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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

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Questions 5

The concept that describes how estimating accuracy changes through the project life cycle is termed:

Options:

A.

estimating risk.

B.

estimating funnel.

C.

normal values.

D.

parametric estimating.

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Questions 6

In project management quality is best defined as:

Options:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Questions 7

To effectively manage the project the range of documentation may appear to be extensive; however, the document that captures the why, what, where, when, how, how much and who for the project is called:

Options:

A.

the project schedule.

B.

the project definition and delivery report.

C.

the project feasibility report.

D.

the project management plan.

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Questions 8

Unlike in linear life cycles, the scope in an iterative lifecycle is:

Options:

A.

expected to change.

B.

hard to change.

C.

unimportant.

D.

unstructured.

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Questions 9

Resource smoothing is used when:

Options:

A.

quality is more important than cost.

B.

quality is more important than scope.

C.

scope is more important than time.

D.

time is more important than cost.

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Questions 10

Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

Options:

A.

Identifying resources.

B.

Influencing resources.

C.

Assigning resources to activities.

D.

Matching resources to the schedule.

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Questions 11

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

Options:

A.

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.

The project is going to be late.

D.

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

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Questions 12

The purpose of quality assurance is to:

Options:

A.

provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

C.

inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.

D.

define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

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Questions 13

Which type of projects needs to consider environmental constraints?

Options:

A.

Construction projects only.

B.

Construction and petrochemical projects only.

C.

All but IT projects.

D.

All projects.

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Questions 14

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

Options:

A.

at the post-project review.

B.

not more frequently than monthly.

C.

throughout the project.

D.

only when assessing project risk.

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Questions 15

Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

Options:

A.

quality register.

B.

issue register.

C.

change register.

D.

risk register.

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Questions 16

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called?

Options:

A.

a Gantt chart.

B.

a critical path network.

C.

a product flow diagram.

D.

a Pareto chart.

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Questions 17

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

Options:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

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Questions 18

Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team?

Options:

A.

Creating an exclusive environment.

B.

Providing clear roles and responsibilities.

C.

Promoting openness and honesty.

D.

Developing a trusting relationship.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy.

B.

Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.

C.

Achieving the project's success criteria.

D.

Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project

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Questions 20

The risk management process is concerned with managing which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threats and opportunities.

B.

Risks and issues.

C.

Issues that have arisen.

D.

Risk events with negative impact.

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Questions 21

What rule of thumb. can be used for ensuring that key stakeholders have been included in the process?

Options:

A.

Make use Of widely available templates and predefined structures to ensure a complete spectrum of stakeholders are identified.

B.

Ask the most influential stakeholders to identify who else they think Should be involved in the project.

C.

Analyse Other projects and who their stakeholders are and include them by default.

D.

Question whose support or lack of it might significantly influence the success of the project

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Questions 22

How would a project manager use an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Describe the improvement in accuracy in estimations over time.

B.

Narrow down budgetary options.

C.

Eliminate unnecessary costs.

D.

Improve understanding of estimation methods over time.

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a reason for scheduling?

Options:

A.

To establish what work needs to be performed.

B.

To establish the roles and responsibilities of the project team.

C.

To produce the quality acceptance criteria.

D.

To produce a project management plan.

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Questions 24

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

learning review.

C.

handover review.

D.

audit review.

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Questions 25

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

Options:

A.

definition and delivery.

B.

time, cost and quality.

C.

cost and scope.

D.

budget, spend and contingency

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Questions 26

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

Options:

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Questions 27

Which of the following would be a benefit to an organization of effective project management?

Options:

A.

Significant cost savings in the organization’s business as usual activities.

B.

Guaranteed increased profitability and market share from successful projects.

C.

Use of resources and greater likelihood of achieving a successful project.

D.

Having qualified and trained project managers in the organization.

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Questions 28

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Questions 29

The project team comprises:

Options:

A.

all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives.

B.

the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project.

C.

the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project.

D.

all project stakeholders.

