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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect security incidents?

Options:

A.

Analyze recent security risk assessments.

B.

Analyze security anomalies.

C.

Analyze penetration test results.

D.

Analyze vulnerability assessments.

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Questions 5

An organization implemented a number of technical and administrative controls to mitigate risk associated with ransomware. Which of the following is MOST important to present to senior management when reporting on the performance of this initiative?

Options:

A.

The total cost of the investment

B.

The cost and associated risk reduction

C.

The number and severity of ransomware incidents

D.

Benchmarks of industry peers impacted by ransomware

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Questions 6

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of implementing information security standards?

Options:

A.

To provide management direction with a specific security objective

B.

To provide a basis for developing information security policies

C.

To provide step-by-step instructions for performing security-related tasks

D.

To establish a minimum acceptable security baseline

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Questions 7

An information security manager finds a legacy application has no defined data owner. Of the following, who would be MOST helpful in identifying the appropriate data owner?

Options:

A.

The individual who has the most privileges within the application

B.

The individual who manages the process supported by the application

C.

The individual responsible for providing support for the application

D.

The individual who manages users of the application

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Questions 8

The PRIMARY reason to properly classify information assets is to determine:

Options:

A.

appropriate encryption strength using a risk-based approach.

B.

the business impact if assets are compromised.

C.

the appropriate protection based on sensitivity.

D.

user access levels based on the need to know.

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Questions 9

An information security manager is MOST likely to obtain approval for a new security project when the business case provides evidence of:

Options:

A.

organizational alignment

B.

IT strategy alignment

C.

threats to the organization

D.

existing control costs

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Questions 10

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

To aid in future risk assessments

B.

To improve the response process

C.

To determine whether digital evidence is admissible

D.

To notify regulatory authorities

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Questions 12

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 13

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost.

B.

tracked and reported on until their final resolution.

C.

documented in security awareness programs.

D.

noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found.

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

Options:

A.

To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B.

To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders

C.

To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk

D.

To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

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Questions 15

Management of a financial institution accepted an operational risk that consequently led to the temporary deactivation to a critical monitoring process. Which of the following should be the information security manager's GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Impact on compliance risk.

B.

Inability to determine short-term impact.

C.

Impact on the risk culture.

D.

Deviation from risk management best practices

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Questions 16

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

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Questions 17

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure incident management readiness?

Options:

A.

The plan is compliant with industry standards.

B.

The plan is regularly tested.

C.

The plan is updated annually.

D.

The plan is concise and includes a checklist.

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Questions 18

An information security manager has become aware that a third-party provider is not in compliance with the statement of work (SOW). Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Notify senior management of the issue.

B.

Report the issue to legal personnel.

C.

Initiate contract renegotiation.

D.

Assess the extent of the issue.

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Questions 19

What is the BEST way to inform senior management of the value of information security?

Options:

A.

Present the benefits of security awareness training

B.

Describe how security enables business objectives

C.

Describe potential impact of compromises

D.

Present anticipated return on security investment

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Questions 20

An online trading company discovers that a network attack has penetrated the firewall. What should be the information security manager's FIRST response?

Options:

A.

Notify the regulatory agency of the incident.

B.

Implement mitigating controls.

C.

Evaluate the impact to the business.

D.

Examine firewall logs to identify the attacker.

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Questions 21

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when developing a strategy for protecting an organization's data?

Options:

A.

Classification

B.

Encryption

C.

Access monitoring

D.

Access rights

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to involve external forensics experts in evidence collection when responding to a major security breach?

Options:

A.

To ensure evidence is handled by qualified resources

B.

To validate the incident response process

C.

To provide the response team with expert training on evidence handling

D.

To prevent evidence from being disclosed to any internal staff members

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Questions 23

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when noncompliance with security standards is identified?

Options:

A.

Report the noncompliance to senior management.

B.

Validate the noncompliance.

C.

Include the noncompliance in the risk register.

D.

Implement compensating controls to mitigate the noncompliance.

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Questions 24

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if an information security profile is aligned with business requirements?

Options:

A.

Review the key performance indicator (KPI) dashboard

B.

Review security-related key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Review control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

Review periodic security audits

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Questions 25

An experienced information security manager joins a new organization and begins by conducting an audit of all key IT processes. Which of the following findings about the vulnerability management program should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Identified vulnerabilities are not published and communicated in awareness programs.

B.

Identified vulnerabilities are not logged and resolved in a timely manner.

C.

The number of vulnerabilities identified exceeds industry benchmarks. D. Vulnerabilities are identified by internal staff rather than by external consultants.

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Questions 26

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to enhance its incident response plan processes and procedures?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessments

B.

Lessons learned analysis

C.

Information security audits

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 27

An organization has introduced a new bring your own device (BYOD) program. The security manager has determined that a small number of employees are utilizing free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices. Which of the following is the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Allow the practice to continue temporarily for monitoring purposes.

B.

Disable the employees' remote access to company email and data

C.

Initiate remote wipe of the devices

D.

Assess the business need to provide a secure solution

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Questions 28

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are entered in the organization's risk register.

B.

The risks are reported to the business unit's senior management.

C.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation.

D.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function.

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Questions 29

Which of the following would MOST effectively ensure that a new server is appropriately secured?

Options:

A.

Performing secure code reviews

B.

Enforcing technical security standards

C.

Conducting penetration testing

D.

Initiating security scanning

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Questions 30

A business unit recently integrated the organization's new strong password policy into its business application which requires users to reset passwords every 30 days. The help desk is now flooded with password reset requests. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Provide end-user training.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Continue to enforce the policy.

D.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 31

Recommendations for enterprise investment in security technology should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

adherence to international standards

B.

availability of financial resources

C.

the organization s risk tolerance

D.

alignment with business needs

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Questions 32

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

Options:

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

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Questions 34

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in an organization's selection of a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Return on investment (ROI)

B.

Compliance requirements

C.

Target audience

D.

Criticality of information

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Questions 35

An organization's HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

B.

Identity and access management (IAM) system

C.

Privileged access management (PAM) system

D.

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

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Questions 36

A new type of ransomware has infected an organization's network. Which of the following would have BEST enabled the organization to detect this situation?

Options:

A.

Regular review of the threat landscape

B.

Periodic information security training for end users

C.

Use of integrated patch deployment tools

D.

Monitoring of anomalies in system behavior

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Questions 37

Which of the following BEST minimizes information security risk in deploying applications to the production environment?

Options:

A.

Integrating security controls in each phase of the life cycle

B.

