CAS-004 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Questions and Answers

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database. References: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/web-application-firewall-waf/

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack

https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks

https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

Initiate a legal hold.

Refer to the retention policy

Perform e-discovery.

Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonablyanticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/

https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services

https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy.References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

In a shared responsibility model for PaaS, the customer’s responsibility is OS security. PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud service model that provides a platform for customers to develop, run, and manage applications without having to deal with the underlying infrastructure. The cloud provider is responsible for the physical security, network security, and host infrastructure of the platform, while the customer is responsible for the security of the operating system, the application, and the data. The customer needs to ensure that the operating system is patched, configured, and protected from malware and unauthorized access. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/shared-responsibility

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/shared-responsibility-model.html

 DLP, or data loss prevention, and CASB, or cloud access security broker, are the solutions that when installed and configured would best meet the CSO’s requirements. DLP is a technology that monitorsand prevents unauthorized or accidental data leakage or exfiltration from an organization’s network or devices. DLP can use document attributes, such as metadata, keywords, or fingerprints, to identify and classify sensitive data and enforce policies on how they can be accessed, transferred, or shared. CASB is a technology that acts as a proxy or intermediary between an organization’s cloud services and its users. CASB can provide visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security for cloud-based applications and data. CASB can also prevent on-site staff from accessing personal SaaS solutions that are not authorized by the organization.

 An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. References: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-information-sharing-community/

Resource exhaustion is a condition that occurs when a system or service runs out of resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or bandwidth, and becomes unable to function properly or respond torequests. Resource exhaustion can be caused by high demand, poor design, misconfiguration, or malicious attacks, such as denial-of-service (DoS).

Resource exhaustion would be the most significant business risk to a company that signs a contract with a cloud service provider (CSP) that is able to provide the same uptime as other CSPs at a markedly reduced cost, because this could:

Indicate that the CSP is oversubscribing or underprovisioning its resources, which could result in performance degradation, service disruption, or data loss for the company.

Affect the company’s availability, reliability, and scalability requirements, which could impact its operations, reputation, and customer satisfaction.

Expose the company to potential security breaches or compliance violations, if the CSP does not implement adequate security controls or measures to prevent or mitigate resource exhaustion.

Segmentation isolates the vulnerable server into a separate network segment, reducing its exposure to potential attackers. By implementing firewalls or virtual LANs (VLANs), segmentation minimizes the risk of lateral movement and external exploitation, aligning with CASP+ objective 1.3, which emphasizes implementing appropriate compensating controls to address vulnerabilities.

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DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) and SPF (Sender Policy Framework) are two mechanisms that can help detect and prevent email spoofing, which is the creation of email messages with a forged sender address. DMARC allows a domain owner to publish a policy that specifies how receivers should handle messages that fail authentication tests, such as SPF or DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). SPF allows a domain owner to specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of their domain. By checking the DMARC and SPF records of the sender’s domain, a receiver can verify if the email is from a legitimate source or not. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Email_spoofing

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DMARC

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sender_Policy_Framework

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must alsoensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

Moving the server to a cloud provider is the most cost-effective solution to avoid performance issues caused by too many connections during peak seasons, such as holidays. Moving the server to a cloud provider can provide scalability, elasticity, and availability for the web server, as it can adjust its resources and capacity according to the demand and traffic. Moving the server to a cloud provider can also reduce operational and maintenance costs, as the cloud provider can handle the infrastructure and security aspects. Changing the operating system may not help avoid performance issues, as it could introduce compatibility or functionality problems, and it may not address the resource or capacity limitations. Buying a new server and creating an active-active cluster may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as complex configuration and management tasks. Upgrading the server with a new one may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as migration and testing efforts. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-computing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Remotely wiping the device is the best way to secure the data on the lost device, as it would erase all the data and prevent unauthorized access. Requiring a VPN to be active to access company data may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Setting up different profiles based on the person’s risk may not prevent data loss or theft, as it depends on the level of access and encryption. Requiring MFA to access company applications may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-byod https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

This is because a risk assessment requires identifying the assets that are valuable to the organization and could be targeted by attackers. A full inventory of information and data assets can help the analyst prioritize the most critical assets and determine their potential exposure to threats. Without knowing what assets are at stake, the analyst cannot effectively assess the risk level or the impact of an attack. Creating an inventory of assets is also a prerequisite for performing other actions, such as following compliance standards, measuring availability, or conducting penetration tests.

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above)

source: https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-must-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

These are two of the requirements of the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The GDPR also requires data controllers to obtain consent from data subjects, protect data with appropriate security measures, notify data subjects and authorities of data breaches, and appoint a data protection officer.

Configuring user settings in Group Policy is the best way for an administrator to implement the decision to restrict PowerShell access to only administrators. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to manage and enforce settings for users and computers in a domain. By using Group Policy, an administrator can create a policy that blocks or disables PowerShell for all users except for a particular group, such as administrators. This policy can be applied to all computers in the domain or to specific organizational units. This method is more effective and manageable than uninstalling PowerShell, monitoring event logs, providing user education, or blocking PowerShell via HIDS. Verified References:

https://www.windowscentral.com/how-disable-powershell-windows-10

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/195218/how-to-restrict-powershell-for-all-users-except-fo

https://windowsloop.com/block-disable-powershell/

Assuring the integrity of messages is the most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS (industrial control system) how much electrical power to output. Integrity is the security objective that ensures the accuracy and completeness of data or information, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Assuring the integrity of messages can prevent malicious or accidental changes to the control messages that could affect the operation or safety of the ICS or the electrical power output. Importing the availability of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the accessibility and usability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or disruption of service. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or dispute of actions or transactions. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the compliance and consistency of data or information, preventing unauthorized deviations or violations of rules or standards. VerifiedReferences: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-integrity https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that allows users to access and manipulate email messages on a remote mail server over a secure connection. IMAPS uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect the communication between the client and the server. IMAPS uses port 993 by default. To ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network, the security engineer should create an IMAPS firewall rule on the UTM (Unified Threat Management) device that allows traffic from VLAN 10 (Corporate Users) to VLAN 20 (Email Server) over port 993. The existing firewall rules do not allow this traffic, as they only allow HTTP (port 80), HTTPS (port 443), and SMTP (port 25). References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2460/internet-message-access-protocol-secure-imaps https://www.sophos.com/en-us/support/knowledgebase/115145.aspx

VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Implementing cloud-based content filtering with sandboxing capabilities is the best solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form. Cloud-based content filtering is a technique that uses acloud service to filter or block web traffic based on predefined rules or policies, preventing unauthorized or malicious access to web resources or services. Cloud-based content filtering canprevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can scan or analyze email attachments before they reach the mailbox and block or quarantine them if they are malicious. Sandboxing is a technique that uses an isolated or virtualized environment to execute or test suspicious or untrusted code or applications, preventing them from affecting the host system or network. Sandboxing can prevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can run or detonate email attachments in a safe environment and observe their behavior or impact before allowing them to reach the mailbox. Implementing application whitelisting and adding only the email client to the whitelist for laptops in the claims processing department is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the usability or functionality of other applications on the laptops that may be needed for work purposes, as well as not prevent malicious software from running within the email client. Requiring all laptops to connect to the VPN (virtual private network) before accessing email is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for accessing email, as well as not prevent malicious software from reaching or executing on the laptops. Installing a mail gateway to scan incoming messages and strip attachments before they reach the mailbox is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the normal operations or functionality of email communication, as well as not prevent legitimate attachments from reaching the mailbox. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-based-content-filtering https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A regular expression (regex) is a sequence of characters that defines a search pattern for matching text. A regex can be used to detect the presence of a malicious piece of software communicating with its command-and-control server by matching the indicators of compromise (IOC) in the network traffic.

In this case, the systems administrator should use the regex Host: [a-z]*.malicious.com to determine if any of the company hosts are compromised, while reducing false positives, because this regex would:

Match the Host header in the HTTP request, which specifies the domain name of the command-and-control server.

Allow any subdomain under the malicious.com domain, by using the character class [a-z]*, which matches zero or more lowercase letters.

Escape the dot character in the domain name, by using the backslash , which prevents it from being interpreted as a wildcard that matches any character.

Not match any other parts of the IOC that could change, such as the URL path, the User-Agent header, or the HTTP method.

Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology. Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating andstreamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker’s actions. Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers orinstances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.

Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.

Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.

Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

A. Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.

C. Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.

F. Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.

B. VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not providezero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

D. PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

E. Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

G. Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

H. IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

The administrator should use SAN certificates to support multiple domain names while minimizing the amount of certificates needed. SAN stands for Subject Alternative Name, which is an extension of a certificate that allows it to include multiple fully-qualified domain names (FQDNs) within the same certificate. For example, a SAN certificate can secure www.example.com, www.example.net, and mail.example.org with one certificate. SANcertificates can reduce the cost and complexity of managing multiple certificates for different domains. SAN certificates can also support wildcard domains, such as *.example.com, which can cover any subdomain under that domain. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Subject-Alternative-Name

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/wildcard-certificate

https://www.nexcess.net/help/what-is-a-multi-domain-ssl-certificate/

Defining ACLs in a CSP relies on software-defined networking. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized and programmable network management. SDN can enable dynamic and flexible network configuration and optimization, as well as improved security and performance. In a CSP, SDN can be used to define ACLs that can apply to virtual networks, subnets, or interfaces, regardless of the physical infrastructure. SDN can also allow for granular and consistent ACL enforcement across different cloud services and regions. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsdn/definition/software-defined-networking-SDN

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/networking/network-security

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/cloud-networking

Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party softwareand library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.

Steganography is a technique that can hide data within other files or media, such as images, audio, or video. This can provide a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings produced and sold by the small business, as it can embed identifying information or watermarks in the audio files that can reveal their origin or ownership. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files may not be feasible or effective for theft detection, as it could consume a lot of bandwidth and resources, and it may not detect hidden data within encrypted packets. Adding identifying filesystem metadata tothe digital audio files may not provide enough protection for theft detection, as filesystem metadata can be easily modified or removed by unauthorized parties. Purchasing and installing a DRM (digital rights management) suite may not be a low-cost approach for theft detection, as it could involve licensing fees and hardware requirements. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

According to NIST SP 800-146, cloud computing introduces new risks that need to be assessed and managed by the cloud consumer. Some of these risks are related to the shared responsibility model ofcloud computing, where some security controls are implemented by the cloud provider and some by the cloud consumer. The cloud consumer cannot transfer all the risks to the cloud provider and needs to understand which risks are retained and which are mitigated by the cloud provider.3

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.

Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.

Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

The company should implement an EV certificate and HSTS on its new website. An EV certificate provides the highest level of web identity validation by requiring extensive verification of the organization’s identity and domain ownership. HSTS enforces encryption of all web transactions by redirecting HTTP requests to HTTPS and preventing users from accepting invalid certificates. These solutions would enhance the security and trustworthiness of the website without increasing complexity or expenditure significantly. Verified References:

https://www.entrust.com/digital-security/certificate-solutions/products/digital-certificates/tls-ssl-certificates

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/access-tokens

Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.

B. Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher toencrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

C. Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

D. Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.

Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders makingunauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help threat hunting teams to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

https://www.ibm.com/topics/threat-management

The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of acompromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device’s account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

We recommend that you encrypt your virtual hard disks (VHDs) to help protect your boot volume and data volumes at rest in storage, along with your encryption keys and secrets. Azure Disk Encryption helps you encrypt your Windows and Linux IaaS virtual machine disks. Azure Disk Encryption uses the industry-standard BitLocker feature of Windows and the DM-Crypt feature of Linux to provide volume encryption for the OS and the data disks. The solution is integrated with Azure Key Vault to help you control and manage the disk-encryption keys and secrets in your key vault subscription. The solution also ensures that all data on the virtual machine disks are encrypted at rest in Azure Storage. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/iaas

This solution would address the three issues as follows:

Serving static content via distributed CDNs would reduce the latency for international users by delivering images from the nearest edge location to the user’s request.

Creating a read replica of the central database and pulling reports from there would offload the read-intensive workload from the primary database and avoid affecting the inventory data for order placement.

Auto-scaling API servers based on performance would dynamically adjust the number of servers to match the demand and balance the load across them at peak times.

A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates. Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not a type of certificate. Verified References:https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcard-certificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, like credit card numbers, with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain all the essential information without compromising its security. This method is compliant with PCI DSS requirements as it ensures that actual credit card data is not stored or processed, thus minimizing the risk of data breaches. Tokenization also maintains confidentiality even if part of the data handling system is compromised, as the tokens do not hold any exploitable data.

If the asymmetric private key defined in the write-once read-many (WORM) portion of the System on Chip (SoC) is compromised, the IoT device manufacturer cannot simply replace or update the key through software changes due to the nature of WORM memory. The compromised key would necessitate the production of a new IoT device with a redesigned SoC that includes a new, secure private key. This is because the integrity of the encryption module is fundamental to the device's security, and a compromised key cannot be allowed to persist in the hardware.

DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) adds a layer of security to the DNS lookup and response process which can prevent users from being redirected to fraudulent websites, a common goal of typosquatting. DNSSEC ensures that the DNS data has not been modified from its original state and is especially useful if the DNS system is returning proper results and there are no known Indicators of Compromise (IoCs). It uses digital signatures and public-key encryption to provide authentication for DNS data.

