220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If the system fails to boot after removing the USB installation media, it often means the BIOS is not pointing to the correct boot device. This typically involves an issue with the BIOS settings—such as UEFI being disabled when the OS was installed in UEFI mode.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guideby Travis Everett:

“One of the most common post-installation issues is failing to configure the boot mode correctly in BIOS. If an OS is installed in UEFI mode, the UEFI boot must be enabled, otherwise the system won’t detect the bootloader.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is likely arogue antivirusor scareware tactic. The user shouldnot click "OK"and instead check Windows Security (or third-party antivirus) status and ensure real-time protection is enabled.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Users should verify security center settings if receiving suspicious pop-ups. Clicking unknown software updates can install malware. It’s safer to validate protection through legitimate system tools.”

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows doesn't natively support many Linux file systems (like ext4).Reformatting to exFATmakes the drive readable/writable on both Linux and Windows.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“For cross-platform compatibility, exFAT is recommended as it supports large files and is recognized by Windows, macOS, and Linux (with exFAT drivers).”

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

ApplicationsandLibraryare core system directories in macOS. TheApplicationsfolder contains installed applications. TheLibraryfolder contains support files, preferences, and other system-related files.

From theQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“macOS organizes system and user files into several key folders. Among them, Applications and Library are standard system folders where apps and related files are stored.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:

C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.

D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.

A. SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.

B. SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.

E. RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support — not end-user remote access.

F. WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use Windows ‘Do Not Disturb’ to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Public Wi-Fi networks often usecaptive portals, which require accepting terms or authenticating via the pop-up page before full access is granted. Closing it prematurely stops full connection.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Captive portals intercept the first HTTP request and present a login or acknowledgment screen. Without completing it, access is denied.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The correct answer isVNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol (RFB) to remotely control another computer. It is platform-independent and widely supported on Linux, which makes it ideal for providinginteractive remote support for a Linux-based operating system. It allows the technician not only to view the remote desktop session but also tocontrol it, fulfilling the need to see and interact with the user’s session.

A. VPN(Virtual Private Network) creates a secure tunnel to a network but doesnot provide desktop sharing or session controlby itself.

C. SSH(Secure Shell) provides secure command-line access to Unix/Linux systems but does not offergraphical desktop interaction, which is a requirement in this case.

D. RDP(Remote Desktop Protocol) is primarily a Microsoft protocol, and although it can be made to work on Linux, it isnot natively supported on legacy Linux systems, and thusless suitablethan VNC in this scenario.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:

Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates are expected to be familiar with remote access technologies, includingRDP, SSH, and VNC, and understand their appropriate uses and limitations on different platforms such as Windows and Linux.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Most public Wi-Fi networks requireinteraction with a captive portal(e.g., terms of use or login). Dismissing it prevents the user from gaining internet access. Reconnecting and completing the portal page is essential.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Many public hotspots require user acknowledgment or login via a captive portal. Skipping this step results in no internet access.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)guide technicians through consistent and complete processes, including documentation.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“SOPs ensure that all required steps—such as data collection and issue description—are followed in every support interaction.”

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

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In AI terminology,hallucinationrefers to generated output that appears plausible but is factually incorrect.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“AI hallucination describes output that is fluent and coherent but includes information that is entirely fabricated or inaccurate.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheServicestool in Windows allows a technician to view service dependencies and status. If the print spooler can't start due to a dependency, Services is the correct tool to inspect and manage them.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“The Services console allows technicians to view, start, and configure system services, including setting recovery actions and viewing dependencies.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

For persistent printing issues due to spooler service, ensure theprint spooler is started and set to Automatic. This maintains print capability across reboots.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“If users lose printing capabilities on reboot, the print spooler service must be configured to start automatically and be confirmed as running.”

This scenario involves a mismatch in device time settings, which can affect synchronization and authentication across the network. Using aNetwork Time Protocol (NTP) serverensures all networked devices maintain accurate and synchronized clocks.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTP servers keep all devices on a network in sync. This prevents time drift, which can cause authentication issues with domain logins, certificates, and applications.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) for users who connect and use a network service.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“RADIUS is a widely used protocol for implementing AAA in network environments, allowing centralized control over user access and accounting.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In Windows, accessibility tools such as speech recognition are found under the Ease of Access settings. This section includes options for users who require assistive technologies, including screen readers, magnifiers, and voice control interfaces like speech recognition. Setting up speech recognition allows users to control the system and input text using voice commands.

A. Time and Language is for setting regional preferences and language packs.

B. Personalization adjusts themes, backgrounds, and colors.

C. System includes display, storage, notifications, and power settings, but not accessibility tools.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

After containment and remediation, one of the final steps in incident response is user education. Since the root cause was a phishing attack, it is essential to educate users about identifying phishing attempts, safe browsing practices, and how to handle suspicious communications. This improves overall security posture and helps prevent future incidents.

A. Installing additional tools may be helpful but is a long-term step.

C. Flashing router firmware is not warranted unless the network hardware is known to be compromised.

D. Suggesting more advanced tools might be excessive given that the EDR successfully contained the incident.

Screensaver lockshelp protect unattended workstations.

BIOS passwordsprevent unauthorized changes at startup or during boot.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Applying a BIOS password adds a pre-boot security layer. Screensaver locks help protect logged-in sessions during idle times.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.

B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.

C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.

D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A .bat file (batch file) is a script file in DOS, OS/2, and Microsoft Windows. It contains a series of commands that are executed by the command-line interpreter. In Windows environments, batch files are commonly used to automate log-in tasks, such as mapping network drives, launching applications, or setting environment variables during the user's logon process.

B. .sh is a shell script used in Linux/Unix environments.

C. .py is a Python script, which can be used for automation but is not commonly run directly at user logon in standard Windows environments.