Conducting penetration testing post implementation

C.

Having a well-defined change process

D.

Verifying security during the testing process

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Questions 38

How would the information security program BEST support the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Conducting a control assessment

B.

Developing an emerging technology roadmap

C.

Providing effective risk governance

D.

Developing an acceptable use policy

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Questions 39

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents

B.

identify vulnerabilities

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 40

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

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Questions 41

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Review information security policies

D.

Review the state of security awareness

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Questions 42

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

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Questions 43

An organization has discovered that a server processing real-time visual data could be vulnerable to a lateral movement stage in a ransomware attack. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Network segmentation

B.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Encryption of data in transit

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Questions 44

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action during the containment phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Isolate affected systems to prevent the spread of damage

B.

Determine the final root cause of the incident

C.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to prevent future incidents

D.

Remove all instances of the incident from the network

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Questions 45

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?

Options:

A.

Incident management procedures

B.

Incident management policy

C.

System risk assessment

D.

Organizational risk register

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Questions 46

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to transform its culture to support information security?

Options:

A.

Periodic compliance audits

B.

Strong management support

C.

Robust technical security controls

D.

Incentives for security incident reporting

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Questions 47

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 48

An organization is considering using a third party to host sensitive archived data. Which of the following is MOST important to verify before entering into the relationship?

Options:

A.

The vendor's data centers are in the same geographic region.

B.

The encryption keys are not provisled to the vendor.

C.

The vendor's controls are in line with the organization's security standards.

D.

Independent audits of the vendor's operations are regularly conducted.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

Options:

A.

A weakness identified within an organization's information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

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Questions 50

Management decisions concerning information security investments will be MOST effective when they are based on:

Options:

A.

a process for identifying and analyzing threats and vulnerabilities.

B.

an annual loss expectancy (ALE) determined from the history of security events,

C.

the reporting of consistent and periodic assessments of risks.

D.

the formalized acceptance of risk analysis by management,

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Questions 51

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

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Questions 52

After a ransomware incident an organization's systems were restored. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) was not met.

B.

The recovery time objective (RTO) was not met.

C.

The root cause was not identified.

D.

Notification to stakeholders was delayed.

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Questions 53

Which of the following roles is accountable for ensuring the impact of a new regulatory framework on a business system is assessed?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Application owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Legal representative

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Questions 54

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to consider organizational culture when developing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the organization is responsible for information security.

B.

It helps expedite approval for the information security budget.

C.

It helps the organization meet compliance requirements.

D.

Security incidents have an adverse impact on the entire organization.

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Questions 55

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

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Questions 56

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of testing security controls within a critical infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the continued resilience and security of IT services

B.

Decreasing the percentage of security deployments that cause failures in production

C.

Reducing the number of control assessments to optimize resources

D.

Identifying and addressing security team performance issues

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Questions 57

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the ability to successfully execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting tabletop exercises of the plan

B.

Updating the plan periodically

C.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

D.

Reviewing escalation procedures

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Questions 58

An organization is aligning its incident response capability with a public cloud service provider. What should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify the skill set of the provider's incident response team.

B.

Evaluate the provider's audit logging and monitoring controls.

C.

Review the provider’s incident definitions and notification criteria.

D.

Update the incident escalation process.

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Questions 59

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

Options:

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 60

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

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Questions 61

When integrating security risk management into an organization it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

business units approve the risk management methodology.

B.

the risk treatment process is defined.

C.

information security policies are documented and understood.

D.

the risk management methodology follows an established framework.

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Questions 62

Application data integrity risk is MOST directly addressed by a design that includes:

Options:

A.

reconciliation routines such as checksums, hash totals, and record counts.

B.

strict application of an authorized data dictionary.

C.

application log requirements such as field-level audit trails and user activity logs.

D.

access control technologies such as role-based entitlements.

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Questions 63

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The framework defines managerial responsibilities for risk impacts to business goals.

B.

The framework provides direction to meet business goals while balancing risks and controls.

C.

The framework provides a roadmap to maximize revenue through the secure use of technology.

D.

The framework is able to confirm the validity of business goals and strategies.

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Questions 64

Which of the following components of an information security risk assessment is MOST valuable to senior management?

Options:

A.

Threat profile

B.

Residual risk

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Mitigation actions

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Questions 65

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 66

Which of the following would BEST justify continued investment in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in residual risk

B.

Security framework alignment

C.

Speed of implementation

D.

Industry peer benchmarking

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Questions 67

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure compliance with password standards?

Options:

A.

Implementing password-synchronization software

B.

Using password-cracking software

C.

Automated enforcement of password syntax rules

D.

A user-awareness program

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Questions 68

Which of the following should be the NEXT step after a security incident has been reported?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Investigation

C.

Escalation

D.

Containment

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Questions 69

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

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Questions 70

The GREATEST challenge when attempting data recovery of a specific file during forensic analysis is when:

Options:

A.

the partition table on the disk has been deleted.

B.

the tile has been overwritten.

C.

all files in the directory have been deleted.

D.

high-level disk formatting has been performed.

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Questions 71

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure an organization's risk appetite will be considered as part of the risk treatment process?

Options:

A.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Use quantitative risk assessment methods.

C.

Provide regular reporting on risk treatment to senior management

D.

Require steering committee approval of risk treatment plans.

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Questions 72

Which of the following is CRITICAL to ensure the appropriate stakeholder makes decisions during a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder plan

B.

Escalation plan

C.

Up-to-date risk register

D.

Asset classification

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Questions 73

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 74

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to review the firewall logs when an external network-based attack is reported by the intrusion detection system (IDS)?

Options:

A.

To validate the incident

B.

To review network configurations

C.

To validate the payload signature

D.

To devise the incident response strategy

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Questions 75

Which of the following is the MOST important objective when planning an incident response program?

Options:

A.

Managing resources

B.

Ensuring IT resiliency

C.

Recovering from a disaster

D.

Minimizing business impact

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Questions 76

An organization's automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of falsq positives. Which of the following is the BEST method to optimize the monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report only critical alerts.

B.

Change reporting thresholds.

C.

Reconfigure log recording.

D.

Monitor incidents in a specific time frame.

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Questions 77

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

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Questions 78

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

Options:

A.

Asset recovery cost

B.

Asset classification level

C.

Cost of insurance premiums

D.

Potential business loss

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Questions 79

When drafting the corporate privacy statement for a public website, which of the following MUST be included?

Options:

A.

Limited liability clause

B.

Explanation of information usage

C.