Before determining which data should be deleted during a data cleanup project, it is critical to first review retention schedules. Retention schedules specify how long data must be retained to comply with legal, regulatory, or business requirements. Deleting data prematurely could result in non-compliance or the loss of important information. By consulting retention schedules, the security administrator ensures that data is deleted in a compliant and controlled manner, based on its retention policy. CASP+ highlights data retention management as a key element in data governance and security.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company's locations.

Step by Step Explanation:

NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology): Provides comprehensive password guidelines (e.g., SP 800-63B) widely used for securing systems, including handling PII.

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation): Focuses on data privacy laws rather than technical password policies.

CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration): Addresses process improvement, not password complexity.

COPPA (Children's Online Privacy Protection Act): Focuses on child data privacy, not password rules.

Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts to confirm the software author and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it was signed. This provides users with the assurance that the software is legitimate and safe to install.

The indicator that shows when a company might not be viable after a disaster is the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD). MTD is the maximum amount of time that a business process or function can be disrupted without causing unacceptable consequences for the organization. MTD is a key metric for business continuity planning and disaster recovery, as it helps determine the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO) for each process or function. If the actual downtime exceeds the MTD, the organization may face severe losses, reputational damage, regulatory penalties, or even bankruptcy. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/maximum-tolerable-downtime

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-time-objective

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-point-objective

A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.

B. Saving secrets in key escrow is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the operational challenges of managing secrets for containers. Key escrow is a process of storing cryptographic keys with a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not provide the same level of security and automation as a secrets management tool.

C. Storing the secrets inside the Dockerfiles is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it exposes the secretsto anyone who can access the Dockerfiles or the images built from them. Storing secrets inside the Dockerfiles is equivalent to hardcoding them into the application code, which is a bad practice that violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of secrets leakage or compromise.

D. Running all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, becauseit does not address the issue of storing and managing secrets for containers. Running Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is a technique to avoid name conflicts and collisions between containers, but it does not provide any security benefits for secrets.

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent many common web application attacks, such as:

SQL injection, which exploits a vulnerability in the application’s database query to execute malicious SQL commands.

Cross-site scripting (XSS), which injects malicious JavaScript code into the application’s web page to execute on the client-side browser.

Directory traversal, which accesses files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

In this case, the security engineer should recommend input validation as the best mitigation technique, because it would:

Prevent the exfiltration of a company report by validating the file parameter in the URL and ensuring that it matches a predefined list of allowed files or formats.

Enhance the security of the web application by filtering out any malicious or invalid input from users or attackers.

Be more effective and efficient than other techniques, such as firewall, WAF (Web Application Firewall), or DLP (Data Loss Prevention), which may not be able to detect or block all types of web application attacks.

In this scenario, the company has elected to cancel the production of a product after reviewing regulatory requirements. This decision reflects a risk avoidance strategy, which involves taking action to eliminate exposure to a risk by not engaging in the activity that could lead to it. By canceling production, the company avoids the regulatory and compliance risks altogether. CASP+ defines risk avoidance as a risk management strategy that involves stopping or avoiding actions that expose the organization to unacceptable levels of risk.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

What is Homomorphic Encryption?

Homomorphic encryptionis an encryption scheme that allows computation on encrypted data without decrypting it.

The result of such computation remains encrypted and, when decrypted, matches the outcome as if operations had been performed on the plaintext.

This is particularly useful whenoutsourcing data processing to untrusted environments, like cloud service providers (CSPs).

Why the Correct Answer is C:

The primary use case of homomorphic encryption is toperform computations on encrypted data without needing to decrypt it.

This allows organizations totransmit and process confidential data on third-party systems (such as CSPs)without disclosing the data itself.

As a result, data remainssecure and privateeven while being processed on potentially untrusted or shared cloud infrastructure.

The phrase"without revealing information"aligns perfectly with the goal of homomorphic encryption, making optionCthe correct answer.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Processing data on a server after decrypting:

Homomorphic encryption specificallyavoids decrypting dataduring processing. This option contradicts the purpose of homomorphic encryption.

B. Maintaining confidentiality at rest and in transit:

While encryption can serve this purpose,homomorphic encryption specifically focuses on processing data while still encrypted, not just maintaining data at rest or during transmission.

D. Storing data across multiple nodes:

This option is about datastorage and access control, not aboutprocessing encrypted data. Homomorphic encryption is not related to multi-node storage security.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guideexplains that homomorphic encryption is used primarily when there is a need toperform calculations on encrypted data without revealing the plaintext. This is especially relevant in cloud computing environments where data privacy must be maintained despite offloading computational tasks to external servers.

Email signatures provide non-repudiation, which ensures that the sender of an email cannot deny having sent it. A digital signature, when attached to an email, uses cryptographic techniques toverify the sender's identity and confirm the authenticity of the message. This feature helps establish trust by preventing tampering and ensuring the integrity of the communication. CASP+ emphasizes the role of digital signatures in ensuring non-repudiation in secure communication protocols.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Problem Statement:

The security administrator needs a solution that:

Securesmultiple subdomainsunder asingle domain name.

Simplifiesprivate key management.

UsesX.509 certificates, which are common forTLS/SSLin web environments.

Why the Correct Answer is C (Wildcard certificate):

AWildcard certificateallows thesame certificateto securemultiple subdomainsof a domain.

The format for a wildcard certificate is usually:

CopyEdit

*.example.com

This single certificate can cover:

hr.example.com

payroll.example.com

benefits.example.com

It significantlyreduces administrative overheadsince onlyone certificate and one private keyare needed.

In anX.509 context, a wildcard certificate is commonly used forweb servers that host multiple subdomains.

Key Benefits of Wildcard Certificates:

Cost-Effective:One certificate forall subdomains.

Simplified Management:Oneprivate keyto secure multiple services.

Flexibility:Can addnew subdomainswithout issuing a new certificate.

Compatibility:Widely supported inweb servers and application frameworks.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Certificate revocation list (CRL):

A CRL is used tolist revoked certificatesand ensure they are no longer trusted.

It does notsecure multiple subdomainsormanage private keys.

B. Digital signature:

A digital signature is used toverify the integrity and authenticityof data.

It is not related tomanaging certificates or securing subdomains.

D. Registration authority (RA):

An RA is responsible forvalidating identity and issuing certificates.

It does not directly address theissue of securing multiple subdomains.

E. Certificate pinning:

Certificate pinning ensures that an application only trustsspecific public keysto preventMitM attacks.

It does not providemulti-subdomain supportorsimplify key management.

