GIAC Systems and Network Auditor Questions and Answers
GSNA GIAC Systems and Network Auditor Questions and Answers
Questions 4
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He notices that UDP port 137 of the We-are-secure server is open. Assuming that the Network Administrator of We-are-secure Inc. has not changed the default port values of the services, which of the following services is running on UDP port 137?
NetBIOS is a Microsoft service that enables applications on different computers to communicate within a LAN. NetBIOS systems identify themselves with a 15-character unique name and use Server Message Block, which allows Remote directory, file and printer sharing, etc. The default port value of NetBIOS Name Resolution Service is 137/UDP. Answer: A is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port. Answer: D is incorrect. The default port of HTTPS is TCP/443. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) protocol is a protocol used in the Universal Resource Locater (URL) address line to connect to a secure site. If a site has been made secure by using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) then HTTPS, instead of HTTP protocol, should be used as a protocol type in the URL. Answer: B is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.
Questions 5
Which of the following statements about URL rewriting are true?
Options:
A.
If cookies are supported by the browser, URL rewriting will return the URL unchanged.
B.
The request.encodeRedirectURL() method is used to add a session id info to the URL and send the request to another URL.
C.
The request.encodeURL() method is used to add a session id info to the URL.
D.
URL rewriting is used in cases where cookies are not supported by the browser.
By default, session tracking uses cookies to associate a session identifier with a unique user. URL rewriting is used in cases where cookies are not supported by the browser.
Questions 6
You are the Network Administrator for a software development company. Your company creates various utilities and tools. You have noticed that some of the files your company creates are getting deleted from systems. When one is deleted, it seems to be deleted from all the computers on your network. Where would you first look to try and diagnose this problem?
Check the antivirus log and see if it is detecting your file as a virus and deleting it. All antivirus programs have a certain rate of false positives. Since the file is being deleted from all computers, it seems likely that your antivirus has mistakenly identified that file as a virus. Answer: D is incorrect. The firewall log can help you identify traffic entering or leaving your network, but won't help with files being deleted. Answer: B is incorrect. An IDS log would help you identify possible attacks, but this scenario is unlikely to be from an external attack. Answer: C is incorrect. Your system log can only tell you what is happening on that individual computer.
Questions 7
You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You want to query an image root device and RAM disk size. Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
The rdev commad is used to query/set an image root device, RAM disk size, or video mode. If a user executes the rdev commands with no arguments, it outputs a /etc/mtab line for the current root file system. The command syntax of the rdev command is as follows: rdev [ -Rrvh ] [ -o offset ] [ image [ value [ offset ] ] ] Answer: B is incorrect. In Unix, the rdump command is used to back up an ext2 filesystem. Answer: D is incorrect. In Unix, the mount command is used to mount a filesystem. Answer: C is incorrect. In Unix, the setfdprm command sets floppy drive parameters.
Questions 8
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company requires a secure wireless network. To provide security, you are configuring ISA Server 2006 as a firewall. While configuring ISA Server 2006, which of the following is NOT necessary?
Configuration of VPN access is not mandatory. It is configured on the basis of requirement. Answer: A, B, C are incorrect. All these steps are mandatory for the configuration of the ISA Server 2006 firewall.
Questions 9
Which of the following commands can be used to convert all lowercase letters of a text file to uppercase?
You can use the tr command to convert all lowercase letters of a text file to uppercase. The tr command is used to translate, squeeze, and/or delete characters from standard input, writing to standard output. If you want to change all lowercase letters to uppercase, you will use the tr [a-z] [A-Z] command. commands cannot translate the text from one form to another.
Questions 10
John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose two)
According to the scenario, John will use "nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25" to detect the operating system of the we-are-secure server. Here, -v is used for verbose and -O is used for TCP/IP fingerprinting to guess the remote operating system. John may also use the DNS name of we-are-secure instead of using the IP address of the we-are-secure server. So, he can also use the nmap command "nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com ". Answer: C is incorrect. "nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80" is a Netcat command, which is used to banner grab for getting information about the
Questions 11
You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means "the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder". Answer: B is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: C is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.
Questions 12
Which of the following responsibilities does not come under the audit process?
Options:
A.
Reporting all facts and circumstances of the irregular and illegal acts.
B.
Planning the IT audit engagement based on the assessed level of risk.
According to the standards of ISACA, an auditor should hold the following responsibilities: Planning the IT audit engagement based on an assessed level of risk. Designing audit procedures of irregular and illegal acts. Reviewing the results of the audit procedures. Assuming that acts are not isolated. Determining why the internal control system failed for that act. Conducting additional audit procedures. Evaluating the results of the expanded audit procedures. Reporting all facts and circumstances of the irregular and illegal acts. Distributing the report to the appropriate internal parties, such as managers. Answer: D is incorrect. The auditor is not responsible for applying security policies.
Questions 13
What are the different categories of PL/SQL program units?