Information encryption requirements

D.

Access control requirements

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Questions 80

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of using a cloud access security broker when migrating to a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Enhanced data governance

B.

Increased third-party assurance

C.

)Improved incident management

D.

Reduced total cost of ownership (TCO)

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Questions 81

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to maintain legally admissible evidence7

Options:

A.

Documented processes around forensic records retention

B.

Robust legal framework with notes of legal actions

C.

Chain of custody forms with points of contact

D.

Forensic personnel training that includes technical actions

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Questions 82

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 83

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Implement a SIEM solution.

B.

Perform a threat analysis.

C.

Establish performance metrics for the team.

D.

Perform a post-incident review.

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Questions 84

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a vulnerability has been disclosed?

Options:

A.

Perform a patch update.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a penetration test.

D.

Conduct an impact assessment.

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Questions 85

A new information security reporting requirement will soon become effective. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis related to noncompliance with the new requirement.

B.

Perform a gap assessment against the new requirement.

C.

Investigate to determine whether the new requirement applies to the business.

D.

Inform senior management of the new requirement.

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Questions 86

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of alignment between corporate and information security governance?

Options:

A.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Project resource optimization

C.

Regular security policy reviews

D.

Senior management sponsorship

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Questions 87

Relationships between critical systems are BEST understood by

Options:

A.

evaluating key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

developing a system classification scheme

D.

evaluating the recovery time objectives (RTOs)

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Questions 88

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an information security manager to periodically review existing controls?

Options:

A.

To prioritize security initiatives

B.

To avoid redundant controls

C.

To align with emerging risk

D.

To address end-user control complaints

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Questions 89

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected

B.

Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

C.

Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level

D.

Confirming the organization complies with security policies

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Questions 90

Which of the following is the BEST technical defense against unauthorized access to a corporate network through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Requiring challenge/response information

B.

Requiring multi factor authentication

C.

Enforcing frequent password changes

D.

Enforcing complex password formats

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Questions 91

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for a vulnerability scanner to return incomplete results?

Options:

A.

Unauthenticated vulnerability scans are being performed.

B.

Scan results are not ingested into a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

C.

Host names have not been fully enumerated.

D.

Zero-day vulnerability signatures have not been ingested.

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Questions 92

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Questions 93

The BEST way to report to the board on the effectiveness of the information security program is to present:

Options:

A.

a dashboard illustrating key performance metrics.

B.

a summary of the most recent audit findings.

C.

peer-group industry benchmarks.

D.

a report of cost savings from process improvements.

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Questions 94

Which of the following is MOST difficult to measure following an information security breach?

Options:

A.

Reputational damage

B.

Human resource costs

C.

Regulatory sanctions

D.

Replacement efforts

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Questions 95

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

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Questions 96

What should be the FIRST step when an Internet of Things (loT) device in an organization's network is confirmed to have been hacked?

Options:

A.

Monitor the network.

B.

Perform forensic analysis.

C.

Disconnect the device from the network,

D.

Escalate to the incident response team

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Questions 97

The PRIMARY benefit of integrating information security activities into change management processes is to:

Options:

A.

protect the organization from unauthorized changes.

B.

ensure required controls are included in changes.

C.

provide greater accountability for security-related changes in the business.

D.

protect the business from collusion and compliance threats.

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Questions 98

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

Tracked and reported on until their final resolution

B.

Noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found

C.

Documented in security awareness programs

D.

Quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost

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Questions 99

Which of the following is an example of a change to the external threat landscape?

Options:

A.

The information security program has been outsourced.

B.

A commonly used encryption algorithm has been compromised.

C.

Industry security standards have been modified.

D.

The organization has been purchased by another entity.

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Questions 100

Which of the following is the BEST strategy when determining an organization’s approach to risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Advancing the maturity of existing controls based on risk tolerance

B.

Prioritizing controls that directly mitigate the organization's most critical risks

C.

Implementing risk mitigation controls that are considered quick wins

D.

Implementing a one-size-fits-all set of controls across all organizational units

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Questions 101

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

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Questions 102

What is the BEST way to address vulnerabilities associated with a recent increase in the number of zero-day attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement USB port control throughout the company.

B.

Implement automated antivirus updates.

C.

Implement a behavior anomaly detection solution.

D.

Develop a patching program.

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Questions 103

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

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Questions 104

What is the MOST important consideration when establishing metrics for reporting to the information security strategy committee?

Options:

A.

Developing a dashboard for communicating the metrics

B.

Agreeing on baseline values for the metrics

C.

Benchmarking the expected value of the metrics against industry standards

D.

Aligning the metrics with the organizational culture

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Questions 105

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

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Questions 106

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

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Questions 107

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective information security metric?

Options:

A.

The metric expresses residual risk relative to risk tolerance.

B.

The metric is frequently reported to senior management.

C.

The metric directly maps to an industry risk management framework.

D.

The metric compares the organization's inherent risk against its risk appetite.

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Questions 108

When designing security controls, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

Apply a risk-based approach

B.

Apply technical controls for sensitive data

C.

Consider business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Focus on preventive controls

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Questions 109

An information security manager is updating the organization's incident response plan. Which of the following is the BEST way to validate that the process and procedures provided by IT and business units are complete, accurate, and known by all responsible teams?

Options:

A.

Review the test objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a data breach incident tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct an incident response plan survey.

D.

Review data breach incident triage steps.

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Questions 110

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a new industry regulation?

Options:

A.

The organization's control objectives

B.

The organization's risk management framework

C.

The organization's risk appetite

D.

The organization's risk control baselines

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Questions 111

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing a security program?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk analysis

B.

Implement data encryption.

C.

Create an information asset inventory.

D.

Determine the value of information assets.

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Questions 112

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Questions 113

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

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Questions 114

Which of the following is MOST important to determine following the discovery and eradication of a malware attack?

Options:

A.

The malware entry path

B.

The creator of the malware

C.

The type of malware involved

D.

The method of detecting the malware

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Questions 115

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive insight into ongoing threats facing an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk register

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Vulnerability assessment

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Questions 116

Which of the following BEST protects against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Honeypot environment

B.

Updated security awareness materials

C.

Ongoing incident response training

D.

Proactive monitoring

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Questions 117

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate improvement in security performance?

Options:

A.

Report the results of a security control self-assessment (CSA).

B.

Provide a summary of security project return on investments (ROIs).

C.

Present vulnerability testing results.

D.

Present trends in a validated metrics dashboard.

