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CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

PCP notes describe the presence of atrial fibrillation for 10 days. Atenolol, sotalol and rivaroxaban are ordered. Possible ablation is discussed. Identify the type of atrial fibrillation described in this clinical scenario.

Options:

A.

Paroxysmal

B.

Persistent

C.

Chronic

D.

Permanent

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Questions 5

Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?

Options:

A.

Nephropathy

B.

Retinopathy

C.

Dermatitis

D.

Osteomyelitis

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Questions 6

An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson’s. The provider reviews the neurologist’s consultation notes, evaluates the patient’s current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson’s. The provider’s problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson’s. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Options:

A.

HTN

B.

GERD

C.

Dementia

D.

Parkinson’s

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Questions 7

The primary purpose of the RADV program is to

Options:

A.

ensure risk-adjusted payment integrity and accuracy.

B.

verify medical necessity of care provided.

C.

identify over-payments rendered to individual physicians.

D.

support accuracy of Evaluation and Management billing.

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Questions 8

A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

B.

Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy

C.

Association of hypertension to smoking

D.

Hypertensive crisis - unspecified

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Questions 9

How does accurate documentation impact APC assignment in outpatient services?

Options:

A.

It has no effect

B.

It delays reimbursement

C.

It ensures appropriate APC assignment, impacting reimbursement

D.

It reduces coding accuracy

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Questions 10

When a CDI specialist identifies a discrepancy in documentation, the next step is to:

Options:

A.

Change the record

B.

Query the provider for clarification

C.

Escalate to compliance

D.

Code the record as is

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Questions 11

What is the goal of an MSSP program?

Options:

A.

Optimize risk score

B.

Share in savings

C.

Improve transitions of care

D.

Increase fee schedule payment

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Questions 12

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the impact of a CDI program on Clinic A using the table below?

Options:

A.

Providers are more engaged in 2023 than in 2022.

B.

Treated a more complex population than any of the other clinics in 2023.

C.

Served a sicker population in 2023 than in 2022.

D.

Consistently captured a higher RAF percentage each month in 2023 than in 2022.

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Questions 13

A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to

Options:

A.

wait to speak with the provider during the next scheduled meeting.

B.

catch the provider in the hallway between patients.

C.

discuss in a private room with the door closed.

D.

leave a sticky note on the chart of the next patient.

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Questions 14

Which of the following conditions or findings supports a diagnosis of diabetes?

Options:

A.

2-hour blood sugar level of 90 during oral glucose tolerance test

B.

Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) level of 7.0%

C.

Hypoglycemia

D.

Fasting glucose of 100

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Questions 15

An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary’s risk score?

Options:

A.

Patient noncompliance and age

B.

ICD-10-CM codes and race

C.

Medicaid status and race

D.

Medicaid status and gender

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Questions 16

Which component of the OPPS assigns payment rates based on procedure grouping?

Options:

A.

Physician Fee Schedule

B.

APCs

C.

DRGs

D.

CPT codes

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Questions 17

A provider has been determined to be a high-cost provider after a total claims cost analysis. The provider’s patient panel has an overall low HCC average score. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation regarding the low HCC average score?

Options:

A.

The provider cares for patients of a higher acuity

B.

The provider is failing to capture all relevant diagnoses

C.

The provider has a less complex patient population

D.

The provider is not reporting unspecified diagnoses

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Questions 18

In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Options:

A.

$148,800

B.

$3,291,200

C.

$1,785,600

D.

$17,785,600

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Questions 19

Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?

Options:

A.

Prostate carcinoma and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

B.

Atrial fibrillation and amiodarone

C.

Malnutrition and parenteral nutrition

D.

Severe major depressive disorder and immunotherapy

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Questions 20

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

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Questions 21

An established patient is defined as one who has received professional services from the same or another physician or qualified healthcare professional from the exact same specialty and sub-specialty and belongs to the same group practice, within the past how many years?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 22

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

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Questions 23

Which of the following Medicare patients demonstrates the highest level of risk based on the above chart?

Options:

A.

65-year-old female, living at home, history includes diabetes type 2, obesity, and depression

B.

64-year-old female, living at home, disabled due to chronic pain, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, obesity, and depression

C.

72-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

D.

94-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

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Questions 24

HCC category assignment methodology is similar to which of the following?

Options:

A.

DRG diagnostic categories

B.

835 claim submission

C.