A named block is a PL/SQL block that Oracle stores in the database and can be called by name from any application. A named block is also known as a stored procedure. Named blocks can be called from any PL/SQL block. It has a declaration section, which is known as a header. The header may include the name of a block, type of the block, and parameter. The name and list of formal parameters are known as the signature of a subroutine. Once a named PL/SQL block is compiled, it gets permanently stored as p-code after compilation in the shared pool of the system global area. Therefore, the named block gets compiled only once. An anonymous block is a PL/SQL block that appears in a user's application and is neither named nor stored in the database. This block does not allow any mode of parameter. Anonymous block programs are effective in some situations. They are basically used when building scripts to seed data or perform one-time processing activities. They are also used when a user wants to nest activity in another PL/SQL block's execution section. Anonymous blocks are compiled each time they are executed.
Questions 14
Which of the following statements about a screened host is true?
Options:
A.
It facilitates a more efficient use of the Internet connection bandwidth and hides the real IP addresses of computers located behind the proxy.
B.
It is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network.
C.
It provides added security by using Internet access to deny or permit certain traffic from the Bastion Host.
D.
It provides a physical connection between computers within a network.
A screened host provides added security by using Internet access to deny or permit certain traffic from the Bastion Host. Answer: D is incorrect. A network interface card provides a physical connection between computers within a network.
Answer: B is incorrect. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) or perimeter network is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It is the boundary between the Internet and an internal network, usually a combination of firewalls and bastion hosts that are gateways between inside networks and outside networks. DMZ provides a large enterprise network or corporate network the ability to use the Internet while still maintaining its security. Answer: A is incorrect. A proxy server facilitates a more efficient use of the Internet connection bandwidth and hides the real IP addresses of computers located behind the proxy.
Questions 15
Which of the following statements is true about a relational database?
Options:
A.
It is difficult to extend a relational database.
B.
The standard user and application program interface to a relational database is Programming Language (PL).
C.
It is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables.
D.
It is a set of tables containing data fitted into runtime defined categories.
A relational database is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables from which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database tables. Answer: B is incorrect. The standard user and application program interface to a relational database is the structured query language (SQL). Answer: A is incorrect. In addition to being relatively easy to create and access, a relational database has the important advantage of being easy to extend. Answer: D is incorrect. A relational database is a set of tables containing data fitted into predefined categories. Each table (which is sometimes called a relation) contains one or more data categories in columns. Each row contains a unique instance of data for the categories defined by the columns.
Questions 16
You have just installed a Windows 2003 server. What action should you take regarding the default shares?
Options:
A.
Disable them only if this is a domain server.
B.
Disable them.
C.
Make them hidden shares.
D.
Leave them, as they are needed for Windows Server operations.
Default shares should be disabled, unless they are absolutely needed. They pose a significant security risk by providing a way for an intruder to enter your machine. Answer: A is incorrect. Whether this is a domain server, a DHCP server, a file server, or database server does not change the issue with shared drives/folders. Answer: C is incorrect. They cannot be hidden. Shared folders are, by definition, not hidden but rather available to users on the network. Answer: D is incorrect. These are not necessary for Windows Server operations.
Questions 17
You have an online video library. You want to upload a directory of movies. Since this process will take several hours, you want to ensure that the process continues even after the terminal is shut down or session is closed. What will you do to accomplish the task?
Options:
A.
Use the bg command to run the process at the background.
B.
Add the nohup command in front of the process.
C.
Add the nohup command at the end of the process.
D.
Run the process inside a GNU Screen-style screen multiplexer.
Whenever the nohup command is added in front of any command or process, it makes the command or process run even after the terminal is shut down or session is closed. All processes, except the 'at' and batch requests, are killed when a user logs out. If a user wants a background process to continue running even after he logs out, he must use the nohup command to submit that background command. To nohup running processes, press ctrl+z, enter "bg" and enter "disown". The other way to accomplish the task is to run the command/process inside a GNU Screen-style screen multiplexer, and then detach the screen. GNU Screen maintains the illusion that the user is always logged in, and allows the user to reattach at any time. This has the advantage of being able to continue to interact with the program once reattached (which is impossible with nohup alone). Answer: C is incorrect. The nohup command works when it is added in front of a command. Answer: A is incorrect. The bg command cannot run the command or process after the terminal is shut down or session is closed.
Questions 18
Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?
The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Answer: C is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer: A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer: D is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.
Questions 19
Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
Start of Authority (SOA) record is the first record in any DNS database file. The SOA resource record includes the following fields: owner, TTL, class, type, authoritative server, refresh, minimum TTL, etc. Answer: A is incorrect. Canonical Name (CNAME) is a resource record that creates an alias for the specified Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN). It hides the implementation details of a network from the clients that are connected to the network. Answer: D is incorrect. MX is a mail exchange resource record in the database file of a DNS server. It specifies a mail exchange server for a DNS domain name. Answer: C is incorrect. SRV resource record is a DNS record that enables users to specify the location of servers for a specific service, protocol, and DNS domain. For example, if there are two servers in a domain, creating SRV records specifies which hosts serve as Web servers, and resolvers can then retrieve all the SRV resource records for the Web servers.
Questions 20
Which of the following statements about packet filtering is true?
Options:
A.
It allows or restricts the flow of specific types of packets to provide security.
B.
It is used to send confidential data on the public network.
C.
It allows or restricts the flow of encrypted packets to provide security.
D.