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Questions 119

The PRIMARY objective of timely declaration of a disaster is to:

Options:

A.

ensure engagement of business management in the recovery process.

B.

assess and correct disaster recovery process deficiencies.

C.

protect critical physical assets from further loss.

D.

ensure the continuity of the organization's essential services.

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Questions 120

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

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Questions 121

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

Options:

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

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Questions 122

An incident handler is preparing a forensic image of a hard drive. Which of the following MUST be done to provide evidence that the image is an exact copy of the original?

Options:

A.

Perform a manual verification of file counts.

B.

Encrypt and back up the hard drive before copying.

C.

Use the same hardware for the image as the original.

D.

Perform digital hashing of the original and the image.

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Questions 123

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for a severity hierarchy for information security incident classification?

Options:

A.

Availability of resources

B.

Root cause analysis results

C.

Adverse effects on the business

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Questions 124

Following an employee security awareness training program, what should be the expected outcome?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of viruses detected in incoming emails

B.

A decrease in reported social engineering attacks

C.

An increase in reported social engineering attempts

D.

An increase in user-reported false positive incidents

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Questions 125

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Helping to determine the recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Providing a basis for implementing a need-to-know policy

C.

Supporting segregation of duties

D.

Defining resource ownership

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Questions 126

Which of the following roles is MOST appropriate to determine access rights for specific users of an application?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Data custodian

C.

System administrator

D.

Senior management

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Questions 127

Of the following, who is accountable for data loss in the event of an information security incident at a third-party provider?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The service provider that hosts the data

C.

The incident response team

D.

The business data owner

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Questions 128

Which of the following is the BEST way to evaluate the effectiveness of physical and environmental security controls implemented for fire-related disasters?

Options:

A.

Conduct evacuation exercises

B.

Review the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Conduct awareness sessions

D.

Review emergency management team procedures

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Questions 129

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of information security?

Options:

A.

Information management

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Data governance

D.

Business alignment

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Questions 130

When developing security processes for handling credit card data on the business unit's information system, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

ensure alignment with industry encryption standards.

B.

ensure that systems that handle credit card data are segmented.

C.

review industry best practices for handling secure payments.

D.

review corporate policies regarding credit card information.

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Questions 131

Which of the following is the BEST starting point for a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with identifying and addressing network vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Controls analysis

B.

Emerging risk review

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Traffic monitoring

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Questions 132

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of post-incident review activities?

Options:

A.

Evidence collection

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Incident triage

D.

Incident documentation

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Questions 133

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to evaluate the security posture of a cloud service?

Options:

A.

Industry peer reviews

B.

Service provider attestations

C.

Penetration testing reports

D.

Third-party audit reports

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Questions 134

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 135

Which of the following is MOST helpful for protecting an enterprise from advanced persistent threats (APTs)?

Options:

A.

Updated security policies

B.

Defined security standards

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Regular antivirus updates

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Questions 136

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

Options:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

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Questions 137

Which of the following MUST be defined in order for an information security manager to evaluate the appropriateness of controls currently in place?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Security standards

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Questions 138

During a post-incident review, it was determined that a known vulnerability was exploited in order to gain access to a system. The vulnerability was patched as part of the remediation on the offending system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Install patches on all existing systems.

B.

Review the vulnerability management process.

C.

Report the root cause of the vulnerability to senior management.

D.

Scan to determine whether the vulnerability is present on other systems.

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Questions 139

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to provide ongoing assurance that legal and regulatory compliance requirements can be met?

Options:

A.

Embedding compliance requirements within operational processes

B.

Engaging external experts to provide guidance on changes in compliance requirements

C.

Performing periodic audits for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Assigning the operations manager accountability for meeting compliance requirements

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Questions 140

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

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Questions 141

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

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Questions 142

An organization is in the process of defining policies for employee use of social media. It is MOST important for the information security manager to:

Options:

A.

Assign accountability for monitoring social media

B.

Identify security monitoring tools

C.

Evaluate risks to the organization

D.

Develop security awareness training

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Questions 143

An organization plans to leverage popular social network platforms to promote its products and services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Establish processes to publish content on social networks.

B.

Assess the security risk associated with the use of social networks.

C.

Conduct vulnerability assessments on social network platforms.

D.

Develop security controls for the use of social networks.

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Questions 144

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for logging firewall activity?

Options:

A.

Metrics reporting

B.

Firewall tuning

C.

Intrusion prevention

D.

Incident investigation

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Questions 145

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

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Questions 146

The categorization of incidents is MOST important for evaluating which of the following?

Options:

A.

Appropriate communication channels

B.

Allocation of needed resources

C.

Risk severity and incident priority

D.

Response and containment requirements

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Questions 147

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of an organization using Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) to help manage its disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

It offers the organization flexible deployment options using cloud infrastructure.

B.

It allows the organization to prioritize its core operations.

C.

It is more secure than traditional data backup architecture.

D.

It allows the use of a professional response team at a lower cost.

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Questions 148

An organization wants to integrate information security into its HR management processes. Which of the following should be the FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Benchmark the processes with best practice to identify gaps.

B.

Calculate the return on investment (ROI).

C.

Provide security awareness training to HR.

D.

Assess the business objectives of the processes.

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Questions 149

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Implement a mobile device policy and standard.

B.

Provide employee training on secure mobile device practices.

C.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution.

D.

Require employees to install an effective anti-malware app.

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Questions 150

An organization's research department plans to apply machine learning algorithms on a large data set containing customer names and purchase history. The risk of personal data leakage is considered high impact. Which of the following is the BEST risk treatment option in this situation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk, as the benefits exceed the potential consequences.

B.

Mitigate the risk by applying anonymization on the data set.

C.

Transfer the risk by purchasing insurance.

D.

Mitigate the risk by encrypting the customer names in the data set.

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Questions 151

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

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Questions 152

Which of the following is necessary to ensure consistent protection for an organization's information assets?

Options:

A.

Classification model

B.

Control assessment

C.

Data ownership

D.

Regulatory requirements

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Questions 153

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

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Questions 154

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

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Questions 155

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when attempting to create a security-focused culture?

Options:

A.

Current security strategy benchmarks against peer organizations

B.

The regional rules and legislation regarding information security

C.

The current security awareness level of the employees

D.

The organization’s existing security policies, procedures, and frameworks

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Questions 156

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

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Questions 157

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

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Questions 158

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

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Questions 159

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 160

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

Options:

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Questions 161

Management has expressed concerns to the information security manager that shadow IT may be a risk to the organization. What is the FIRST step the information security manager should take?