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Questions 30

Which one of the following is the correct definition of an issue?

Options:

A.

Any major problem that the project team has to deal with.

B.

A. problem that is the responsibility of the Project Manager.

C.

An uncertain event that should it occur would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A. threat to project objectives that cannot be resolved by the Project Manager.

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Questions 31

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 32

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

Options:

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

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Questions 33

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

Options:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

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Questions 34

Which of the following is not an essential activity to verify the configuration of an output?

Options:

A.

Plan configuration management process and activities.

B.

Create records and reports to demonstrate traceability.

C.

Verify integrity of configuration before use.

D.

Dissemination of each configuration item.

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Questions 35

The business case is owned by the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

sponsor.

C.

steering group (board).

D.

senior user.

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Questions 36

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

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Questions 37

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

Options:

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Questions 38

Communication includes:

1) exchanging information

2) managing stakeholders

3) confirming there is a shared understanding

4) building relationships within your team

Options:

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 39

Which of the following best describes a project's business case?

Options:

A.

The definition of why the project is required and the desired benefits.

B.

A. statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/ deliverables

C.

The reason why the project wants the project to proceed.

D A. statement as to how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor

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Questions 40

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:

Options:

A.

documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

B.

that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.

C.

documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.

D.

an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.

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Questions 41

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Questions 42

Project reporting can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

informing stakeholders about the project.

B.

storing and archiving of project information.

C.

gathering stakeholder feedback.

D.

collecting project information.

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Questions 43

Which one of the following best describes users?

Options:

A.

Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

B.

Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

C.

Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

D.

Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

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Questions 44

Success criteria can be defined as:

Options:

A.

measures of success that can be used throughout the project to ensure that it is progressing towards a successful conclusion.

B.

management practices that will increase the likelihood of success of a project.

C.

the satisfaction needs for the deployment of the project.

D.

the value of benefits that are realised when the project delivers its output into business-as-usual.

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Questions 45

The project manager's prime responsibility is to:

Options:

A.

deliver the benefits.

B.

define the requirements.

C.

sign off the business case.

D.

implement the project plan

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Questions 46

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

Options:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

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Questions 47

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

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Questions 48

What is the main objective of an audit?

Options:

A.

Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish

on time and within budget.

B.

Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance in managing the project.

C.

Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.

D.

Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.

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Questions 49

How should issues be prioritised?

Options:

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

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Questions 50

A communications plan should be:

1) one way

2) adjustable

3) measurable

4) rigid

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

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Questions 51

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

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Questions 52

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

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Questions 53

How does having a business case help an organisation?

Options:

A.

It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards

B.

It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project.

C.

It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary.

D.

It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

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Questions 54

Which of the following is not a key aspect of issue resolution?

Options:

A.

Increase risk budget.

B.

Apply change control.

C.

Escalate analysis to project sponsor.

D.

Assign actions to relevant team member.

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Questions 55

Which statement regarding the purpose of the business case would be the most true?

Options:

A.

Once agreed the business case will become the baseline by which the project will be deployed,

B.

It will act as a reference for the project team regarding the specific. processes to be used forproject delivery.

C.

It will determine which stakeholders are most eligible to become members of the steering group,

D.

It will be referred to throughout the project in order to make decisions about the continuing viability of the project.

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Questions 56

Implementation of plans and verification of performance is most likely to occur in:

Options:

A.

the deployment phase.

B.

the definition phase

C.

the concept phase.

D.

the adoption phase

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Questions 57

To be fully effective, the project manager:

Options:

A.

must take into consideration the internal and external environments.

B.

need only deal with the internal environment since the sponsor will deal with the external environment.

C.

should manage the external stakeholders and external environment.

D must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure requirements include the latest legislation.

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Questions 58

A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team's objectives and draw out other team members. Which of the Belbin's team roles is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Shaper.

B.

Monitor evaluator.

C.

Specialist.

D.

Co-ordinator

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Questions 59

The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a project is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

the project management team.