It is used to store information about confidential data.
Packet filtering is a method that allows or restricts the flow of specific types of packets to provide security. It analyzes the incoming and outgoing packets and lets them pass or stops them at a network interface based on the source and destination addresses, ports, or protocols. Packet filtering provides a way to define precisely which type of IP traffic is allowed to cross the firewall of an intranet. IP packet filtering is important when users from private intranets connect to public networks, such as the Internet.
Questions 21
You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You want to ensure that a class is informed whenever an attribute is added, removed, or replaced in a session. Which of the following is the event that you will use to accomplish the task?
To be informed whenever an attribute is added, removed, or replaced in a session, a class must have a method with HttpSessionBindingEvent as its attribute. The HttpSessionBindingEvent class extends the HttpSessionEvent class. The HttpSessionBindingEvent class is used with the following listeners: HttpSessionBindingListener: It notifies the attribute when it is bound or unbound from a session. HttpSessionAttributeListener: It notifies the class when an attribute is bound, unbound, or replaced in a session. The session binds the object by a call to the HttpSession.setAttribute() method and unbinds the object by a call to the HttpSession.removeAttribute() method. Answer: C is incorrect. The HttpSessionEvent is associated with the HttpSessionListener interface and HttpSessionActivationListener.
Questions 22
On which of the following does a CGI program execute?
The Common Gateway Interface (CGI) specification is used for creating executable programs that run on a Web server. CGI defines the communication link between a Web server and Web applications. It gives a network or Internet resource access to specific programs. For example, when users submit an HTML form on a Web site, CGI is used to pass this information to a remote application for processing, and retrieve the results from the application. It then returns these results to the user by means of an HTML page. Answer: A is incorrect. CGI programs do not execute on routers.
Questions 23
Which of the following types of firewall ensures that the packets are part of the established session?
The stateful inspection firewall combines the circuit level and the application level firewall techniques. It assures the session or connection between the two parties is valid. It also inspects packets from the session to assure that the packets are part of the established session and not malicious. Answer: C is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted connection has been established. Answer: D is incorrect. The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or connection between the two devices. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no firewall type such as switch-level firewall.
Questions 24
Every network device contains a unique built in Media Access Control (MAC) address, which is used to identify the authentic device to limit the network access. Which of the following addresses is a valid MAC address?
The general format for writing MAC addresses is to use six group of two hexadecimal digits, each separated by hyphen (-). Another standard method is also used for writing MAC addresses as three groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by dots. Answer: C is incorrect. Binary numbers are not used to denote MAC address. Answer: D is incorrect. This is an example of IP address. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid MAC address as there four groups of four hexadecimal digits exist.
Questions 25
Which of the following aaa accounting commands should be used to enable logging of both the start and stop records for user terminal sessions on the router?
In order to enable logging of both start and stop records for user terminal sessions on the router, the aaa accounting exec start-stop tacacs+ command should be used. The exec option performs accounting for EXEC shell sessions. Answer: B is incorrect. The aaa accounting system none tacacs+ command disables accounting services on a specific interface for all system-level events that are not related with users such as reload. Answer: C is incorrect. The aaa accounting connection start-stop tacacs+ command is used to enable logging of both start and stop records for all outbound connections that are established from the NAS (Network Access Server), such as Telnet, local-area transport (LAT), TN3270, packet assembler and disassembler (PAD), and rlogin. Answer: A is incorrect. The aaa accounting auth proxy start-stop tacacs+ command is used to enable logging of both start and stop records for all authenticated proxy user events.
tag is used to set the width of a table. Width can be specified in pixels and percentage. For example, if a table of the same width as that of the parent object has to be created, the WIDTH attribute must be set to 100%. The ALIGN attribute aligns the table within the text flow. By default alignment is set to left. The BORDER attribute of the
tag is used to set the width of the table border. Answer: C is incorrect.
is not an attribute of the
tag. It is a tag used to specify cells in a table.
Questions 27
In which of the following scanning techniques does a scanner connect to an FTP server and request that server to start data transfer to the third system?
In the TCP FTP proxy (bounce attack) scanning, a scanner connects to an FTP server and requests that server to start data transfer to the third system. Now, the scanner uses the PORT FTP command to declare whether or not the data transfer process is listening to the target system at the certain port number. Then the scanner uses LIST FTP command to list the current directory. This result is sent over the server. If the data transfer is successful, it is clear that the port is open. If the port is closed, the attacker receives the connection refused ICMP error message. Answer: A is incorrect. Xmas Tree scanning is just the opposite of null scanning. In Xmas Tree scanning, all packets are turned on. If the target port is open, the service running on the target port discards the packets without any reply. According to RFC 793, if the port is closed, the remote system replies with the RST packet. Active monitoring of all incoming packets can help system network administrators detect an Xmas Tree scan. Answer: B is incorrect. TCP FIN scanning is a type of stealth scanning, through which the attacker sends a FIN packet to the target port. If the port is closed, the victim assumes that this packet was sent mistakenly by the attacker and sends the RST packet to the attacker. If the port is open, the FIN packet will be ignored and the port will drop that packet. TCP FIN scanning is useful only for identifying ports of non Windows operating system because Windows operating systems send only RST packets irrespective of whether the port is open or closed. Answer: C is incorrect. TCP SYN scanning is also known as half-open scanning because in this a full TCP connection is never opened. The steps of TCP SYN scanning are as follows: 1.The attacker sends SYN packet to the target port. 2.If the port is open, the attacker receives SYN/ACK message. 3.Now the attacker breaks the connection by sending an RST packet. 4.If the RST packet is received, it indicates that the port is closed. This type of scanning is hard to trace because the attacker never establishes a full 3-way handshake connection and most sites do not create a log of incomplete TCP connections.