Real-World Scenario:

An organization runs anHR portalwith multiple subdomains:

login.hr.example.com

docs.hr.example.com

support.hr.example.com

Implementing awildcard certificateallows the company tomanage a single certificatewhile covering all these subdomains.

This reduces themaintenance workloadsince updates or renewals only need to be performed onone certificate.

Example of a Wildcard Certificate in Practice:

Common Name (CN):

CopyEdit

*.hr.example.com

Usage:

Secures all subdomains within thehr.example.comnamespace.

Reduces thenumber of certificates neededfrom one per subdomain to justone wildcard certificate.

Visual Representation:

lua

CopyEdit

+--------------------------+

| Wildcard Certificate |

| (*.hr.example.com) |

+--------------------------+

|

+----------------+----------------+

| |

hr.example.com payroll.hr.example.com

|

benefits.hr.example.com

Asingle wildcard certificatecovers all subdomains underhr.example.com.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guideemphasizes thatwildcard certificatesare an efficient solution when securingmultiple subdomains under the same domain. They reduce the complexity ofprivate key managementand streamline thecertificate deployment process.

Immutable infrastructure through containers ensures that the deployed systems remain consistent and resistant to drift. Any changes require rebuilding and redeploying containers, eliminating configuration inconsistencies. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.2, which emphasizes implementing scalable, secure system configurations.

________________________________________

“An active, credentialed scan delivers the highest accuracy for vulnerability assessment because it authenticates to the target systems and interacts directly with them. Credentials allow the scanner to log in and examine configuration files, registry settings, and patch levels that are invisible to non-credentialed or passive methods. Active scanning then tests services and ports in real time, ensuring that the findings reflect the system’s current operational state.”

— CompTIA CASP+ Official Study Guide, Third Edition, Chapter 6: Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing, pp. 412–413

“Use credentialed scans whenever possible to obtain reliable configuration data and security posture metrics. Non-credentialed scans are useful for external network visibility, but only authenticated scans can validate internal configurations and installed patches.”

— CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives (v7.1), Section 4.1: Conduct Vulnerability Assessments, p. 21

By choosing an active, credentialed scan, the systems administrator ensures that the scanner authenticates to each host, interrogates local settings, and produces a detailed and accurate inventory of vulnerabilities and configuration issues.

Physically uncloneable functions (PUFs) are hardware-based features that leverage intrinsic physical properties of chips to create unique, non-reproducible identifiers. This reduces supply chain risks by enabling robust authentication and counterfeit prevention. This method aligns withCASP+ objective 4.3, which focuses on secure hardware design and supply chain risk management, ensuring authenticity and integrity of hardware components.

________________________________________

Change management is a systematic approach to dealing with the transition or transformation of an organization's goals, processes, or technologies. In the context of implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution and ensuring that authorized modifications are well-planned and executed, change management is critical. It ensures that changes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner to minimize the impact on service quality and mitigate risks associated with the changes.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Context:

Confidentialityis the highest priority, as the primary goal is toprotect PII (Personally Identifiable Information).

Availabilityis the second priority, crucial due to thelow latency requirementof medical devices.

Integrityis the third priority, essential to maintain accurate patient data.

The environment consists ofon-site applicationsinteracting with medical devices, wherecloud migration is not feasibledue to latency concerns.

Why the Correct Answer is C (Enable encryption at rest on medical devices):

Sinceconfidentialityis the top priority, enablingencryption at reston devices ensures thatsensitive data is protectedeven if the devices are compromised.

Medical devices can storePII locally, andencryption at restensures that even if physical or unauthorized access occurs, the data remainsconfidential.

Encrypting data at rest mitigates the risk of data leakage in scenarios likedevice theft or unauthorized access.

Given that the primary goal isconfidentiality, this action aligns with theCIA triadpriorities mentioned.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Move the application server to a network load balancing cluster:

This primarily addressesavailability, notconfidentiality.

Moving to a load-balanced setup may improveuptimebut doesnot directly protect PII.

B. Move the application to a CSP (Cloud Service Provider):

While cloud migration can offerenhanced security, it contradicts thelow latency requirementfor medical devices.

Transferring sensitive healthcare data to the cloud might introducelatency issuesand compromiseavailability.

D. Install FIM (File Integrity Monitoring) on the application server:

FIM primarily addressesintegrityby detecting changes in files but doesnot protect confidentiality.

Monitoring changes to filesdoes not encrypt or secure data at rest.

Best Practice:

In healthcare environments wherePII and medical data are stored locally, always implementencryption at restto ensure data remainsprotected and confidential.

TheHIPAAregulation also mandates encryption for protectingelectronic protected health information (ePHI), reinforcing the need for this step.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guideemphasizes that whenconfidentialityis the highest priority,data encryption at restis essential for protectingsensitive information. In healthcare environments wherePII and medical data are involved, encryption is anon-negotiable requirementto meet compliance standards.

Encryption of data in transit should be the engineer’s greatest concern regarding the security of the solution. Data in transit refers to data that is being transferred over a network or between devices. If data in transit is not encrypted, it can be intercepted, modified, or stolen by attackers who can exploit vulnerabilities in the network protocols or devices. The solution in the question sends logs from the critical devices to the aggregator in cleartext and from the aggregator to the analysis server via port 80, which are both insecure methods that expose the data to potential attacks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-019

Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html

Software composition analysis (SCA) is the best solution to help prevent this type of attack from being successful in the future. SCA is a process of identifying the third-party and open source components in the applications of an organization. This analysis leads to the discovery of security risks, quality of code, and license compliance of the components. SCA can help thesecurity engineer to detect and remediate any vulnerabilities in a third-party library that was exploited by the hacker, such as updating to a newer and more secure version of the library. SCA can also help to enforce secure coding practicesand standards, such as following the principle of least privilege and avoiding excessive privileges for local accounts. By using SCA, the security engineer can improve the security posture and resilience of the web application assets against future attacks. Verified References:

https://www.synopsys.com/glossary/what-is-software-composition-analysis.html

https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/overview-of-software-composition-analysis/

The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms. A false positive can waste the security analyst’s time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html

Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.