B.

primary user group.

C.

steering group.

D supplier group.

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Questions 60

A procurement strategy is a:

Options:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

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Questions 61

When delivering a project, the project manager has to balance which of the following constraints?

Options:

A.

Definition and delivery.

B.

Time, cost and quality.

C.

Budget, spend and contingency.

D.

Cost and scope.

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Questions 62

What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project?

Options:

A.

Developing the project management plan.

B.

Developing the business case.

C.

Carrying out A. health check.

D Carrying out day-to-day resource management.

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Questions 63

Which of the following define leadership?

1) Ability to establish vision and direction

2) Developing team skills that enhance project performance3) Empowering and inspiring people to achieve success

4) Ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 4

B.

1, 2 & 3

C.

2, 3 & 4

D.

1, 3 & 4

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Questions 64

Configuration management would be used to:

Options:

A.

ensure the required materials are in stock when needed.

B.

help the impact Of a change request to be fully assessed.

C.

help configuration within IT projects.

D.

ensure that a work breakdown structure can be completed.

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Questions 65

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Options:

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

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Questions 66

Which one of the following statements best describes communication?

Options:

A.

The giving, receiving, processing and interpretation of information.

B.

The explanation, understanding, managing and sorting of information.

C.

The giving, explaining, understanding and interpretation of information.

D.

The managing, receiving, processing and sorting of information.

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Questions 67

Who is primarily responsible for configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

Project manager,

B.

Risk manager.

C.

Quality manager.

D.

The project team.

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Questions 68

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

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Questions 69

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

Options:

A.

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.

The plan of the response to risks.

C.

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A risk identification workshop.

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Questions 70

For successful risk identification to take place what must the project team know as a minimum?

Options:

A.

Skills of the team delivering the project.

B.

Project objectives.

C.

Amount of time allowed for risk identification to take place.

D.

Location of the venue Where risk identification Will take place

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Questions 71

Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

Options:

A.

A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.

B.

A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.

C.

A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.

D.

A project is a method of planning work.

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Questions 72

Project risk management is best described as:

Options:

A.

managing responses to threats.

B.

identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

C.

planning responses to threats.

D.

minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

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Questions 73

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

Options:

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Questions 74

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

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Questions 75

Which of the following are not considered by quality planning?

Options:

A.

Contingency budget for remedial work.

B.

Equipment required for quality testing.

C.

Staff qualified to undertake inspections.

D.

Processes to obtain stakeholder approvals.

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Questions 76

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

Options:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

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Questions 77

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

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Questions 78

What is the term given to the senior management team that set the strategic. direction for a project?

Options:

A.

Project management office.

B.

Change control board.

C.

Project steering group.

D.

Programme director.

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Questions 79

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

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Questions 80

Who in the project is responsible for benefits realisation?

Options:

A.

The senior management of the organisation.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The sponsor.

D The end users.

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Questions 81

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

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Questions 82

Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?

Options:

A.

A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project

B.

A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs

C.

The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product

D.

The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

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Questions 83

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

Options:

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

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Questions 84

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

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Questions 85

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Questions 86

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

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Questions 87

Configuration management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

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Questions 88

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

Options:

A.

It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

B.

It advocates employing A. consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.

C.

It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

D.

It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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Questions 89

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

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Questions 90

How many dimensions are included in the business case?

Options:

A.

Five

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Four

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Questions 91

Which of the following defines the term 'issue'?

Options:

A.

A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

B.

A problem which occurs on a day-to-day basis which could have an immediate impact on a project.

C.

A problem which has the potential to impact on the achievement of specific project objectives.

D.

A problem which can only be resolved by a project manager and within the project team

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Questions 92

Which of the following is most true of the business case?

Options:

A.

It provides details of the overarching approach to be taken to move the current to a future desirable state using a coordinated and structured approach.

B.

It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative project options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently.

D.

It describes each major element in the work breakdown structure (WBS) describing the work content, resources required, the time frame of the work element and a cost estimate.