Questions 28
Which of the following statements is NOT true about FAT16 file system?
Options:
A.
FAT16 file system works well with large disks because the cluster size increases as the disk partition size increases.
B.
FAT16 file system supports file-level compression.
C.
FAT16 does not support file-level security.
D.
FAT16 file system supports Linux operating system.
FAT16 file system was developed for disks larger than 16MB. It uses 16-bit allocation table entries. FAT16 file system supports all Microsoft operating systems. It also supports OS/2 and Linux. Answer: C, D are incorrect. All these statements are true about FAT16 file system.
Questions 29
From an auditing perspective, database security can be broken down into four key categories: Server Security Database Connections Table Access Control Restricting Database Access Which of the following categories leads to the process of limiting access to the database server?
Server security is the process of limiting access to the database server. This is one of the most basic and most important components of database security. It is imperative that an organization not let their database server be visible to the world. If an organization's database server is supplying information to a web server, then it should be configured to allow connections only from that web server. Also, every server should be configured to allow only trusted IP addresses. Answer: B is incorrect. With regard to database connections, system administrators should not allow immediate unauthenticated updates to a database. If users are allowed to make updates to a database via a web page, the system administrator should validate all updates to make sure that they are warranted and safe. Also, the system administrator should not allow users to use their designation of "sa" when accessing the database. This gives employees complete access to all of the data stored on the database regardless of whether or not they are authenticated to have such access. Answer: A is incorrect. Table access control is related to an access control list, which is a table that tells a computer operating system which access rights each user has to a particular system object. Table access control has been referred to as one of the most overlooked forms of database security. This is primarily because it is so difficult to apply. In order to properly use table access control, the system administrator and the database developer need to collaborate with each other. Answer: C is incorrect. Restricting database access is important especially for the companies that have their databases uploaded on the Internet. Internet-based databases have been the most recent targets of attacks, due to their open access or open ports. It is very easy for criminals to conduct a "port scan" to look for ports that are open that popular database systems are using by default. The ports that are used by default can be changed, thus throwing off a criminal looking for open ports set by default. Following are the security measures that can be implemented to prevent open access from the Internet: Trusted IP addresses: Servers can be configured to answer pings from a list of trusted hosts only. Server account disabling: The server ID can be suspended after three password attempts. Special tools: Products can be used to send an alert when an external server is attempting to breach the system's security. One such example is RealSecure by ISS.
Questions 30
Audit trail or audit log is a chronological sequence of audit records, each of which contains evidence directly pertaining to and resulting from the execution of a business process or system function. Under which of the following controls does audit control come?
Audit trail or audit log comes under detective controls. Detective controls are the audit controls that are not needed to be restricted. Any control that performs a monitoring activity can likely be defined as a Detective Control. For example, it is possible that mistakes, either intentional or unintentional, can be made. Therefore, an additional Protective control is that these companies must have their financial results audited by an independent Certified Public Accountant. The role of this accountant is to act as an auditor. In fact, any auditor acts as a Detective control. If the organization in question has not properly followed the rules, a diligent auditor should be able to detect the deficiency which indicates that some control somewhere has failed. Answer: B is incorrect. Reactive or corrective controls typically work in response to a detective control, responding in such a way as to alert or otherwise correct an unacceptable condition. Using the example of account rules, either the internal Audit Committee or the SEC itself, based on the report generated by the external auditor, will take some corrective action. In this way, they are acting as a Corrective or Reactive control. Answer: A, D are incorrect. Protective or preventative controls serve to proactively define and possibly enforce acceptable behaviors. As an example, a set of common accounting rules are defined and must be followed by any publicly traded company. Each quarter, any particular company must publicly state its current financial standing and accounting as reflected by an application of these rules. These accounting rules and the SEC requirements serve as protective or preventative controls.
Questions 31
You have been assigned a project to develop a Web site for a construction company. You have to develop a Web site and want to get more control over the appearance and presentation of your Web pages. You also want to increase the ability to precisely specify the location and appearance of the elements on a page and create special effects. You plan to use Cascading style sheets (CSS). You want to apply the same style consistently throughout your Web site. Which type of style sheet will you use?
To apply the same style consistently throughout your Web site you should use external style sheet. Cascading style sheets (CSS) are used so that the Web site authors can exercise greater control on the appearance and presentation of their Web pages. And also because they increase the ability to precisely point to the location and look of elements on a Web page and help in creating special effects. Cascading Style Sheets have codes, which are interpreteA, Dpplied by the browser on to the Web pages and their elements. There are three types of cascading style sheets. External Style Sheets Embedded Style Sheets Inline Style Sheets External Style Sheets are used whenever consistency in style is required throughout a Web site. A typical external style sheet uses a .css file extension, which can be edited using a text editor such as a Notepad. Embedded Style Sheets are used for defining styles for an active page.