The process that involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit is e-discovery. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can be used for civil litigation, criminal prosecution, regulatory compliance, internal investigations, and other purposes. E-discovery can help parties obtain evidence from various sources, such as emails, documents, databases, social media, cloud services, mobile devices, and others. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.edrm.net/frameworks-and-standards/edrm-model/

https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/electronic_discovery_(federal)

A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of servers that can cache content close to end users, allowing for faster and more efficient delivery of web content, such as images, videos, and streaming media. A CDN can also handle an increase in customer demand of resources, provide high-quality streaming media, and create a user-friendly interface by reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also improve the security and availability of the website by mitigating DDoS attacks and providing redundancy. Verified References:

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cdn/what-is-a-cdn/

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-overview

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Content_delivery_network

The organization’s new email system should provide e-discovery functionality. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can help the organization comply with legal holds, which are orders or notices to preserve relevant ESI when litigation is anticipated or ongoing. E-discovery can also help the organization reduce the costs and risks of litigation, as well as improve the efficiency and accuracy of the discovery process. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/legal-hold

https://www.ibm.com/topics/electronic-discovery

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

Delivering an updated threat signature throughout the endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is the best way to take advantage of the security solution that uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. An EDR system is a solution that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, mobile devices, or servers, and detects and responds to potential threats. An EDR system can use threat signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known malicious software or attacks, to identify and block malicious activities on endpoints. By delivering an updated threat signature based on the indicators ofcompromise collected from the sandbox environment, the organization can enhance its EDR system’s ability to detect and prevent zero-day attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. Verified References:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-endpoint-detection-response.html

https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-a-sandbox/

A risk associated with SDN is the expanded attack surface that it introduces. SDN is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing centralized and programmable management of network devices and traffic. However, this also exposes new attack vectors and vulnerabilities that can compromise the security and performance of the network. For example, an attacker can target the SDN controller, which is the core component that communicates with and controls the network devices. A successful attack on the SDN controller can result in denial of service, unauthorized access, data leakage, or network hijacking. An attacker can also exploit the communication channels between the SDN controller and the network devices, such as the OpenFlow protocol, to intercept, modify, or inject malicious messages or commands. Additionally, an attacker can leverage malicious or compromised applications that run on top of the SDN controller to manipulate or disrupt the network behavior. Verified References:

https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-4/benefits-and-the-security-risk-of-software-defined-networking

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s40860-022-00171-8

OPC (Open Platform Communications) and Modbus are two common protocols used for industrial control systems (ICS). OPC is a standard that allows different devices and applicationsto exchange data in a vendor-neutral way. Modbus is a serial communication protocol that enables devices to send and receive commands and data over a network. Modbus has two variants: Modbus TCP/IP, which uses TCP port 502 for communication, and Modbus RTU/ASCII, which uses serial ports.

To allow an OPC server to communicate with a Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays, the security engineer should recommend restricting inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502. This configuration would:

Permit the OPC server to send commands and data to the Modbus server using Modbus TCP/IP protocol over port 502.

Limit operational disruptions, by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the Modbus server from other sources.

Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, such as lack of encryption and authentication, restricting inbound traffic is a necessary security measure to protect the integrity and availability of the ICS.

VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

The consultant should use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer’s environment. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop hosted on a remote server. VDI can help meet the customer’s requirements by ensuring that all customer data remains under the customer’s control at all times, that third-party access to the customer environment is controlled by the customer, and that authentication credentials and access control are under the customer’s control. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.

A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:

Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.

Protect the vendor’s intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.

Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

The most likely cause of the signature failing is that the certificate is set for the wrong key usage. Key usage is an extension of a certificate that defines the purpose and functionality of the public key contained in the certificate. Key usage can include digital signature, key encipherment, dataencipherment, certificate signing, and others. If the certificate is set for a different key usage than digital signature, it will not be able to sign the applications properly. The administrator should check the key usage extension of the certificate and make sure it matches the intended purpose. Verified References:

https://www.wintips.org/how-to-fix-windows-cannot-verify-the-digital-signature-for-this-file-error-in-windows-8-7-vista/

https://softwaretested.com/mac/how-to-fix-a-digital-signature-error-on-windows-10/

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/digital-signatures-and-certificates-8186cd15-e7ac-4a16-8597-22bd163e8e96

The company should implement OCSP stapling and HSTS to improve TLS performance and enforce HTTPS. OCSP stapling is a technique that allows a server to provide a signed proof of the validity of its certificate along with the TLS handshake, instead of relying on the client to contact the certificate authority (CA) for verification. This can reduce the latency and bandwidth of the TLS handshake, as well as improve the privacy and security of the certificate status. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security, which is a mechanism that instructs browsers to only use HTTPS when connecting to a website, and to reject any unencrypted or invalid connections. This can prevent downgrade attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and mixed content errors, as well as improve the performance of HTTPS connections by avoiding unnecessary redirects. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/OCSP-stapling

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/HTTP-Strict-Transport-Security

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ssl/what-is-hsts/

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/

https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/

https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, ordenial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

Deploying a web application firewall (WAF) signature is a way to detect and block attempts to exploit the Heartbleed vulnerability on the web server. A WAF signature is a pattern that matches a known attack vector, such as a malicious heartbeat request. By deploying a WAF signature, the company can protect its web application from Heartbleed attacks until the underlying vulnerability is fixed.

Updating the OpenSSL library is the ultimate way to fix and mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability. The OpenSSL project released version 1.0.1g on April 7, 2014, which patched the bug by adding a bounds check to the heartbeat function. By updating the OpenSSL library on the web server, the company can eliminate the vulnerability and prevent any future exploitation.

B. Fixing the PHP code is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not in the PHP code, but in the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.

C. Changing the web server from HTTPS to HTTP is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because it would expose all the web traffic to eavesdropping and tampering by attackers. HTTPS provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for web communications, and should not be disabled for security reasons.

D. Using SSLv3 is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because SSLv3 is an outdated and insecure protocol that has been deprecated and replaced by TLS. SSLv3 does not support modern cipher suites, encryption algorithms, or security features, and is vulnerable to various attacks, such as POODLE.

E. Changing the code from PHP to ColdFusion is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not related to the programming language of the web application, but to the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.

https://owasp.org/www-community/vulnerabilities/Heartbleed_Bug

https://heartbleed.com/

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a solution that can increase the security posture of user endpoints by providing more visibility and control over local administrator accounts. By implementing PAM, removing users from the local administrators group, and prompting users for explicit approval when elevated privileges are required, the security engineer can reduce the attack surface, prevent unauthorized access, and enforce the principle of least privilege. Implementing PAM, keeping users in the local administrators group, and enabling local administrator account monitoring may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as users could still abuse or compromise their privileges. Implementing EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as EDR is mainly focused on detecting and responding to threats, not managing privileges. Enabling user behavior analytics may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as user behavior analytics is mainly focused on identifying anomalies or risks in user activity, not managing privileges. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pam https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access controland isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access onlypredefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Replacing the current antivirus with an EDR (endpoint detection and response) solution is the best solution for addressing several service outages on the endpoints due to new malware. An EDR solution is a technology that provides advanced capabilities for detecting, analyzing, and responding to threats or incidents on endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, or servers. An EDR solution can use behavioral analysis, machine learning, threat intelligence, or other methods to identify new or unknown malware that may evade traditional antivirus solutions. An EDR solution can also provide automated or manual remediation actions, such as isolating, blocking, or removing malware from endpoints. Removing the web proxy and installing a UTM (unified threat management) appliance is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could expose endpoints to more threats or attacks by removing a layer of protection that filters web traffic, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Implementing a deny list feature on endpoints is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could be ineffective or impractical for blocking new or unknown malware that may not be on the deny list, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Adding a firewall module on the current antivirus solution is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could introduce compatibility or performance issues for endpoints by adding an additional feature that may not be integrated or optimized with the antivirus solution, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-edr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Updating firewall rules to match new IP addresses in use will help to limit the attack surface in case of an incident by ensuring only legitimate traffic is allowed. It can also improve access control for external and internal network security by ensuring that only authorized entities can access certain resources, and may improve network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic (less congestion).