Options:

A.

Determine the extent of shadow IT usage

B.

Update the security policy to address shadow IT

C.

Block the end user’s ability to use shadow IT

D.

Determine the value of shadow IT projects

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Questions 162

An information security team plans to strengthen authentication requirements for a customer-facing site, but there are concerns it will negatively impact the user experience. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess business impact against security risk.

B.

Provide security awareness training to customers.

C.

Refer to industry best practices.

D.

Quantify the security risk to the business.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 164

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security policy?

Options:

A.

Best practices

B.

Management objectives

C.

Baselines

D.

Maturity levels

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Questions 165

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

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Questions 166

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

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Questions 167

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when one of the organization's critical third-party providers experiences a data breach?

Options:

A.

Inform the public relations officer.

B.

Monitor the third party's response.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Inform customers of the breach.

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Questions 168

Which of the following is MOST important for guiding the development and management of a comprehensive information security program?

Options:

A.

Adopting information security program management best practices

B.

Implementing policies and procedures to address the information security strategy

C.

Aligning the organization's business objectives with IT objectives

D.

Establishing and maintaining an information security governance framework

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Questions 169

Which of the following tools provides an incident response team with the GREATEST insight into insider threat activity across multiple systems?

Options:

A.

A security information and event management (SIEM) system

B.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

A virtual private network (VPN) with multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) system

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Questions 170

A new application has entered the production environment with deficient technical security controls. Which of the following is MOST Likely the root cause?

Options:

A.

Inadequate incident response controls

B.

Lack of legal review

C.

Inadequate change control

D.

Lack of quality control

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Questions 171

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in an information security environment?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Annual risk assessments

C.

Regular penetration testing

D.

Continuous monitoring

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Questions 172

Predetermined containment methods to be used in a cybersecurity incident response should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

number of impacted users.

B.

capability of incident handlers.

C.

type of confirmed incident.

D.

predicted incident duration.

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Questions 173

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

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Questions 174

An enterprise has decided to procure security services from a third-party vendor to support its information security program. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the vendor selection criteria?

Options:

A.

Feedback from the vendor's previous clients

B.

Alignment of the vendor's business objectives with enterprise security goals

C.

The maturity of the vendor's internal control environment

D.

Penetration testing against the vendor's network

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Questions 175

Which of the following is the FIRST step in developing a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Determine the business recovery strategy

B.

Determine available resources.

C.

Identify the applications with the shortest recovery time objectives (RTOs).

D.

Identify critical business processes.

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Questions 176

Which of the following BEST informs the design of an information security framework?

Options:

A.

Recent audit findings

B.

Implementation cost

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Available skills

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Questions 177

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Review vulnerability assessment.

C.

Conduct a security audit.

D.

Isolate the system.

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Questions 178

Which of the following should be an information security manager s MOST important consideration when determining the priority for implementing security controls?

Options:

A.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

B.

Results of business impact analyses (BIAs)

C.

Possibility of reputational loss due to incidents

D.

Availability of security budget

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Questions 179

Which of the following provides an information security manager with the MOST useful information on new threats and emerging risks that could impact business objectives?

Options:

A.

External audit report

B.

Internal threat analysis report

C.

Industry threat intelligence report

D.

Internal vulnerability assessment report

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Questions 180

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the gap between the present and desired state of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk analysis for critical applications.

B.

Determine whether critical success factors (CSFs) have been defined.

C.

Conduct a capability maturity model evaluation.

D.

Review and update current operational procedures.

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Questions 181

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are an output of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 182

Which of the following BEST enables an incident response team to determine appropriate actions during an initial investigation?

Options:

A.

Feedback from affected departments

B.

Historical data from past incidents

C.

Technical capabilities of the team

D.

Procedures for incident triage

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Questions 183

Which of the following metrics would provide an accurate measure of an information security program's performance?

Options:

A.

A collection of qualitative indicators that accurately measure security exceptions

B.

A combination of qualitative and quantitative trends that enable decision making

C.

A collection of quantitative indicators that are compared against industry benchmarks

D.

A single numeric score derived from various measures assigned to the security program

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Questions 184

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?

Options:

A.

Network with peers in the industry to share information.

B.

Browse the Internet to team of potential events

C.

Search for anomalies in the environment

D.

Search for threat signatures in the environment.

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Questions 185

An incident management team leader sends out a notification that the organization has successfully recovered from a cyberattack. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Prepare an executive summary for senior management

B.

Gather feedback on business impact

C.

Conduct a meeting to capture lessons learned.

D.

Secure and preserve digital evidence for analysis.

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Questions 186

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when confidential information is inadvertently disseminated outside the organization?

Options:

A.

Review compliance requirements.

B.

Communicate the exposure.

C.

Declare an incident.

D.

Change the encryption keys.

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Questions 187

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

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Questions 188

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after a new cybersecunty regulation has been introduced?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Consult corporate legal counsel

C.

Update the information security policy.

D.

Perform a gap analysis.

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Questions 189

An organization has determined that fixing a security vulnerability in a critical application is too costly to be feasible, but the impact is material to the business. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

B.

Accept the risk associated with continued use of the application.

C.

Implement compensating controls for the application.

D.

Discontinue using the application.

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Questions 190

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when developing an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Document disaster recovery procedures.

C.

Identify business requirements.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 191

The PRIMARY goal when conducting post-incident reviews is to identify:

Options:

A.

Additional cybersecurity budget needs

B.

Weaknesses in incident response plans

C.

Information to be shared with senior management

D.

Individuals that need additional training

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Questions 192

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

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Questions 193

Which of the following is MOST important to complete during the recovery phase of an incident response process before bringing affected systems back online?

Options:

A.

Record and close security incident tickets.

B.

Test and verify that compromisedsystems are clean.

C.

Document recovery steps for senior management reporting.

D.

Capture and preserve forensic images of affected systems.

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Questions 194

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

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Questions 195

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the security of services and solutions delivered by third-party vendors?

Options:

A.

Integrate risk management into the vendor management process.

B.

Conduct security reviews on the services and solutions delivered.

C.

Review third-party contracts as part of the vendor management process.

D.

Perform an audit on vendors' security controls and practices.

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Questions 196

A data discovery project uncovers an unclassified process document. Of the following, who is BEST suited to determine the classification?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Security policy author

C.

Creator of the document

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 197

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when developing a business continuity plan (BCP) for ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Backups are maintained offline and regularly tested.

B.

Impacted networks can be detached at the network switch level.

C.