Inline Style Sheets are used for defining individual elements of a page. Reference: TechNet, Contents: Microsoft Knowledgebase, February 2000 issue PSS ID Number: Q179628
Questions 32
Zorp is a proxy firewall suite developed by Balabit IT Security. Which of the following statements are true about Zorp?
Options:
A.
It allows the administrators to fine-tune proxy decisions.
B.
Zorp aims for compliance with the Common Criteria/Application Level Firewall Protection Profile for Medium Robustness.
C.
It allows full analysis of embedded protocols.
D.
The GPL version of Zorp lacks much of the usability and functions from the other versions.
Zorp is a proxy firewall suite developed by Balabit IT Security. Its core framework allows the administrator to fine-tune proxy decisions (with its built-in script language), and fully analyze embedded protocols (such as SSL with an embedded POP3 or HTTP protocol). The FTP, HTTP, FINGER, WHOIS, TELNET, and SSL protocols are fully supported with an application-level gateway. Zorp aims for compliance with the Common Criteria/Application Level Firewall Protection Profile for Medium Robustness. Zorp is released under GNU/GPL and commercial license too. The GPL version is completely usable and functional; however, it lacks some of the more advanced functions available in the commercially available version only. Some of the Zorp supported protocols are Finger, Ftp, Http, Pop3, NNTP, IMAP4, RDP, RPC, SIP, SSL, SSH, Telnet, Whois, LDAP, RADIUS, TFtp, SQLNet NET8, Rsh, etc. Answer: D is incorrect. The GPL version of Zorp is completely usable and functional; however, it lacks some of the more advanced functions available in the commercially available version only.
Questions 33
Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs? (Choose two)
Options:
A.
Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
B.
Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
C.
Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
D.
Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
According to the scenario, you want to implement a security policy to keep safe your data when you connect your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs. For this, you will use the following two options:
1. Using IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password.
2. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop: You can also create a firewall rule to block malicious packets so that you can secure your network. Answer: C is incorrect. Portscanner is used for scanning port and tells which ports are open. However, this tool is very much useful in information gathering step of the attacking process, it cannot be used to protect a WLAN network. Answer: B is incorrect. You cannot use the packet analyzer to protect your network. Packet analyzer is used to analyze data packets flowing in the network.
Questions 34
You work as a Database Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a multi-platform network. The company requires fast processing of the data in the database of the company so that answers to queries can be generated quickly. To provide fast processing, you have a conceptual idea of representing the dimensions of data available to a user in the data cube format. Which of the following systems can you use to implement your idea?
A multidimensional database management system (MDDBMS) implies the ability to rapidly process the data in the database so that answers to the queries can be generated quickly. A number of vendors provide products that use multidimensional databases. The approach behind this system is to manage that how data should be stored in the database, and depending upon that storage, how user interface should vary. Conceptually, an MDDBMS uses the idea of a data cube to represent the dimensions of data available to a user. For example, "sales" could be viewed in the dimensions of product model, geography, time, or some additional dimension. In this case, "sales" is known as the measure attribute of the data cube and the other dimensions are seen as feature attributes. Additionally, a database creator can define hierarchies and levels within a dimension (for example, state and city levels within a regional hierarchy). Answer: C is incorrect. A federated database system is a type of meta-database management system (DBMS) that transparently integrates multiple autonomous database systems into a single federated database. The constituent databases are interconnected via a computer network, and may be geographically decentralized. Since the constituent database systems remain autonomous, a federated database system is a contrastable alternative to the (sometimes daunting) task of merging together several disparate databases. A federated database (or virtual database) is the fully-integrated, logical composite of all constituent databases in a federated database system. Answer: A is incorrect. SYSDBA is a system privilege that allows a user to perform basic database administrative tasks, such as creating a database, altering a database, starting up and shutting down an Oracle instance, performing time-based recovery etc. The SYSDBA contains all system privileges with the ADMIN OPTION. It also contains the SYSOPER system privilege. Granting the SYSDBA system privilege to a user automatically adds him to the password file that is used to authenticate administrative users. Therefore, a user possessing the SYSDBA system privilege can connect to a database by using the password file authentication method. Answer: D is incorrect. A hierarchical database is a database management system that implements the hierarchical data model. A hierarchical database system organizes data in a family tree structure such that each record has only one owner and the hierarchy is in a parent and child data segment. This implies that the record can have repeated information in a child segment. The best-known hierarchical DBMS is IMS.
Questions 35
Which of the following techniques can be used to determine the network ranges of any network?
