?

Options:

A.

The buyer is using high-value real estate transactions to obscure the origin of the funds.

B.

The buyer is quickly diversifying their investment portfolio through structuring payments in order to take advantage of the liquidity of cash transactions in real estate.

C.

The buyer is capitalizing on favorable market conditions and using cash purchases to outbid competitors in a competitive real estate market using insider information.

D.

The buyer is a real estate developer acquiring multiple properties for a potential redevelopment project with a business partner located in a high-risk jurisdiction.

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Questions 32

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

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Questions 33

Reference data screening includes the screening of which types of datasets? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Types of payment messages

B.

Customers

C.

Third-party service providers

D.

Customer spouses

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Questions 34

Which of the following ate efficient approaches lo performing horizon scanning? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Subscribing lo a regulators' newsletter

B.

Using a specific provider for regulatory horizon scanning

C.

Regularly contacting the regulator to inquire about updates and future developments

D.

Relying on information and insights from peers and working groups

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Questions 35

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

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Questions 36

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

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Questions 37

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

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Questions 38

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

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Questions 39

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

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Questions 40

Which financial crime risks are inherent to e-commerce platforms? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

E-commerce platforms exploited to move criminal proceeds

B.

Use of stolen bank cards for online purchases

C.

E-commerce platforms susceptible to fraud schemes

D.

E-commerce platforms used as a front for illicit transactions

E.

E-commerce platforms encouraging unregulated peer-to-peer lending

F.

Use of foreign currency to mask criminal proceeds

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Questions 41

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

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Questions 42

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

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Questions 43

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

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Questions 44

Which of the following businesses require enhanced or additional scenarios for identifying anomalous transactions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses not subject to licensing requirement

B.

Companies operating hospitals and health-care services

C.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses subject to licensing requirement

D.

Companies producing pharmaceutical products and medical devices, companies active in the mining industry

E.

Companies operating retail shops countrywide

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Questions 45

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

Options:

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

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Questions 46

According to the Egmont Group, which benefits do public-private partnerships (PPPs) provide to Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Helping overcome data protection and information sharing limitations

B.

Enhancing the quality of reporting and additional informational input

C.

Helping to alleviate the financial cost burden on law enforcement

D.

Helping to design common approaches and identify desired deliverables

E.

Offering flexibility, agility, and opportunities to adjust to the ML/TF threat environment

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Questions 47

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

Options:

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

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Questions 48

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

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Questions 49

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

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Questions 50

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Questions 51

How do nominees benefit criminals misusing thorn for money laundering purposes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Allow beneficial owners to provide proxies lot voting on corporate decisions

B.

Obscure beneficial ownership

C.

Allow domicile in the nominee's jurisdiction

D.

Derail investigations

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Questions 52

In the process of mutual evaluations and subsequent follow-ups used by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to assess the quality of various jurisdictions' AML controls, the FATF:

Options:

A.

imposes economic sanctions on jurisdictions with lax AML controls to force them to strengthen their controls.

B.

conducts on-site inspections of financial institutions in jurisdictions with lax AML controls to identify deficiencies and recommend improvements.

C.

publishes annual reports ranking all member jurisdictions based on their self-assessment of AML controls.

D.

conducts a peer review process whereby member countries assess the AML controls of other jurisdictions and provide recommendations for improvement.

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Questions 53

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

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Questions 54

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

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Questions 55

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

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Questions 56

Risks associated with real estate transactions include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person

C.

paying true market price for a property

D.

non-financed purchases

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Questions 57

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

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Questions 58

An AML compliance officer for a large bank has recently received an internal audit report on the private banking unit. The report revealed that the unit staff were not following risk-based due diligence procedures, so that the unit was not operating effectively.

Which immediate actions should the AML compliance officer consider to address these findings? (Select Two.)

Management Should implement a quality assurance program in the private banking unit

Options:

A.

Private bankers should receive training on AML procedures.

B.

All employees should receive refresher AML training.

C.

The board should review and approve a revised AML policy to change customer due diligence requirements in private banking.

D.

The legal department should conduct a review to assess potential legal consequences.

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Questions 59

Which of the following AML/CFT arrangements should a bank have in place at minimum before opening for business? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Independent compliance testing

B.

Qualified and knowledgeable staff

C.

Third-party screening software

D.

An automated monitoring system

E.

Written policy and procedures

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Questions 60

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

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Questions 61

When a government imposes economic sanctions on a target the purpose is to:

Options:

A.

protect the rights of the citizens of the state target against their own government and improve financial stability in the region.

B.

indicate that the use of military force is likely unless the state or non-state target complies with the government's

C.

interests encourage non-governmental organizations to increase the provision of humanitarian and charitable aid to the target

D.

alter the behavior of the state or non-state target that threatens the interests of that government or violates international norms

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Questions 62

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

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Questions 63

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

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Questions 64

Which of the following is a key consideration for a global organization when managing AFC and sanctions compliance across multiple jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions compliance by relying solely on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations

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Questions 65

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

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Questions 66

When selecting an anti-financial crime (AFC) tool for an organization, the most important factor to consider is whether the tool:

Options:

A.

integrates seamlessly with existing systems and processes.

B.

meets budget and cost requirements.

C.

automates all regulatory reporting requirements.

D.

replaces manual compliance training for employees.

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Questions 67

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

Options:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

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Questions 68

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Sep 19, 2025
Questions: 229

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