ICD-10-PCS coding

D.

CPT coding

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Questions 25

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

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Questions 26

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

Options:

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

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Questions 27

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

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Questions 28

Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: “Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm.” There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Capture code for pacemaker status only.

B.

Request the provider amend the codes to reflect the Sick Sinus Syndrome and pacemaker status.

C.

Educate the provider that a pacemaker status code as well as a Sick Sinus Syndrome code should be assigned.

D.

Ask the coder to re-bill based upon the documentation.

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Questions 29

An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?

Options:

A.

The ACO will expect to receive dollars in shared savings.

B.

The ACO will expect to pay back dollars in shared savings.

C.

The ACO will be eligible for shared savings after the second year.

D.

The ACO will have shared savings or penalty determined at the end of the agreement period.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is a form of a cardiac condition that may be treated with a beta-blocker?

Options:

A.

Third degree heart block

B.

Coronary artery disease

C.

Sinus bradycardia

D.

Cardiomyopathy

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Questions 31

A 67-year-old male patient has been seen by a PCP multiple times this year. Diagnoses reported are diabetes with nephropathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; diabetes with retinopathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; atrial fibrillation with an HCC weight of 0.299, and a demographic risk factor weight of 0.332. Which of the following is this patient’s final RAF score for these diagnoses?

Options:

A.

0.932

B.

0.797

C.

1.418

D.

0.678

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Questions 32

A morbidly obese patient with a BMI of 45 who is reliant on CPAP at night is likely to have which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Heart failure

B.

Essential hypertension

C.

Alveolar hypoventilation

D.

Pulmonary edema

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Questions 33

A CDI specialist read the most recent AHA Coding Clinic that provided updated guidance related to a prior AHA Coding Clinic. The CDI specialist should

Options:

A.

apply the initial Coding Clinic advice to relevant cases in that calendar year only.

B.

follow the initial Coding Clinic advice for remainder of the fiscal year.

C.

utilize the updated Coding Clinic advice from published date forward.

D.

employ the updated Coding Clinic advice to relevant cases discharged last year.

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Questions 34

CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure

Options:

A.

an individual’s anticipated cost of care.

B.

a beneficiary’s risk of mortality.

C.

group beneficiary costs.

D.

physician cost of care provision.

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Questions 35

Which of the following therapies is MOST likely to be recommended?

Options:

A.

Ensure for morbid obesity

B.

Metoprolol for atrial fibrillation

C.

Xarelto for hematemesis

D.

Tamoxifen for chronic congestive heart failure

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Questions 36

A CDI specialist receives a call from a disgruntled provider regarding recent documentation queries. The provider claims to only have 15 minutes to see patients and does not have time for interruptions like this if it does not increase reimbursement. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to effectively facilitate communication?

Options:

A.

Explain to the provider that queries may affect reimbursement, however not directly, and he should comply.

B.

Listen to the provider, agree this does not affect reimbursement, and explain that the CDI team will stop querying.

C.

Request a time at the provider's convenience to review the query process and collaborate to facilitate the best workflow.

D.

Call the provider's superior and report him as being non-compliant with organizational processes.

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Questions 37

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

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Questions 38

Calculate the expected yearly cost for this patient based on the RAF score.

Options:

A.

$486.40

B.

$12,672.00

C.

$17,011.20

D.

$5,836.80

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Questions 39

Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with the medication sertraline?

Options:

A.

Schizophrenia

B.

Asthma

C.

Depression

D.

Heart failure

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Questions 40

Which entity is tasked by CMS to process both Part A and Part B beneficiary claims?

Options:

A.

Recovery audit contractors

B.

Risk adjustment validation contractors

C.

Medicare administrative contractors

D.

Zone program integrity contractors

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Questions 41

What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

Options:

A.

Dialysis, chronic uremia, and polycystic kidney disease

B.

GFR, ATN, and unspecified kidney failure

C.

AKI, ESRD, and dialysis

D.

CKD stage 3, CKD severe, and ESRD

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Questions 42

A patient presents to the clinic with indwelling Foley catheter, symptoms of fatigue, and low back pain with BPH. Labs reveal WBC 20, and the urine culture is positive for E. coli. Prescription antibiotics are ordered for a UTI. Which of the following is the BEST query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Etiology of BPH

B.

UTI related to catheter

C.

Etiology of low back pain

D.

Leukocytosis

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Exam Code: CCDS-O
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 140

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