Whois queries are used to determine the IP address ranges associated with clients. A whois query can be run on most UNIX environments. In a Windows environment, the tools such as WsPingPro and Sam Spade can be used to perform whois queries. Whois queries can also be executed over the Web from www.arin.net and www.networksolutions.com. Answer: B is incorrect. A SQL injection attack is a process in which an attacker tries to execute unauthorized SQL statements. These statements can be used to delete data from a database, delete database objects such as tables, views, stored procedures, etc. An attacker can either directly enter the code into input variables or insert malicious code in strings that can be stored in a database. For example, the following line of code illustrates one form of SQL injection attack: query = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE name = '" + userName + "';" This SQL code is designed to fetch the records of any specified username from its table of users. However, if the "userName" variable is crafted in a specific way by a malicious hacker, the SQL statement may do more than the code author intended. For example, if the attacker puts the "userName" value as ' or ''=', the SQL statement will now be as follows: SELECT * FROM users WHERE name = '' OR ''=''; Answer: D is incorrect. Web ripping is a technique in which the attacker copies the whole structure of a Web site to the local disk and obtains all files of the Web site. Web ripping helps an attacker to trace the loopholes of the Web site. Answer: C is incorrect. Snooping is an activity of observing the content that appears on a computer monitor or watching what a user is typing. Snooping also occurs by using software programs to remotely monitor activity on a computer or network device. Hackers or attackers use snooping techniques and equipment such as keyloggers to monitor keystrokes, capture passwords and login information, and to intercept e-mail and other private communications. Sometimes, organizations also snoop their employees legitimately to monitor their use of organizations' computers and track Internet usage.
Questions 36
Mike works as a Network Engineer for XYZ CORP. The company has a multi-platform network. Recently, the company faced lots of blended threat issues that lead to several drastic attacks. Mike has been assigned a project to manage the resources and services of the company through both Intranet and Internet to protect the company from these attacks. Mike needs a system that provides auto-discovering and network topology building features to allow him to keep an intuitive view of the IT infrastructure. What will Mike use to meet the requirement of the project?
David system is a network management system that allows a user to manage the resources and services through both Intranet and Internet. It provides auto-discovering and network topology building features to facilitate in keeping an intuitive view of the IT infrastructure. The resources, real-time monitoring, and accessibility of historical data facilitate reaction to failures. Configured interfaces for monitored devices permit a user to focus on the most important aspects of their work. Answer: B is incorrect. dopplerVUe is a network management tool that facilitates network discovery, mapping, alerts and alarm management, and bandwidth management system. It enables monitoring of Ping, SNMP, syslog, and WMI performance metrics. It can also be used to monitor IPv6 devices, as well as services such as DNS, http, and email. Answer: A is incorrect. eBox is an open source distribution and web development framework. This framework is used to manage server application configuration. It is based on Ubuntu Linux. It is projected to manage services in a computer network. The modular design of eBox allows a user to pick and choose the services. Answer: D is incorrect. EM7 is a network monitoring system that is used to measure IT infrastructure health and performance. It is an NMS integrated system. It is designed to help in optimizing the performance and availability of the networks, systems, and applications. It facilitates trouble-ticketing, event management, reporting, IP management, DNS, and monitoring.
Questions 37
You are the Security Consultant and have been hired to check security for a client's network. Your client has stated that he has many concerns but the most critical is the security of Web applications on their Web server. What should be your highest priority then in checking his network?
According to the question, you highest priority is to scan the Web applications for vulnerability.
Questions 38
A sequence number is a 32-bit number ranging from 1 to 4,294,967,295. When data is sent over the network, it is broken into fragments (packets) at the source and reassembled at the destination system. Each packet contains a sequence number that is used by the destination system to reassemble the data packets in the correct order. The Initial Sequence Number of your computer is 24171311 at login time. You connect your computer to a computer having the IP address 210.213.23.21. This whole process takes three seconds. What will the value of the Initial Sequence Number be at this moment?
You took 3 seconds to establish a connection. During this time, the value of the Initial Sequence Number would become [24171311 + (1 * 64000) + (3 * 128000)], i.e., 24619311.
Questions 39
Which of the following tools can be used to perform ICMP tunneling? (Choose two)
Ptunnel and Itunnel are the tools that are used to perform ICMP tunneling. In ICMP tunneling, an attacker establishes a covert connection between two remote computers (a client and proxy), using ICMP echo requests and reply packets. ICMP tunneling works by injecting arbitrary data into an echo packet sent to a remote computer. The remote computer replies in the same manner, injecting an answer into another ICMP packet and sending it back. The client performs all communication using ICMP echo request packets, while the proxy uses echo reply packets. Normally, ICMP tunneling involves sending what appear to be ICMP commands but really they are the Trojan communications. Answer: C is incorrect. WinTunnel is used to perform TCP tunneling. Answer: D is incorrect. Ethereal is a network sniffer.
Questions 40
You work as a Network Administrator for InfraTech Inc. You have been assigned the task of designing the firewall policy for the company. Which of the following statements can be considered acceptable in the 'contracted worker statement' portion of the firewall policy?
Options:
A.
No contractors shall have access to the authorized resources.
B.
No contractors shall be permitted to scan the network.
C.
No contractors shall have access to the unauthorized resources.
D.
No contractors can access FTP unless specifically granted permissions to use it.