D. .js is JavaScript, used mainly in web development and not for system-level scripting in Windows logon automation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

NET Framework versions are often required for applications to run. If an older app requires .NET Framework 3.5, it must be explicitly installed as it is not included by default in newer versions of Windows. The best method to do this safely is through the built-in "Turn Windows features on or off" utility, which downloads and installs it via official Microsoft services.

B. Using third-party repositories is unsafe and not recommended.

C. Installing .NET 4 does not include 3.5; versions are not fully backward compatible.

D. The issue is technical, not a security incident for the SOC team.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The recurring print issue suggests theprint spooler service is not set to start automatically, causing it to stop between sessions. Ensuring it is set tostart automaticallyand manuallystarting the servicewill resolve the issue.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“The print spooler is essential for print services. If it isn’t configured to start automatically, users may experience recurring failures.”

“Manually starting the service or setting it to 'Automatic' in the Services panel resolves persistent print availability problems.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thepowercfg commandis a built-in utility for controlling power settings including hibernation. It can be used in scripts and does not require domain access.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“The powercfg command provides granular control of power settings, useful for scripting and configuring systems without Group Policy access.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Anincident reportsummarizes what happened during an outage, the timeline, the actions taken, and the resolution, which is exactly what management typically requests post-incident.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Incident reports document the events of an IT issue or outage, including detection, response, and resolution. They are crucial for post-incident review and management accountability.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer's anxiety.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Persistent pop-ups urging antivirus updates are likelyscareware or adware. The correct approach is toverify existing antivirus settings, run a trusted security scan, and avoid interacting with unknown pop-ups.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Users should verify antivirus status using trusted tools before responding to alerts. Fake updates are common vectors for malware.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

FAT32cannot support files larger than 4GB.NTFSsupports large file sizes and is compatible across Windows systems, making it the correct choice for transferring a 4.57GB file.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTFS is the preferred file system for large file transfers within Windows. FAT32 has a 4GB file size limit, which makes it unsuitable for modern use cases involving large files.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Memory usage is critically high, suggesting many applications or background processes. Closing unnecessary programs will immediately free up RAM.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“High memory usage with moderate CPU load usually means too many applications are open. Close unnecessary apps or use Task Manager to end processes.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This scenario describes a rogue access point — a malicious or unauthorized wireless access point that uses the same SSID as the legitimate network. Users may connect to it unknowingly, which can result in limited network access, data interception, or redirection of traffic. The inability to reach internal file servers supports this being an unauthorized AP with no connection to internal resources.

A. A DNS issue would impact name resolution, not connectivity to file servers directly.

B. VLAN issues generally affect segmentation, not mimic SSID problems.

C. An incorrect IP address could cause connectivity issues, but not in the presence of a malicious AP broadcasting the same SSID.

SSH (Secure Shell)allows encrypted console sessions to access and administer remote servers.

FromQuentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“Secure Shell (SSH) provides an encrypted console session to manage Linux, UNIX, or network devices securely over TCP port 22.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Virtualizationallows the legacy OS to be run in a virtual machine (VM) on top of the newer OS. This method provides backward compatibility without requiring outdated operating systems on physical hardware.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Using virtualization is a preferred method when legacy applications are needed after migrating to newer operating systems. It allows legacy environments to exist securely within a modern OS framework.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Credential managers or password vaults (e.g., Windows Credential Manager, KeePass, or LastPass) store passwords securely. The integrity of such tools heavily depends on the strength of the master password protecting the vault. If compromised, all saved credentials could be exposed. Therefore, setting a secure master password is crucial.

A. Login time restrictions are general user account settings, not specific to credential managers.

C. TPM is used more commonly for full disk encryption, not specifically required for password managers.

D. The lock screen protects general access but does not protect stored credentials alone.

The correct syntax for mapping a network drive in Windows is:

net use Z: \\WinNAS\shared

This command connects the specified network share and maps it as drive Z:.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use net use followed by the desired drive letter and the UNC path to map network shares.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

BitLocker is Microsoft’s full disk encryption technology built into Windows Pro and Enterprise editions. It encrypts the entire drive, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. BitLocker can use TPM (Trusted Platform Module) and can be configured with PINs or USB keys for added security.

A. Active Directory is for centralized user and policy management in domains.

B. NTFS is the file system format and doesn't provide encryption by itself.

C. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts individual files or folders, not the entire drive.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

MDR (Managed Detection and Response)provides outsourced threat monitoring and response using multiple tools. The use of athird-party providerfor protection and incident handling confirms MDR.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“MDR provides 24/7 threat detection and response through outsourced experts using advanced tools across client environments.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows an organization to enforce security policies, such as denying network access to jailbroken/rooted devices.

From the All-in-One Exam Guide by Travis Everett and Andrew Hutz:

“MDM software allows administrators to monitor, manage, and secure mobile devices connected to enterprise networks. One key feature is the detection and denial of access for rooted or jailbroken devices”.

Quentin Docter also confirms:

“An MDM solution can check if a device has been rooted and prevent it from accessing the network, ensuring compliance with corporate security standards”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an OS is no longer receiving updates, it is generally because it has reachedend of life (EOL), meaning the vendor has ceased support.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“End-of-life refers to the point when an OS vendor no longer issues updates or support. Systems at EOL pose security risks and must be upgraded or isolated.”

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

UPS batteries are heavy and often located at the bottom of racks to maintain balance. Safe removal requires the use of correct lifting techniques to avoid injury. OSHA and workplace safety standards emphasize ergonomic handling when dealing with heavy equipment.

A. Fire suppression readiness is important for fire safety but not specifically relevant to battery removal.

C. Antistatic bags are for electronic components, not heavy battery modules.

D. A face mask is not generally necessary unless there is a chemical leak, which is not indicated here.