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Questions 93

Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles anditerative life cycles?

Options:

A.

Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.

B.

In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.

C.

Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.

D.

Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review

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Questions 94

The phases of a project life cycle are:

Options:

A.

starting, planning, control and closing.

B.

concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

C.

initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.

D.

concept, definition, implementation and operations.

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Questions 95

The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show:

Options:

A.

significant events.

B.

resource constraints.

C.

task dependencies.

D.

critical path highlights.

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Questions 96

Which activity is not utilised by scope management?

Options:

A.

Defining.

B.

Identifying.

C.

Delivering.

D.

Controlling.

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Questions 97

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

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Questions 98

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

Options:

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

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Questions 99

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

Options:

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

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Questions 100

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

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Questions 101

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

Options:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

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Questions 102

During the consideration of when and how the development of the project management plan should take place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation, the project management plan should be:

Options:

A.

assembled when all information is available.

B.

developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.

C.

completed in detail before the project is authorised.

D.

free from detailed schedule information.

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Questions 103

What is the main objective of A. RAM?

Options:

A.

To provide a clear and concise summary of tasks or deliverables and the specific. responsibilities defined.

B.

To provide an outline of the reporting structure to assist in day-to-day management of the project.

C.

To provide an outline of the scope of the project and the specific deliverables that have been agreed for the project.

D.

To provide an outline of the specific costs of the project and which key deliverables they are allocated to.

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Questions 104

During project deployment, which process will provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards?

Options:

A.

Quality assurance for the project.

B.

Strategic Business Planning for Quality (SBPQ).

C.

Total quality planning.

D.

Total quality management (TQM).

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Questions 105

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

Options:

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

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Questions 106

The responsibility for development and production of the business case is primarily with:

Options:

A.

the project manager

B.

jointly shared between the project manager and project sponsor.

C.

the project sponsor.

D.

the project steering group/committee.

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Questions 107

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Options:

A.

Teamwork.

B.

Motivation.

C.

Management.

D.

Leadership

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Questions 108

Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Options:

A.

At the start of the concept phase.

B.

At the start of the definition phase.

C.

At the start of the development phase.

D.

At the end of the handover stage.

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Questions 109

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

Options:

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

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Questions 110

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Options:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

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Questions 111

Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:

Options:

A.

indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.

B.

ensure adequate resource allocation.

C.

indicate what is important in supplier selection.

D.

ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

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Questions 112

When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a:

Options:

A.

scope verification.

B.

change freeze.

C.

consolidated baseline.

D.

configuration control.

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Questions 113

What benefit justifies expending resources to achieve stakeholder

engagement?

Options:

A.

Optimised resource management opportunities.

B.

Reduced overall costs Of project delivery.

C.

Decreased duration of the project schedule.

D.

Increased likelihood Of the project being accepted.

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Questions 114

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced?

Options:

A.

The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP.

B.

The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

C.

The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P.

D.

The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management.

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Questions 115

Project success criteria are best defined as:

Options:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

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Questions 116

Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

Options:

A.

A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.

B.

A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.

C.

A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.

D.

A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.

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Questions 117

One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:

Options:

A.

the power and influence of stakeholders is understood.

B.

that all communication is delivered face to face.

C.

your message is understood.

D.

clear reporting lines for the project.

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Questions 118

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Questions 119

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

Options:

A.

reporting.

B.

control.

C.

assurance.

D.

planning.

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Questions 120

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Creating a project cost breakdown structure.

B.

Authoring the project management plan.

C.

Creating a project work breakdown structure.

D.

Owning the project business case.

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Questions 121

What is the main aim of the communication plan?

Options:

A.

To increase the chances of achieving effective engagement.

B.

To comply with the structure of the project management plan.

C.

To identify the skills necessary to deliver a project.

D.

To increase the likelihood of benefits realisation.

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Questions 122

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

Options:

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: Jun 9, 2025
Questions: 409

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