There are different portions that can be included in the firewall policy. These portions include the acceptable use statement, the network connection statement, the contracted worker statement, and the firewall administrator statement. The contracted worker statement portion of the policy is related to the contracted or the temporary workers. It states the rights and permissions for these workers. Some of the items hat can be included in this portion are as follows: No contractors can use FTP unless specifically granted to use it. No contractors shall have access to TELNET unless specifically granted to use it. No contractors shall have access to unauthorized resources. No contractors shall have access to scan the network. Answer: A is incorrect. Only authorized resources should be accessed by the contractors.
Questions 41
You work as a programmer for uCertify.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1. Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
The following two code are used to retrieve Attribute1: 1.Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1"); The getAttribute() method is used to retrieve the bound object with the specified name in this session, or null if no object is bound under the name. 2.Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1"); The getSession() gets the current valid session associated with this request. a String object. Answer: B is incorrect. The HttpSessionBindingEvent object cannot use the getAttribute() method.
Questions 42
Which of the following is the most secure place to host a server that will be accessed publicly through the Internet?
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is the most secure place to host a server that will be accessed publicly through the Internet. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) or perimeter network is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It is the boundary between the Internet and an internal network, usually a combination of firewalls and bastion hosts that are gateways between inside networks and outside networks. DMZ provides a large enterprise network or corporate network the ability to use the Internet while still maintaining its security. Answer: B is incorrect. Hosting a server on the intranet for public access will not be good from a security point of view.
Questions 43
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He has successfully completed the following pre-attack phases while testing the security of the server: Footprinting Scanning Now he wants to conduct the enumeration phase. Which of the following tools can John use to conduct it?
John can use the UserInfo, PsFile, and PsPasswd tools in the enumeration phase. UserInfo is a utility that retrieves all available information about any known user from any Windows 2000/NT operating system (accessible by TCP port 139). UserInfo returns mainly the following information: SID and Primary group Logon restrictions and smart card requirements Special group Password expiration Note: UserInfo works as a NULL user even if the RestrictedAnonymous value in the LSA key is set to 1 to specifically deny anonymous enumeration. PsFile is a command-line utility that shows a list of files on a system that are opened remotely. It also allows a user to close opened files either by name or by a file identifier. The command syntax for PsFile is as follows: psfile [\\RemoteComputer [-u Username [-p Password]]] [Id | path] [-c] -u specifies the optional user name for logging in to a remote computer. -p specifies a password for a user name. If this is omitted, the user is prompted to enter the password without it being echoed to the screen. Id is the identifier of the file about which the user wants to display information. -c closes the files identifed by the ID or path. PsPasswd is a tool that helps Network Administrators change an account password on the local or remote system. The command syntax of PsPasswd is as follows: pspasswd [\\computer[,computer[,..] | @file [-u user [-p psswd]] Username [NewPassword]
Questions 44
Which of the following tools is used for port scanning?
The nmap utility, also commonly known as port scanner, is used to view the open ports on a Linux computer. It is used by administrators to determine which services are available for external users. This utility helps administrators in deciding whether to disable the services that are not being used in order to minimize any security risk. Answer: B is incorrect. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.
Answer: C is incorrect. NETSH is a command line tool to configure TCP/IP settings such as the IP address, Subnet Mask, Default Gateway, DNS, WINS addresses, etc. Answer: A is incorrect. L0phtcrack is a tool which identifies and remediate security vulnerabilities that result from the use of weak or easily guessed passwords. It recovers Windows and Unix account passwords to access user and administrator accounts.
Questions 45
Web applications are accessed by communicating over TCP ports via an IP address. Choose the two most common Web Application TCP ports and their respective protocol names. (Choose two)
The two most common Web Application TCP ports are Port 443 and Port 80. HTTPS or SSL uses TCP port 443, whereas HTTP uses TCP Port 80. Answer: B is incorrect. Port 80 is used for HTTP, not HTTPS. Answer: A is incorrect. S-HTTP is not the protocol name for Port 443. HTTPS or SSL is the name used for Port 443 traffic.
Questions 46
An attacker wants to connect directly to an unsecured station to circumvent the AP security or to attack the station. Which of the following tools can be used to accomplish the task?
Ad Hoc Association is a type of attack in which an attacker tries to connect directly to an unsecured station to circumvent the AP security or to attack the station. Any wireless card or USB adapter can be used to perform this attack.
Questions 47
Which of the following is a basic feature of the Unix operating system? (Choose three)
Options:
A.
It is highly portable across hardware.
B.
All files can be individually protected using read, write, and execute permissions for the user, group, and others.
C.
It allows all the modules to be loaded into memory.
D.
A user can execute multiple programs at the same time from a single terminal.
The basic features of Unix are as follows: Multi-user: It supports more than one user to access the system simultaneously through a set of terminals attached to a system. Multi-tasking: A user can execute multiple programs at the same time from a single terminal. Time sharing: The operating system shares CPU time among tasks. Portability: It is highly portable across hardware. Modularity: It allows only needed modules to be loaded into the memory. File structure: It has an inverted tree like file structure, with files and directories created within the file structure. Security: All files can be individually protected using read, write, and execute permissions for the user, group, and others. Network support: It uses the TCP/IP protocol. Advanced graphics: CAD-CAM applications perform the best in a Unix System with its varied support for graphics card.
Questions 48
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. You have a laptop running Windows Vista Ultimate. You want to configure Windows Defender on your laptop so that it does not take any action automatically whenever it scans malicious software. Rather, it should recommend the action and wait for your approval for taking any action. Which of the following actions will you take to accomplish the task?
Options:
A.
Clear the Use real-time protection check box in Defender Options
B.
Clear the Automatically scan my computer check box in Defender Options
C.
Select the Create a restore point before applying action to detected items check box in Defender Options
D.
Clear the Apply default actions to items detected during a scan check box in Defender Options.
According to the question, you want to prevent Windows Defender from taking any action automatically during the scanning of your laptop. In order to accomplish this, you will have to clear the Apply default actions to items detected during a scan check box in Defender Options.
C:\Documents and Settings\user-nwz\Desktop\1.JPG
If you clear the Apply default actions to items detected during a scan check box, it will result in Windows Defender only recommending an action to take for detected malicious software.
Questions 49
Which of the following listeners need not be configured in the deployment descriptor? (Choose two)
Except for the HttpSessionActivationListener and the HttpSessionBindingListener, all other listeners must be configured in the deployment descriptor.
HttpSessionBindingListener has methods that notify the object when it is added to or removed from a session. It has methods that informs the attributes when the session is about to be activated or passivated. These methods are related to the attributes and not to the complete session. Hence, the container takes care of them and need not be configured in the deployment descriptor.
Questions 50
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? "This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives."
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. This process generally follows the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. It is performed on risks that have been prioritized by the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process as potentially and substantially impacting the project's competing demands. The Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis should be repeated after Plan Risk Responses, as well as part of Monitor and Control Risks, to determine if the overall project risk has been decreased. Answer: C is incorrect. This is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by accessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. Answer: D is incorrect. This is the process of determiningbb which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics. Answer: B is incorrect. This is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness through the project.
Questions 51
Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework?
The Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT) is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management, which provides managers, auditors, and IT users with a set of generally accepted measures, indicators, processes and best practices to assist them in maximizing the benefits derived through the use of information technology and developing appropriate IT governance and control in a company. It has the following 11 processes: Developing a strategic plan. Articulating the information architecture. Finding an optimal stage between the IT and the organization's strategy. Designing the IT function to match the organization's needs. Maximizing the return of the IT investment. Communicating IT policies to the user's community. Managing the IT workforce. Obeying external regulations, laws, and contracts. Conducting IT risk assessments. Maintaining a high-quality systems-development process. Incorporating sound project-management techniques. Answer: B is incorrect. Correcting all risk issues does not come under auditing processes.
Questions 52
Which of the following types of attack is described in the statement below? "It is a technique employed to compromise the security of network switches. In this attack, a switch is flooded with packets, each containing different source MAC addresses. The intention is to consume the limited memory set aside in the switch to store the MAC address-to-physical port translation table."
MAC flooding is a technique employed to compromise the security of network switches. In a typical MAC flooding attack, a switch is flooded with packets, each containing different source MAC addresses. The intention is to consume the limited memory set aside in the switch to store the MAC address-to-physical port translation table. The result of this attack causes the switch to enter a state called failopen mode, in which all incoming packets are broadcast out on all ports (as with a hub), instead of just down the correct port as per normal operation. A malicious user could then use a packet sniffer (such as Wireshark) running in promiscuous mode to capture sensitive data from other computers (such as unencrypted passwords, e-mail and instant messaging conversations), which would not be accessible were the switch operating normally. Answer: B is incorrect. Blind spoofing is a type of IP spoofing attack. This attack occurs when the attacker is on a different subnet as the destination host. Therefore, it is more difficult to obtain correct TCP sequence number and acknowledgement number of the data frames. In blind spoofing attack, an attacker sends several packets to the target computer so that he can easily obtain sequence number of each data frame. If the attacker is successful in compromising the sequence number of the data frames, the data is successfully sent to the target computer. Answer: C is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks.
Answer: A is incorrect. Man-in-the-middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets and then sends the information to the receiving host. The receiving host responds to the software, presuming it to be the legitimate client.
Questions 53
Which of the following tags will create two vertical frames, as given in the image below, where the left frame is half as wide as the right one?
You work as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for SecureNet Inc. You want to investigate Cross-Site Scripting attack on your company's Website. Which of the following methods of investigation can you use to accomplish the task?
Options:
A.
Review the source of any HTML-formatted e-mail messages for embedded scripts or links in the URL to the company's site.
B.
Look at the Web servers logs and normal traffic logging.
C.
Use Wireshark to capture traffic going to the server and then searching for the requests going to the input page, which may give log of the malicious traffic and the IP address of the source.
D.
Use a Web proxy to view the Web server transactions in real time and investigate any communication with outside servers.
You can use the following methods to investigate Cross-Site Scripting attack:
1. Look at the Web servers logs and normal traffic logging.
2. Use a Web proxy to view the Web server transactions in real time and investigate any communication with outside servers.
3. Review the source of any HTML-formatted e-mail messages for embedded scripts or links in the URL to the company's site. Answer: C is incorrect. This method is not used to investigate Cross-Site Scripting attack.
Questions 55
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the We-are-secure network. Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
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