Production data is continuously replicated between primary and secondary sites.

D.

Backups are maintained on multiple sites and regularly reviewed.

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Questions 198

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

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Questions 199

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

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Questions 200

Capacity planning would prevent:

Options:

A.

file system overload arising from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

B.

system downtime for scheduled security maintenance.

C.

application failures arising from insufficient hardware resources.

D.

software failures arising from exploitation of buffer capacity vulnerabilities.

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Questions 201

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to involve stakeholders from various business units when developing an information security policy?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of policy development

B.

To share responsibility for addressing security breaches

C.

To decrease the workload of the IT department

D.

To gain acceptance of the policy across the organization

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Questions 202

Which of the following metrics would BEST demonstrate the success of a newly implemented information security framework?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of identified security incidents

B.

A decrease in the number of security audit findings

C.

A decrease in the number of security policy exceptions

D.

An increase in the number of compliant business processes

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Questions 203

Which type of policy BEST helps to ensure that all employees, contractors, and third-party users receive formal communication regarding an organization’s security program?

Options:

A.

Management review policy

B.

Business continuity management policy

C.

Information security training policy

D.

Security incident management policy

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Questions 204

To ensure the information security of outsourced IT services, which of the following is the MOST critical due diligence activity?

Options:

A.

Request the service provider comply with information security policy.

B.

Review a recent independent audit report of the service provider.

C.

Assess the level of security awareness of the service provider.

D.

Review samples of service level reports from the service provider.

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Questions 205

Which of the following is MOST important to include in monthly information security reports to the board?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis of security metrics

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Root cause analysis of security incidents

D.

Threat intelligence

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Questions 206

Which type of system is MOST effective for prioritizing cyber incidents based on impact and tracking them until they are closed?

Options:

A.

Security information and event management (SIEM)

B.

Extended detection and response (XDR)

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

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Questions 207

An incident management team is alerted to a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

B.

fallow the incident response plan

C.

notify the business process owner.

D.

fallow the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 208

Several critical systems have been compromised with malware. Which of the following is the BEST strategy to eradicate this incident?

Options:

A.

Perform malware scanning

B.

Reimage the systems

C.

Block access to the impacted systems

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

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Questions 209

While responding to a high-profile security incident, an information security manager observed several deficiencies in the current incident response plan. When would be the BEST time to update the plan?

Options:

A.

While responding to the incident

B.

During a tabletop exercise

C.

During post-incident review

D.

After a risk reassessment

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Questions 210

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents.

B.

identify vulnerabilities.

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 211

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Reviewing previous audit reports

B.

Conducting a tabletop exercise

C.

Benchmarking the plan against best practices

D.

Performing a penetration test

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Questions 212

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

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Questions 213

During an information security audit, it was determined that IT staff did not follow the established standard when configuring and managing IT systems. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Providing annual information security awareness training

B.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

C.

Implementing a strict change control process

D.

Updating configuration baselines

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Questions 214

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure information security policies are understood?

Options:

A.

Implement a whistle-blower program.

B.

Provide regular security awareness training.

C.

Include security responsibilities in job descriptions.

D.

Document security procedures.

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Questions 215

An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.

Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

Options:

A.

Moving to a zero trust access model

B.

Enabling network-level authentication

C.

Enhancing cyber response capability

D.

Strengthening endpoint security

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Questions 216

When assigning a risk owner, the MOST important consideration is to ensure the owner has:

Options:

A.

adequate knowledge of risk treatment and related control activities.

B.

decision-making authority and the ability to allocate resources for risk.

C.

sufficient time for monitoring and managing the risk effectively.

D.

risk communication and reporting skills to enable decision-making.

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Questions 217

Which of the following would BEST address the risk of a system failing to detect a breach?

Options:

A.

User access reviews

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Vulnerability scanning

D.

Security control testing

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Questions 218

A small organization has a contract with a multinational cloud computing vendor. Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern to an information security manager if omitted from the contract?

Options:

A.

Right of the subscriber to conduct onsite audits of the vendor

B.

Escrow of software code with conditions for code release

C.

Authority of the subscriber to approve access to its data

D.

Commingling of subscribers' data on the same physical server

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Questions 219

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

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Questions 220

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

Options:

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the information security function when an organization adopts emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Developing security training for the new technologies

B.

Designing new security controls

C.

Creating an acceptable use policy for the technologies

D.

Assessing the potential security risk

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Questions 222

Which of the following should be the GREATEST consideration when determining the recovery time objective (RTO) for an in-house critical application, database, or server?

Options:

A.

Impact of service interruption

B.

Results of recovery testing

C.

Determination of recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Direction from senior management

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Questions 223

Which of the following activities MUST be performed by an information security manager for change requests?

Options:

A.

Perform penetration testing on affected systems.

B.

Scan IT systems for operating system vulnerabilities.

C.

Review change in business requirements for information security.

D.

Assess impact on information security risk.

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Questions 224

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 225

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

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Questions 226

Which of the following is MOST important to maintain integration among the incident response plan, business continuity plan (BCP). and disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Asset classification

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Escalation procedures

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Questions 227

Which of the following BEST determines an information asset's classification?

Options:

A.

Value of the information asset in the marketplace

B.

Criticality to a business process

C.

Risk assessment from the data owner

D.

Cost of producing the information asset

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Questions 228

What should be the NEXT course of action when an information security manager has identified a department that is repeatedly not following the security policy?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment on the systems within the department.

B.

Introduce additional controls to force compliance with policy.

C.

Require department users to repeat security awareness training.

D.

Report the policy violation to senior management.

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Questions 229

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

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Questions 230

The BEST way to integrate information security governance with corporate governance is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the information security steering committee monitors compliance with security policies.

B.

management teams embed information security into business processes.

C.

awareness programs include industry best practice for information security governance.

D.

the information security program is included in regular external audits.

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Questions 231

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

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Questions 232

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

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Questions 233

Which of the following is the MOST important factor of a successful information security program?

Options:

A.

The program follows industry best practices.

B.

The program is based on a well-developed strategy.

C.

The program is cost-efficient and within budget,

D.

The program is focused on risk management.

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Questions 234

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to validate user access requirements during an annual user access review?

Options:

A.

Access manager

B.

IT director

C.

System administrator

D.

Business owner

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Questions 235

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

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Questions 236

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of classifying information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Reporting capabilities

B.

Improved chain of custody

C.

Comprehensive documentation

D.

Prioritized recovery

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Questions 237

Once a suite of security controls has been successfully implemented for an organization's business units, it is MOST important for the information security manager to:

Options:

A.

hand over the controls to the relevant business owners.

B.

ensure the controls are regularly tested for ongoing effectiveness.

C.

perform testing to compare control performance against industry levels.

D.

prepare to adapt the controls for future system upgrades.

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Questions 238

Due to changes in an organization's environment, security controls may no longer be adequate. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the previous risk assessment and countermeasures.

B.

Perform a new risk assessment,

C.

Evaluate countermeasures to mitigate new risks.

D.

Transfer the new risk to a third party.

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Questions 239

Which of the following is the BEST control to protect customer personal information that is stored in the cloud?

Options:

A.

Timely deletion of digital records

B.

Appropriate data anonymization

C.

Strong encryption methods

D.

Strong physical access controls

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Questions 240

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action after receiving information about a new cybersecurity threat?

Options:

A.

Assess the impact of the new threat on the organization in the event of materialization.

B.

Update correlation rules for log monitoring to detect the possible emerging threat.

C.

Report the threat to senior management immediately to enable an informed decision.

D.

Review the enterprise architecture (EA) for vulnerabilities exploited by the threat.

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Questions 241

When remote access is granted to a company's internal network, the MOST important consideration should be that access is provided:

Options:

A.

on a need-to-know basis subject to controls.

B.

subject to legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

by the use of a remote access server.

D.

if a robust IT infrastructure exists.

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Questions 242

An organization wants to migrate a proprietary application to be hosted by a third-party cloud hosting provider using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model. Prior to selecting the cloud provider, what is MOST important for the organization to ensure?

Options:

A.

The cloud provider can meet recovery point objectives (RPOs).

B.

The cloud provider adheres to applicable regulations.

C.

The cloud provider’s service level agreement (SLA) includes availability requirements.

D.

The hosting contract has a termination clause.

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Questions 243

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is not co-mingled or exposed when using a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Obtain an independent audit report.

B.

Require the provider to follow stringent data classification procedures.

C.

Include high penalties for security breaches in the contract.

D.

Review the provider's information security policies.

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Questions 244

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

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Questions 245

Spoofing should be prevented because it may be used to:

Options:

A.

gain illegal entry to a secure system by faking the sender's address,

B.

predict which way a program will branch when an option is presented

C.

assemble information, track traffic, and identify network vulnerabilities.

D.

capture information such as passwords traveling through the network

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Questions 246

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Organizational culture

C.

IT governance

D.

Risk management

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Questions 247

An information security manager is alerted to multiple security incidents across different business units, with unauthorized access to sensitive data and potential data exfiltration from critical systems. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to appropriately classify and prioritize these incidents?

Options:

A.

Assemble the incident response team to evaluate the incidents

B.

Initiate the crisis communication plan to notify stakeholders of the incidents

C.

Engage external incident response consultants to conduct an independent investigation

D.

Prioritize the incidents based on data classification standards

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Questions 248

An information security manager wants to document requirements detailing the minimum security controls required for user workstations. Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for this purposed?

Options:

A.

Guidelines

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Standards

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Questions 249

An organization has an ongoing security awareness training program. Employee participation has been decreasing over the year, while the number of malware and phishing incidents from email has been increasing. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to senior management with recommendations.

B.

Implement a phishing reporting tool in the email system.

C.

Include regular phishing campaigns after each training session.

D.

Make the training program mandatory for all employees.

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Questions 250

Communicating which of the following would be MOST helpful to gain senior management support for risk treatment options?

Options:

A.

Quantitative loss

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 251

Which of the following is the MOST important input to the development of an effective information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Risk and business impact assessments

B.

Business processes and requirements

C.

Current and desired state of security

D.

Well-defined security policies and procedures

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Questions 252

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

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Questions 253

The MOST important reason for having an information security manager serve on the change management committee is to:

Options:

A.

identify changes to the information security policy.

B.

ensure that changes are tested.

C.

ensure changes are properly documented.

D.

advise on change-related risk.

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Questions 254

Which of the following should be done FIRST after a ransomware incident has been successfully contained?

Options:

A.

Notify relevant stakeholders.

B.

Conduct forensic analysis.

C.

Perform lessons learned.

D.

Restore impacted systems.

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Questions 255

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

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Questions 256

Which of the following BEST indicates misalignment of security policies with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Low completion rate of employee awareness training

B.

Lack of adequate funding for the security program

C.

A large number of long-term policy exceptions

D.

A large number of user noncompliance incidents

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Questions 257

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the effectiveness of an organization’s security posture?

Options:

A.

Incident metrics are frequently compared against industry benchmarks

B.

New hires are mandated to attend security training

C.

Security is embedded in organizational culture

D.

Senior management has approved and endorsed security practices

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Questions 258

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Determine recovery priorities.

B.

Define the recovery point objective (RPO).

C.

Confirm control effectiveness.

D.

Analyze vulnerabilities.

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Questions 259

An information security manager is concerned with continued security policy violations in a particular business unit despite recent efforts to rectify the situation. What is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy to accommodate the business unit.

B.

Report the business unit for policy noncompliance.

C.

Review the business unit’s function against the policy.

D.

Enforce sanctions on the business unit.

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Questions 260

An organization has decided to implement an Internet of Things (IoT) solution to remain competitive in the market. Which of the following should information security do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recalculate risk profile

B.

Implement compensating controls

C.

Reassess risk tolerance levels

D.

Update the security architecture

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Questions 261

The GREATEST benefit of an effective information security awareness program is the organization’s ability to:

Options:

A.

Meet compliance requirements

B.

Reduce security incidents

C.

Establish accountability

D.

Develop meaningful metrics

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Questions 262

Which of the following would be MOST useful when determining the business continuity strategy for a large organization's data center?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback analysis

B.

Business continuity risk analysis

C.

Incident root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 263

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of a comprehensive information security policy?

Options:

A.

Alignment with an established information security framework

B.

An established internal audit program

C.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Areview of recent information security incidents

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Questions 264

Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to include when presenting changes in the security risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Security training test results

C.

Performance measures for existing controls

D.

Number of false positives

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Questions 265

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

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Questions 266

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization's security posture?

Options:

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

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Questions 267

A finance department director has decided to outsource the organization's budget application and has identified potential providers. Which of the following actions should be initiated FIRST by IN information security manager?

Options:

A.

Determine the required security controls for the new solution

B.

Review the disaster recovery plans (DRPs) of the providers

C.

Obtain audit reports on the service providers' hosting environment

D.

Align the roles of the organization's and the service providers' stats.