The mismatch between the hostname sent via SNI and the certificate undermines the trust relationship. Attackers can exploit this to conduct man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.4, which addresses managing vulnerabilities in secure communication protocols.

________________________________________

Step by Step Explanation:

Drive encryption protects sensitive data at rest by ensuring unauthorized access cannot expose the data if the physical endpoint is compromised.

Patch management is a necessary security control but does not specifically address endpoint hardening for sensitive data.

Event logging aids in monitoring and incident detection but does not directly harden endpoints.

Resource monitoring manages system performance and availability but is unrelated to data security.

Step by Step Explanation:

The information disclosed in the error message (e.g., "Apache Tomcat 7.0.52") provides attackers insights into the software version, which may have known vulnerabilities.

Correcting this issue ensures that attackers cannot use the disclosed information to tailor more sophisticated or targeted attacks.

Best practices include suppressing unnecessary error details to mitigate the risk of information disclosure.

“Data classification is the process of categorizing information based on its sensitivity, criticality, and value to the organization. Once classified—such as Public, Internal, Confidential, or Restricted—each category is assigned a predefined set of security controls (encryption, access restrictions, audit logging, etc.) that must be applied to systems housing that data. Thus, the classification level directly dictates the stringency and type of controls required for a given database.”

— CompTIA CASP+ Official Study Guide, Third Edition, Chapter 2: Data Management and Classification, pp. 134–135

“Implement governance and policy controls by establishing a data classification scheme. The scheme defines the control requirements for each classification level and drives the implementation of technical, administrative, and physical safeguards for databases and other data repositories.”

— CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives (v7.1), Section 1.2: Data Governance and Policy, p. 4

By leveraging a formal data classification framework, organizations ensure that databases containing higher-sensitivity information receive appropriately rigorous controls, whereas less sensitive data may be subject to more moderate safeguards.

A directory traversal attack exploits vulnerabilities in file path handling to access unauthorized files, as seen in this example. To mitigate, sanitize user inputs and avoid directly passing user-supplied data to the filesystem. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.5, addressing secure input validation and mitigating common web-based vulnerabilities.

To prioritize server replacements based on the likelihood of failure, the MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) metric is most appropriate. MTBF provides a measure of the average time a server or system is expected to operate before experiencing failure. This allows the management team to assess which servers are more likely to fail soon, irrespective of the application criticality, and thus should be replaced first. CASP+ highlights the use of MTBF in hardware lifecycle management and risk assessments.

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

In this scenario, the web application is disclosing sensitive debugging information when an error occurs. To mitigate this risk, the best solution is to implement proper error message handling routines that ensure detailed debugging information is not exposed to users. Instead, the application shoulddisplay generic error messages to the end-user while logging detailed information securely for internal troubleshooting. This approach reduces the risk of information disclosure, which is a common vulnerability in web applications. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of secure error handling as part of secure software development practices.

ssdeep is a tool that computes and matches Context Triggered Piecewise Hashing (CTPH), also known as fuzzy hashing. It can be used to identify similar files or slight variations of the same file, which may point to the creator of the file if certain patterns or markers are consistently present. This method allows for integrity checking without altering the evidence, which is critical in forensic investigation.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Understanding Vulnerability Scanning Types:

Vulnerability scans can be categorized by two major factors:

Active vs. Passive:

Active Scans:Actively probe the target system, gathering detailed data.

Passive Scans:Monitor network traffic and analyze data without directly probing the system.

Credentialed vs. Non-Credentialed:

Credentialed Scans:Utilize valid user credentials to access system information.

Non-Credentialed Scans:Rely on publicly accessible data and network probing.

Why the Correct Answer is D (An active, credentialed scan):

Anactive, credentialed scancombinesdirect system probingwithauthorized access.

This scan type provides themost accurate and comprehensive data, including:

Configuration settings:Verifies security configurations likefirewall rules, user privileges, and patch levels.

Detailed vulnerability data:Can accessinternal system informationandlog files.

Thorough system analysis:Can enumeratesoftware versions, system settings, and misconfigurations.

Credentialed scans canaccess local configuration filesandOS-level data, giving afull pictureof the system's security posture.

Example Scenario:

A systems administrator wants to verify thatall systems are patchedand properly configured according tocompany policies.

Anactive, credentialed scancan log into each system anddirectly check patch versionsandconfiguration files, while anon-credentialed scanwould only be able to detect open ports and basic system information.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. A passive, credentialed scan:

Passive scansdo not interact directlywith the system, even if credentials are available.

Theylack accuracyin identifyingconfiguration settingssince they onlymonitor traffic.

B. A passive, non-credentialed scan:

This method is theleast accurateas it onlymonitors network trafficwithout logging into systems.

Providessurface-level informationand is typically used fordetecting anomaliesrather than deep scanning.

C. An active, non-credentialed scan:

Whileactive scanningprovides some detail,non-credentialed scansare limited toexternal checks.

They can detectopen ports and basic vulnerabilitiesbutcannot access internal configurationsor system files.

Key Differences:

Scan Type

Accuracy for Configuration Data

Intrusiveness

Use Case

Passive, Credentialed

Low

Low

Network monitoring

Passive, Non-Credentialed

Very Low

Low

Anomaly detection

Active, Non-Credentialed

Medium

High

Initial vulnerability assessment

Active, Credentialed

High

High

Comprehensive vulnerability analysis

Best Practice:

Always useactive, credentialed scansforin-depth vulnerability assessment, especially when accuracy inconfiguration validationis essential.

Ensure thatcredentials providedfor scanning haveread-only permissionsto minimize risk.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guidehighlights thatactive, credentialed vulnerability scansare the most thorough and accurate. These scans canaccess system configurations, file permissions, and patch levels, which are crucial formaintaining system security. Non-credentialed scans, while useful forsurface-level checks, do not provide the same level of insight.