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Questions 268

An organization has implemented controls to mitigate risks resulting from identified vulnerabilities in an application. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify all weaknesses have been addressed?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

B.

Conduct an internal audit

C.

Conduct penetration testing

D.

Prepare compensating controls

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Questions 269

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

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Questions 270

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

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Questions 271

The information security manager of a multinational organization has been asked to consolidate the information security policies of its regional locations. Which of the following would be of

GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Varying threat environments

B.

Disparate reporting lines

C.

Conflicting legal requirements

D.

Differences in work culture

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Questions 272

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to help ensure an organization's cybersecurity program meets the needs of the business?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment program

B.

Information security awareness training

C.

Information security governance

D.

Information security metrics

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Questions 273

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 274

An organization has updated its business goals in the middle of the fiscal year to respond to changes in market conditions. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to update in support of the new goals?

Options:

A.

Information security threat profile

B.

Information security policy

C.

Information security objectives

D.

Information security strategy

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Questions 275

An information security team is planning a security assessment of an existing vendor. Which of the following approaches is MOST helpful for properly scoping the assessment?

Options:

A.

Focus the review on the infrastructure with the highest risk

B.

Review controls listed in the vendor contract

C.

Determine whether the vendor follows the selected security framework rules

D.

Review the vendor's security policy

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Questions 276

Which of the following is MOST effective in monitoring an organization's existing risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic updates to risk register

B.

Risk management dashboards

C.

Security information and event management (SIEM) systems

D.

Vulnerability assessment results

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Questions 277

Which of the following would BEST support the business case for an increase in the information security budget?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis results

B.

Comparison of information security budgets with peer organizations

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Frequency of information security incidents

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Questions 278

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be:

Options:

A.

based on recent incidents.

B.

based on employees’ roles.

C.

aligned to business processes.

D.

focused on information security policy.

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Questions 279

Which of the following would be an information security managers PRIMARY challenge when deploying a bring your own device (BYOD) mobile program in an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Mobile application control

B.

Inconsistent device security

C.

Configuration management

D.

End user acceptance

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Questions 280

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Questions 281

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Evaluate information security tools and skills relevant for the environment.

B.

Gain an understanding of the business and cultural attributes.

C.

Contract a third party to conduct an independent review of the program.

D.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis of the framework.

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Questions 282

The PRIMARY purpose for conducting cybersecurity risk assessments is to:

Options:

A.

Assist in security reporting to senior management

B.

Provide metrics to indicate cybersecurity program effectiveness

C.

Verify compliance across multiple sectors

D.

Understand the organization's current security posture

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Questions 283

To help users apply appropriate controls related to data privacy regulation, what is MOST important to communicate to the users?

Options:

A.

Data storage procedures

B.

Data classification policy

C.

Results of penetration testing

D.

Features of data protection products

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Questions 284

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

Options:

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

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Questions 285

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when choosing a shared alternate location for computing facilities?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organization's mission

C.

Resource availability

D.

Incident response team training

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Questions 286

An organization is planning to engage a third-party service provider to develop custom software. Which of the following would help to provide the GREATEST assurance of software security?

Options:

A.

Security training for the service provider’s software development staff

B.

Independent assessment against a relevant standard

C.

Verification of certifications held by the individual developers

D.

Review of the service provider’s software development policies

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Questions 287

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on the development of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Business strategy

B.

Past and current threats

C.

IT security framework

D.

Industry standards

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Questions 288

Which of the following is MOST helpful to identify whether information security policies have been followed?

Options:

A.

Preventive controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Directive controls

D.

Corrective controls

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Questions 289

Which of the following should be updated FIRST when aligning the incident response plan with the corporate strategy?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident notification plan

C.

Risk response scenarios

D.

Security procedures

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Questions 290

Determining the risk for a particular threat/vulnerability pair before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact, should a threat exploit a vulnerability.

B.

the magnitude of the impact, should a threat exploit a vulnerability.

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls over a vulnerability.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat attempting to exploit a vulnerability

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Questions 291

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place when conducting a security control assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Control specifications

B.

Assurance test plan

C.

Scanning tools

D.

Security documentation

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Questions 292

Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?

Options:

A.

The framework aligns internal and external resources.

B.

The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.

C.

The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.

D.

The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.

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Questions 293

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

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Questions 294

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

Options:

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

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Questions 295

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

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Questions 296

To prepare for a third-party forensics investigation following an incident involving malware, the incident response team should:

Options:

A.

isolate the infected systems.

B.

preserve the evidence.

C.

image the infected systems.

D.

clean the malware.

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Questions 297

Which of the following is MOST important when designing security controls for new cloud-based services?

Options:

A.

Evaluating different types of deployment models according to the associated risks

B.

Understanding the business and IT strategy for moving resources to the cloud

C.

Defining an incident response policy to protect data moving between onsite and cloud applications

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) to gather information needed to develop recovery strategies

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Questions 298

An information security team has confirmed that threat actors are taking advantage of a newly announced critical vulnerability within an application. Which of the following should be done

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Install additional application controls.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Prevent access to the application.

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Questions 299

Of the following, who is BEST suited to own the risk discovered in an application?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Senior management

C.

System owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 300

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

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Questions 301

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when aligning a security awareness program with the organization's business strategy?

Options:

A.

Regulations and standards

B.

People and culture

C.

Executive and board directives

D.

Processes and technology

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Questions 302

An employee of an organization has reported losing a smartphone that contains sensitive information The BEST step to address this situation is to:

Options:

A.

disable the user's access to corporate resources.

B.

terminate the device connectivity.

C.

remotely wipe the device

D.

escalate to the user's management

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Questions 303

Which of the following is MOST important to emphasize when presenting information to gain senior management support for control enhancements?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exposure

B.

Threats against internal systems

C.

Control gaps within defense-in-depth architecture

D.

Recent data breaches in the same industry sector

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Questions 304

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge with assessing emerging risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of a risk framework

B.

Ineffective security controls

C.

Presence of known vulnerabilities

D.

Incomplete identification of threats

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Questions 305

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager when evaluating a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Data retention policies are not documented

B.

There is no right to audit the security of the provider

C.

The provider is new to the market and lacks references

D.

Security controls offered by the provider are inadequate

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Questions 306

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when determining whether data should be stored?

Options:

A.

Data protection regulations

B.

Data storage limitations

C.

Business requirements

D.

Type and nature of data

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Questions 307

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

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Questions 308

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Mar 21, 2026
Questions: 1044

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