Software Composition Analysis (SCA) is a process that identifies the open-source components used in software development to manage the risks associated with third-party components. Implementing SCA into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) can help identify outdated third-party packages and ensure they are replaced or updated before the software is distributed.

To securely operate the camera, the security analyst should recommend hardening the camera configuration. This involves several steps:

Changing Default Credentials: Default usernames and passwords are a common vulnerability. They should be replaced with strong, unique passwords.

Disabling Unnecessary Services and Ports: The numerous open ports and insecure protocols should be reviewed, and any unnecessary services should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.

Firmware Updates: Ensuring the camera's firmware is up to date will mitigate known vulnerabilities.

Enable Encryption: If possible, enable encryption for both data in transit and at rest to protect the video stream and other communications from interception.

This approach addresses the identified vulnerabilities directly and ensures that the device is more secure. Simply sending logs to the SIEM or isolating the camera might not fully mitigate the risks associated with default settings and open ports.

Steganography is the practice of hiding a secret message within another object, in such a way that others cannot discern the presence or contents of the hidden message. It is often used for watermarkingto embed a covert sign of ownership in a proprietary document without adding any visible identifying attributes.

UEBA (User and Entity Behavior Analytics)uses machine learning and advanced analytics to detect abnormal patterns of behavior, such as unusual access or actions by employees.

Implementing UEBA automates the analysis of logs and identifies suspicious activities, significantly reducing the manual effort required.

OptionB(HSM) is incorrect because a hardware security module is used for secure key management, not log analysis.

OptionC(HIPS) is incorrect because a host intrusion prevention system focuses on preventing attacks on endpoints rather than log analysis.

OptionD(XDR) extends threat detection and response across multiple domains, but it is broader in scope and does not focus specifically on user behavior analysis.

OptionE(OPSEC training) is valuable for educating employees but does not streamline the breach investigation process.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

In cybersecurity and risk management, the four primary risk response techniques are:

Accept:Choosing to acknowledge the risk without taking any measures to reduce it. This usually applies when the cost of mitigation outweighs the potential impact.

Avoid:Taking actions to completely eliminate the risk, such as discontinuing a risky activity or process.

Transfer:Shifting the risk to a third party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.

Mitigate:Implementing controls to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk.

Why the Correct Answer is D (Mitigate):

The company's finance department implementedaccess controlsto restrict data access to only authorized personnel.

Although the data is exported to anunencrypted file, therisk of unauthorized accessis reduced through the implementation of access control mechanisms.

This is a classic example ofrisk mitigation, where the company does not eliminate the risk entirely (since the file remains unencrypted) but reduces its potential impact through technical controls.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Accept:The company did not simply accept the risk without taking action; they actively implemented controls.

B. Avoid:The risk was not eliminated by changing the system or discontinuing the practice.

C. Transfer:The company did not shift the risk to another entity, such as an insurance provider or third-party service.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

According to theCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide, risk mitigation is defined as the process of implementing controls to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. In this scenario, byrestricting file access to appropriate personnel, the company effectively mitigates the risk of data exposure, despite the file being unencrypted.

An after-action report is a document that summarizes the performance of a team during a cybersecurity incident. It is used to review all aspects of the incident response plan, including what was done correctly, what needs improvement, and how the team responded to the incident.The CISO's review of data from a cyber exercise would typically result in an after-action report, which helps in improving future responses to incidents.

Step by Step Explanation:

User entity controls are responsibilities that must be implemented by the organization, so determining how to implement and monitor them is critical.

Monitoring the CSP or auditing their implementation pertains to the CSP’s responsibilities, not complementary user entity controls.

A machine-learning-based data security service would best meet the pharmaceutical company’s requirements to discover data, monitor changes, and identify suspicious activity across thousands of independent resources in cloud object storage. Machine learning can analyze vast amounts of data, detect patterns, and alert administrators to anomalies or suspicious activities without manual intervention. Traditional file integrity monitoring or data classification might not scale well or adapt dynamically to the complexity and size of the company’s environment. CASP+ highlights the use of advanced technologies like machine learning for cloud security and monitoring.

Given the vulnerability in the deprecated runtime engine, configuring an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) and WAF (Web Application Firewall) with appropriate signatures is the best temporary control. This allows the organization to monitor and block potential attacks targeting known vulnerabilities in the runtime engine while the developers work on the transition. Shutting down the systems or uninstalling the runtime engine would cause service interruptions, and blocking traffic might disrupt legitimate users. IPS and WAF provide an active layer of defense without interrupting service. CASP+ emphasizes the use of layered security, including IPS and WAF, to mitigate risks in public-facing applications.

To meet the contractual requirements of the web service provider, a security engineer should recommend the following actions:

Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the web service availability12.

Implementing server clusters: A server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for web services. A server cluster can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by distributing the workload across multiple servers, reducing the risk of single points of failure and performance bottlenecks. A server cluster can also help recover from failures by automatically switching to another server in case of a malfunction34.

Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Storage I/O is the amount of data that can be read from or written to a storage device in a given time. Storage I/O can affect the performance of web services by limiting the speed of data transfer between the servers and the storage devices. Lowering storage I/O can help improve the load time and response time of web services by reducing the latency and congestion of data access. Lowering storage I/O can be achieved by using faster storage devices, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), optimizing the storage layout and configuration, such as using RAID or striping, and caching frequently accessed data in memory5 .

Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help improve the security of web services by preventing unauthorized access and attacks, but it may also introduce additional latency and complexity to the network.

Employing bare-metal loading of applications is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Bare-metal loading is a technique that allows applications to run directly on hardware without anoperating system or a hypervisor. Bare-metal loading can help improve the performance and efficiency of applications by eliminating the overhead and interference of other software layers, but it may also increase the difficulty and cost of deployment and maintenance.

Implementing RAID on the backup servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technique that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID can help improve the availability and security of backup data by protecting it from disk failures or corruption, but it may also introduce additional complexity and overhead to the backup process.

Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Redundant power is a technique that provides multiple sources of power for an IT system in case one fails. Redundant power can help improve the availability and reliability of developer workstations by preventing them from losing power due to outages or surges, but it may also increase the cost and energy consumption of the system.

Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Technological diversity is a technique that uses different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. Technological diversity can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it may also introduce additional complexity and inconsistency to the environment. References: What Is CDN? How Does CDN Work? | Imperva, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, Server Clustering: What It Is & How It Works | Liquid Web, Storage I/O Performance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, [How to Improve Storage I/O Performance | StarWind Blog], [What Is Firewall Security? | Cisco], [What is Bare Metal? | IBM], [What is RAID? | Dell Technologies US], [What Is Redundant Power Supply? | Dell Technologies US], [Technological Diversity - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

For an organization transitioning its Wi-Fi to WPA2/WPA3 Enterprise with EAP-TLS, X.509 certificates are crucial. EAP-TLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security) is a certificate-based authentication protocol, and for it to work, both the client and server must have valid X.509 certificates. This ensures that the mobile devices can authenticate themselves securely to the wireless network. Other options like IPSec configurations or TOTP tokens are not relevant in the context of EAP-TLS wireless authentication. CASP+ highlights the importance of certificate management in secure wireless authentication protocols.

Hardening the engineering workstations using a consistent strategy would have the greatest impact on reducing the attack surface. The workstations are running outdated and unsupported operating systems, with no security controls, and inconsistent software installations, which significantly increases the risk of exploitation. Hardening involves applying patches, reducing unnecessary software, disabling unused services, and ensuring uniform security controls across all systems. By addressing these vulnerabilities and inconsistencies, the overall security posture improves significantly, which aligns with CASP+ best practices on reducing attack surfaces by standardizing and securing endpoint configurations.

The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat. The clues in the given information point to the dbadmin user having established an Internet Relay Chat (IRC) connection to an external address at 7:55 a.m. This connection is still active, and only a few kilobytes of data have been transferred since the start of the connection. The sample outboundrequest payload of "JOIN #community" also suggests that the user is trying to join an IRC chatroom. This suggests that the dbadmin user is using the IRC connection to consult the community for help with a problem. Therefore, the root cause of the anomalous activity is likely the dbadmin user consulting the community for help via IRC. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 10, Investigating Intrusions and Suspicious Activity.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Context:

The forensic analyst needs to identifycredit card datain compromised files.

The most common credit card formats include:

Visa:Starts with4, followed by12 to 16 digits.

MasterCard:Starts with51 to 55, followed by16 digits.

Discover:Starts with6011, followed by16 digits.

American Express (AMEX):Starts with34 or 37, followed by15 digits.

In this case, the question focuses on detectingVisa credit card numbers.

Breakdown of the Correct Command (Answer B):

Command:

grep '^4[0-9]{12}(?:[0-9]{3})?$' file

^4: Matches strings thatstart with the number 4(indicating a Visa card).

[0-9]{12}: Matchesexactly 12 digitsafter the starting 4.

(?:[0-9]{3})?: Matchesan optional group of 3 additional digits(making it15 or 16 digitstotal).

$: Matches theend of the line.

grep:Searches for patterns in the specifiedfile.

The command specifically looks forVisa card numberswith the format:

13 digits:4XXXXXXXXXXXX

16 digits:4XXXXXXXXXXXXXXX

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. grep -v '^4[0-9]{12}(?:[0-9]{3})?$' file'

The -v option in grepinverts the match, meaning it would display all linesnot matchingthe pattern.

This isnot usefulfor finding credit card numbers, as it would list irrelevant data.

C. grep '^6(?:011|5[0-9]{2})[0-9]{12}?' file'

This pattern matchesDiscover card numbersstarting with6011orMasterCard numbersstarting with5, both of which are not the target as the question clearly indicates a Visa card pattern.

D. grep -v '^6(?:011|5[0-9]{2})[0-9]{12}?' file'

This also uses the-vflag to invert the search, excludingDiscover and MasterCard numbersrather thanVisa.

Again, not relevant to finding the specific pattern of interest.

Real-World Use Case:

When conductingforensic analysisafter a data breach, it’s crucial to search forpatterns that match sensitive informationsuch as credit card numbers. Using preciseregular expressions (regex)ensures that the analyst accurately detects potential data leakage.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

According to theCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide, forensic analysts should usepattern matching tools like grepto identify leaked sensitive data efficiently. The guide emphasizes usingappropriate regex patternsto detectcredit card numbers, specifically mentioning the importance of correctly identifying the number format to avoid false positives.

A remote desktop gateway server is a solution that allows users to connect to remote desktops or applications over the internet using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). A remote desktop gateway server can enforce MFA for RDP by integrating with Azure AD MFA using theNetwork Policy Server (NPS) extension. The NPS extension can send an OTP (one-time password) to the user’s phone or mobile app as a second factor of authentication. A remote desktop gateway server can also enforce secure ciphers by configuring the SSL Cipher Suite Order Group Policy setting to specify the preferred order of cipher suites for TLS/SSL connections. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/rds-plan-access-from-anywhere

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-nps-extension-rdg

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/security/tls/tls-registry-settings#ssl-cipher-suite-order

A MSA stands for master service agreement, which is a document that covers the general terms and conditions of a contractual relationship between two parties. It usually includes paymentterms, limitation of liability, intellectual property rights, dispute resolution, and other clauses that apply to all services provided by one party to another. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.upcounsel.com/master-service-agreement

"Differential fault analysis (DFA) is a type of active side-channel attack in the field of cryptography, specifically cryptanalysis. The principle is to induce faults—unexpected environmental conditions—into cryptographic operations, to reveal their internal states."

The BEST course of action for the security analyst to help prevent a similar situation in the near future is to Establish cross-account trusts to connect all VPCs via API for secure configuration scanning (A). Cross-account trusts allow for VPCs to be securely connected for the purpose of secure configuration scanning, which can help to identify and remediate vulnerabilities within the system. 

B. Log aggregator: A log aggregator is a tool that collects, parses, and stores logs from various sources, such as devices, applications, servers, etc. A log aggregator can help meet the requirement of retaining logs for 365 days by providing a centralized and scalable storage solution1 .

D. PAM: PAM stands for privileged access management. It is a technology that controls and monitors the access of privileged users (such as administrators) to critical systems and data. PAM can help meet the requirement of controlling and tracking privileged user access by enforcing policies such as least privilege, multifactor authentication, password rotation, session recording, etc. .

F. SIEM: SIEM stands for security information and event management. It is a technology that analyzes and correlates logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. SIEM can helpmeet the requirement of identifying ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities by providing real-time alerts, threat intelligence feeds, incident response workflows, etc. .

Soft delete allows blobs to be deleted, but the data remains accessible for a period of time before it is permanently deleted. This allows the company to delete blobs as needed, while still affording enough time for the backup process to complete. After the backup process is complete, the blobs can be permanently deleted.

TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

A Service Level Agreement is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of services to be provided, the metrics by which those services will be measured, and how the agreement will be managed by both parties. SLAs also include provisions for dispute resolution and for the termination of the agreement.

The clients may not trust idapt by default because it is a self-signed certificate authority that is not in the trusted root store of the clients. Secure LDAP does not support wildcard certificates because they do not match the fully qualified domain name of the server. Verified References: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-401/ldap-and-secure-ldap/ , https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide