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CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An infrastructure team is setting up a wireless network for employees at a new location of the organization that is located near a very busy city transport hub. Which should be the MOST important antenna consideration with regard to securing the wireless network for the infrastructure team?

Options:

A.

Network's Service Set Identifier (SSID) visibility and vulnerabilities are not cast out too far.

B.

Parabolic antenna is used for signal convergence.

C.

Network efficiently allows maximum channel separation.

D.

Implement Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

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Questions 5

A lengthy power outage led to unavailability of time critical services resulting in considerable losses. It was determined that a backup electrical generator did not work as intended at the time of the incident due to lack of fuel. What should the security consultant FIRST Investigate?

Options:

A.

Maintenance procedures

B.

Supplier contracts

C.

Failover designs

D.

Product catalogs

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Questions 6

An organization has identified that an individual has failed to adhere to a given standard set by the organization. Based on the needs of the organization, it was decided that an exception process will be created. What is the PRIMARY benefit of establishing an exception process?

Options:

A.

Prevent future material audit findings.

B.

Provide administrators with more autonomy.

C.

Enable management of organizational risk.

D.

Ensure better Business Continuity (BC).

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Questions 7

What is an important countermeasure to consider when hardening network devices and servers to reduce the effectiveness of unauthorized network scanning?

Options:

A.

Filter inbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

B.

Filter inbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

C.

Filter outbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

D.

Filter outbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

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Questions 8

An organization has determined that it needs to retain customer records for at least thirty years to discover generational trends in customer behavior. However, relevant local regulation requires that all Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is deleted after expiration of the customer's engagement with the organization, which is usually no longer than one year. How should the data be handled at the expiration of customer engagement at one year?

Options:

A.

Because the data contains PII, it should be backed up in an encrypted form, with the encryption key securely kept in a Hardware Security Module (HSM), and all access logged and monitored.

B.

The data should be deleted from the customer website, and archived to a write-once, read-many drive to securely meet the business requirement for analytics.

C.

PII portion of the data should be tokenized or deleted, and the rest of the data stored securely to meet the business requirement for analytics.

D.

Since legal and regulatory compliance takes priority over business requirements, the data should be deleted.

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Questions 9

A company that uses concurrent engineering is likely to experience which of the following outcomes in the first period of a product's life cycle?

Options:

A.

Fewer product design changes

B.

An increase in obsolete inventory

C.

More accurate forecasting

D.

Conflicts between purchasing and engineering

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Questions 10

Which of the following measurements indicates there may be bias In the forecast model?

Options:

A.

Mean absolute deviation (MAD)

B.

Standard deviation

C.

Tracking signal

D.

Variance

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Questions 11

Which of the below represents the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Supply chain failure

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

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Questions 12

After a data loss event, an organization is reviewing its Identity and Access Management (IAM) governance process. The organization determines that the process is not operating effectively. What should be the FIRST step to effectively manage the IAM governance process?

Options:

A.

Complete an inventory of who has access to systems.

B.

Create a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process to determine what a specific group of users can access.

C.

Create an Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process to assign access to users based on their account attributes and characteristics.

D.

Conduct an assessment and remove all inactive accounts.

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Questions 13

The primary benefit that results from the cross-training of employees is:

Options:

A.

improved flexibility.

B.

improved capacity.

C.

shortened lead time.

D.

effective problem-solving.

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Questions 14

An Information Technology (IT) professional is seeking a control objective framework that is widely accepted around the world and focuses specifically on information security controls. Which of the following frameworks BEST meets this need?

Options:

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO) 27001

B.

International Organization For standardization (ISO) 27002

C.

International Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

D.

Capability Maturity Model (CMM)

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Questions 15

Database security includes which of the following requirements?

Options:

A.

Physical database integrity, logical database integrity, and ownership integrity

B.

Availability, auditability, and screening

C.

Physical database integrity, logical database integrity, and element integrity

D.

User authentication, availability, and accountability

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Questions 16

Which Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol provides a built-in encryption?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

B.

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

C.

Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol

D.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

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Questions 17

In which of the following situations would you use an X-bar chart?

Options:

A.

Track the number of defects that are found in each unit.

B.

Measure the difference between the largest and the smallest in a sample.

C.

Determine the average value of a group of units.

D.

Estimate a subgroup variation.

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Questions 18

A security engineer is reviewing Incident Response (IR) roles and responsibilities. Several roles have static elevated privileges in case an incident occurs. Instead of static access, what is the BEST access method to manage elevated privileges?

Options:

A.

Just-in-time

B.

Delegated

C.

Break-glass

D.

Automated

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Questions 19

A software organization is getting ready to launch a new application. A security engineer notices the application allows unrestricted access to files on the web server. Which of the following recommendations will BEST resolve this security issue?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all calls for file access requests.

B.

Eliminate illegitimate calls for file access requests.

C.

Whitelist files and folders for file access requests.

D.

Blacklist files and folders for file access requests.

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the BEST option for a security director to use in order to mitigate the risk of inappropriate use of credentials by individuals with administrative rights?

Options:

A.

Have administrators sign appropriate access agreements.

B.

Define the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for administrators.

C.

Have administrators accept a Non-Disclosure Agreement.

D.

Perform extensive background checks on administrators.

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Questions 21

Why would a network administrator monitor Internet of Things (IoT) security differently than the security of standards network devices?

Options:

A.

IoT devices are not developed with cybersecurity in mind.

B.

IoT devices are unencrypted.

C.

IoT devices require Power over Ethernet.

D.

IoT devices are wireless.

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Questions 22

Open Authorized (OAuth) has been chosen as technology to use across applications in the enterprise. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an OAuth token?

Options:

A.

Does not specify a time interval

B.

Can be used for authentication

C.

Can be used across multiple sites

D.

Specifies what information can be accessed

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Questions 23

Company A has acquired Company B. Company A has decided to start a project to convert Company B's enterprise resource planning (ERP) software to the same ERP software that Company A uses. What is a likely reason for this decision?

Options:

A.

The ERP system has business processes which both companies can adopt

B.

Company A wants to save on software licensing costs

C.

Each ERP package has unique and distinctive business processes

D.

Company A wishes to close Company B's data center

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Questions 24

An organization is implementing an enterprise resource planning system using the traditional waterfall Software development Life Cycle (SDLC) model. When is the BEST time to perform a code review to identity security gaps?

Options:

A.

When the software is being released for testing

B.

When full system code is being merged

C.

When business analysis is being performed and systems requirements are being identified

D.

When system architecture is being defined and user interface is being designed

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Questions 25

An organization’s computer incident responses team PRIMARY responds to which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

presentative

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Questions 26

Which of the following tactics can be employed effectively to reduce appraisal quality costs?

Options:

A.

Investing in prevention

B.

Conducting quality audits

C.

Loosening product specifications

D.

Implementing house of quality (HOQ)

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Questions 27

An organization’s external auditors have issued a management letter identifying significant deficiencies related to the effectiveness of the previous year’s global access certification. The organization wants to move from a department-based access control system to a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) system. In addition to quickly and securely provisioning users by granting membership into predefined and approved roles, which of these presents the BEST reason to do so?

Options:

A.

The organization can implement both mandatory and dynamic access controls, except where they would be in conflict.

B.

The organization can clone roles, saving time and granting broad access to persons within the same department.

C.

The organization can give a person holding multiple roles the appropriate levels of access to specific data for each role.

D.

The organization can implement both static and dynamic access controls, adjusting them to fit any individual’s access needs.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

Options:

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

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Questions 29

The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process should be long enough that:

Options:

A.

cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.

B.

planned product launches can be incorporated.

C.

required resources can be properly planned.

D.

supply constraints can be resolved.

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Questions 30

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

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Questions 31

A security engineer is responsible for verifying software reliability prior to commercial deployment. Which of the following factor would BEST be verified to ensure that the software stays reliable?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

C.

Content Delivery Network (CDN)

D.

Logging

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Questions 32

In which of the following circumstances is an organization MOST likely to report the accidental release of personal data to the European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) supervisory authority and affected users?

Options:

A.

The release of personal data was made to a highly trusted third-party vendor and there was confirmation that the data was not accessed before it was returned.

B.

The personal data was stored in a highly encrypted format and there is confirmation that the encryption keys were not accessed or released.

C.

All the personal data from the accidental release was from individuals who are not living in the EU.

D.

The personal data released only contained the ages and names of children who may or may not be living in the EU.

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Questions 33

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

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Questions 34

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A common set of security capabilities

B.

A common language and methodology

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A structured risk management process

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Questions 35

A Structured Query Language (SQL) database is hosted on a hardened, secure server. All unused ports are locked down, but external connections from untrusted networks are still required to be allowed through. What is the BEST way to ensure transactions to/from this server remain secure?

Options:

A.

Secure SQL service port with a Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificate.

B.

Use Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all logins to the server.

C.

Secure SQL service port with a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate.

D.

Scan all connections to the server for malicious packets.

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Questions 36

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well." What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

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Questions 37

Which security concept applies if an architecture diagram illustrates a particular user/role combination with access to an asset or applicaton?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Authentication

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Questions 38

Which of the following describes the 3 MAIN roles of the identity-delegation model?

Options:

A.

Application server, web server, and delegate

B.

Application server, proxy server, and delegate

C.

Delegator, delegate, and service provider

D.

Delegator, application server, and service provider

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Questions 39

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer is concerned with Denial-Of-Service (DoS) SYN flood attacks?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Physical

C.

Network

D.

Transport

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Questions 40

The development team wants new commercial software to integrate into the current system. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

B.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

C.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

D.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

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Questions 41

A financial institution is implementing an Information Technology (IT) asset management system. Which of the following capabilities is the MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Logging the data leak protection status of the IT asset

B.

Tracking the market value of the IT asset

C.

Receiving or transferring an IT asset

D.

Recording the bandwidth and data usage of the IT asset

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Questions 42

Health information stored in paper form may be destroyed using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

Shredding

B.

Degaussing

C.

De-identification

D.

Archiving

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Questions 43

Before securing a email system using OpenPGP in an organization, Which of the following actions MUST be performed?

Options:

A.

Definition of anti-spam policies

B.

Removal of previous email servers

C.

Definition of key management policies

D.

Backup of email messages and folders

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Questions 44

What is the BEST reason to include a Hardware Security Module (HSM) in the key management system when securing cloud storage?

Options:

A.

To provide additional layers of firewalls to the environment

B.

To create additional logical barriers to entry

C.

To allow access to new cryptographic keys

D.

To manage cryptographic keys in a tamper-proof model

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Questions 45

Which of the following actions hinders the transition from a push system to a pull system?

Options:

A.

Using standardized containers

B.

Using work orders as a backup

C.

Introducing kanban cards as authorization for material movement

D.

Maintaining a constant number of kanban cards during minor changes in the level of production

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Questions 46

Which of the following states of data becomes MOST important to protect as organizations continue to transition toward Application Programming Interface (API)-based solutions?

Options:

A.

Data at rest

B.

Data in use

C.

Data in transit

D.

Data on the client machine

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Questions 47

An organization is aiming to be System and Organization Controls (SOC) 2 certified by an audit organization to demonstrate its security and availability maturity to its sub service organizations. Which type of audit does this engagement BEST describe?

Options:

A.

Forensic audit

B.

Third-party audit

C.

Location audit

D.

Internal audit

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Questions 48

What is a malicious activity that overwhelms a Wireless Access Point (WAP)?

Options:

A.

Identification spoofing

B.

Signal jamming

C.

Pin attack

D.

War driving

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Questions 49

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?

Options:

A.

The administrative burden is increased

B.

The application has access to the user’s credentials

C.

Applications may need complex modifications to implement

D.

A compromised credential provides access to all the user’s applications

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Questions 50

An organization undergoing acquisition merged IT departments and infrastructure. During server decommissioning, some servers still in use by customers were mistakenly removed, causing order processing failures. Which type of review would have BEST avoided this scenario?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery (DR)

B.

Change management

C.

Business Continuity (BC)

D.

Business impact assessment

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Questions 51

Given the information below, reducing which measure by 10% would contribute most to shortening the cash-to-cash cycle time?

CPIM-8.0 Question 51

Options:

A.

Accounts receivable

B.

Inventory value

C.

Accounts payable

D.

Cost of capital

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Questions 52

Which of the following stock location systems would you use in a repetitive manufacturing, lean environment?

Options:

A.

Fixed location

B.

Floating location

C.

Point-of-use storage

D.

Central storage

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Questions 53

An information security professional is considering what type of classification label to place on an organization’s software code in order to implement proper access controls. The code is considered intellectual property data and would have a catastrophic impact to the organization if compromised or destroyed. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate classification label to apply?

Options:

A.

Sensitive

B.

Confidential

C.

Internal Use Only

D.

Public

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Questions 54

An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?

Options:

A.

Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)

B.

Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.

Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D.

Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point

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Questions 55

Which of the following trade-offs should be evaluated when determining where to place inventory in a multi-echelon supply chain network?

Options:

A.

Production cost and lot size quantity

B.

Purchase cost and shrinkage rates

C.

Transportation cost and delivery time

D.

Customer price and order quantity

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Questions 56

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

Options:

A.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

B.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported changes in click percentage that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

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Questions 57

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

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Questions 58

Which of the following statements is true about total productive maintenance (TPM)?

Options:

A.

It uses statistical tools.

B.

It is part of the business strategy.

C.

It influences the product design process.

D.

It minimizes unscheduled breakdowns.

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Questions 59

A company selling seasonal products is preparing their sales and operations plan for the coming year. Their current labor staffing is at the maximum for their production facility and cannot meet the forecasted demand. The business plan shows they do not have the financial capability to add to the production facility. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Uselevel production planning and investigate subcontracting to meet the extra demand.

B.

Usechaseproduction planningand only take the orders that can be produced In the highdemand season.

C.

Usehybridproduction planningto save labor costs and inventory costs in the low demand season.

D.

Usehybridproduction planningand reduce the size of the customer base during the highdemand season.

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Questions 60

In order to meet retention requirements, it may be necessary to migrate digital records to different media because of which of the following issues?

Options:

A.

Deduplication conserves storage.

B.

Regulatory guidance requires compliance.

C.

Digital media can degrade.

D.

Hierarchical storage facilitates access.

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Questions 61

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

Options:

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

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Questions 62

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

Options:

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

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Questions 63

A cybersecurity analyst is responsible for identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities in the organization's software systems. Which action BEST demonstrates the understanding and application of threat modeling concepts and methodologies?

Options:

A.

Implementing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Conducting access control assessments for the data center

C.

Analyzing potential attack vectors for a new software application

D.

Developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for critical systems

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Questions 64

A contractor hacked into an unencrypted session on an organization's wireless network. Which authentication configuration is MOST likely to have enabled this?

Options:

A.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

B.

Captive web portal

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Token authentication

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Questions 65

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Questions 66

An organization's security policy requires sensitive information to be protected when being transmitted to external sources via would be the BEST security solution to choose?

Options:

A.

Use spam filters and anti-virus software to send emails externally.

B.

Configure digital signatures to send emails externally.

C.

Configure the system to utilize to send encrypted emails externally.

D.

Use e-mail security gateway to send emails externally.

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Questions 67

A large organization that processes protected data issues preconfigured laptops to workers who then access systems and data based on their role. As their technology ages, these laptops are replaced with newer devices. What is the BEST solution to mitigate risk associated with these devices?

Options:

A.

Establish a device recycle process.

B.

Establish a process preventing credential storage on devices.

C.

Establish a physical destruction process for the storage medium.

D.

Establish a process for check in and check out of devices.

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Questions 68

A security engineer has determined the need to implement preventative controls into their Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) for added protection. Which preventative control provides the MOST security?

Options:

A.

Enabling software to enforce authorized network profiles

B.

Having an automated alerting capability when a problem is detected

C.

Third-party software to monitor configuration changes on the network

D.

Using a monitoring tool to capture all network activity

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Questions 69

A semiconductor manufacturer is writing a physical asset handling policy. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the rationale for the policy?

Options:

A.

Access of system logs to authorized staff

B.

Accurate and prompt tagging of all business files

C.

Assurance of safe and clean handling of company property

D.

Adoption of environmental controls in the server room

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Questions 70

Which of the following is the MOST significant flaw when using Federated Identity Management (FIM)?

Options:

A.

The initial cost of the setup is prohibitively high for small business.

B.

The token stored by the Identity Provider (IdP) may need to be renewed.

C.

The token generated by the Identity Provider (IdP) may be corrupted.

D.

The participating members in a federation may not adhere to the same rules of governance.

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Questions 71

What is the BEST way to plan for power disruptions when implementing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Empty jugs which can easily be filled up with water.

B.

Stock up on generator fuel and execute a generator test.

C.

Request bids for inexpensive generators.

D.

Purchase a contract with a secondary power provider.

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Questions 72

An organization currently has a network with 55,000 unique Internet Protocol (IP) addresses in their private Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) network range and has acquired another organization and must integrate their 25,000 endpoints with the existing, flat network topology. If subnetting is not implemented, which network class is implied for the organization's resulting private network segment?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

E

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Questions 73

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

Options:

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

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Questions 74

Which of the following is MOST accurate when comparing patch management and vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Patch management manages the security lifecycle from discovery to remediation.

B.

Patch management identifies, acquires, tests, and installs code changes on a specific computing device.

C.

Vulnerability management is a process executed in specialized software to address security issues or add new features.

D.

Vulnerability management plugs security holes and remediates risk by upgrading software to the most recent versions.

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Questions 75

What is the MOST important security benefit of comprehensive asset management?

Options:

A.

Enforces information security policies

B.

Supports understanding of enterprise security posture

C.

Supports locating security components at end of life

D.

Enforces network security access controls

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Questions 76

An organization experienced multiple compromises of endpoints, leading to breaches of systems and data. In updating its strategy to defend against these threats, which of the following BEST considers the organization’s needs?

Options:

A.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

B.

Zero Trust (ZT) threat modeling

C.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

D.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)

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Questions 77

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 78

An organization has a call center that uses a Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system. The conversations are sensitive, and the organization is concerned about employees other than the call agents accessing these conversations. What is the MOST effective additional security measure to make?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the call agents are using an additional authentication method.

B.

Implement a Network Access Control (NAC) solution.

C.

Ensure that the voice media is using Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol.

D.

Segment the voice network and add Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW).

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Questions 79

Which of the following ensures privileges are current and appropriately reflect an individual’s authorized roles and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Access authorization

B.

Identity management

C.

Access approval

D.

Access review

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Questions 80

The most relevant measure of customer service performance Is:

Options:

A.

service perceived by the customer against service expected by the customer.

B.

service promised to the customer against service measured by the supplier.

C.

customer complaints received as a percentage of orders shipped.

D.

positive customer feedback as a percentage of customer feedback.

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Questions 81

An organization has recently been hacked. To prevent future breaches, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) hires a third-party vendor to perform penetration testing on the network. Once complete, the vendor provides to the CISO a final report generated by a high-quality vulnerability scanner. The CISO rejects the report as incomplete.

Why is the vendor's penetration test considered incomplete?

Options:

A.

The vendor should have attempted to exploit the identified vulnerabilities.

B.

The vendor should also provide a guide to remediate the identified vulnerabilities.

C.

The vendor should have provided a risk report of vulnerabilities found.

D.

The vendor should have worked closely with network engineers to understand the network infrastructure better.

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Questions 82

A manufacturer has a primary assembly line supported by output from several subassembly lines. Which of the following scenarios would be the best argument for a multilevel master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Low variation in aggregate subassembly demand

B.

High variation in aggregate subassembly demand

C.

Low variation in subassembly demand mix

D.

High variation in subassembly demand mix

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Questions 83

A cybersecurity analyst has recently been assigned to work with a product development team. The team has usually needed to perform a lot of rework late in the development cycle on past projects due to application security concerns. They would like to minimize the amount of rework necessary. Which would be the BEST option to enable secure code review early in the product development?

Options:

A.

Implement dynamic code analysis

B.

Perform manual code reviews

C.

Implement static code analysis

D.

Perform fuzz testing

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Questions 84

A company has the following production conditions:

    Batch size: 1,000 items

    Processing time: 4 minutes per item

    Setup time: 2 hours

    Utilization: 80%

    Efficiency: 80%

Which of the following actions would result in the work being done in the least amount of time?

Options:

A.

Reduce the processing time for each item to 3.5 minutes.

B.

Increase either utilization or efficiency to 100%.

C.

Increase both utilization and efficiency to 90%.

D.

Eliminate the need for a setup to process the batch.

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Questions 85

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Completeness

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Logic

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Questions 86

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

Options:

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

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Questions 87

Which of the following controls should a financial Institution have in place in order to prevent a trader from both entering and executing a trade?

Options:

A.

Cameras in the trading room

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Separation of Duties (SoD)

D.

Least privilege

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Questions 88

How much data an organization can afford to lose is determined by the:

Options:

A.

Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

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Questions 89

The help desk received a call from a user noting the digital certificate on the organization-issued security identification card was invalid. Which is the BEST reason the certificate stopped working?

Options:

A.

The user's certificate was compromised by the public key of the user.

B.

The public key of the Certificate Authority (CA) is known to attackers.

C.

The user's certificate was absent from the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

D.

The user's certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.

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Questions 90

A consultant has been engaged to support the team in analyzing why the development of a new software product has slipped schedule by a year. The consultant discovered an increase of the functionality requirements due to the failure of the asset tracking program. Which of the following BEST describes which system lifecycle element is impacted?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder identification

B.

Vision statement

C.

Operational efficiency

D.

Solution boundary

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Questions 91

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

Options:

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

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Questions 92

An organization processes healthcare data, stores credit card data, and must provide audited financial statements, each of which is controlled by a separate compliance standard. To support compliance against multiple standards and the testing of the greatest number of controls with a limited budget, how would the internal audit team BEST audit the organization?

Options:

A.

Conduct an integrated audit against the most stringent security controls.

B.

Combine the systems into a single audit and implement security controls per applicable standard.

C.

Combine the systems into a single audit against all of the associated security controls.

D.

Audit each system individually and implement the applicable standard specific security controls.

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Questions 93

An organization’s security assessment recommended expanding its secure software development framework to include testing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products before deploying those products in production. What is the MOST likely reason for this recommendation?

Options:

A.

To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

B.

To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the user acceptance testing

C.

To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the trial run of the software

D.

To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

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Questions 94

An advantage of applying ABC classification to a firm's replenishment items is that:

Options:

A.

it distinguishes independent demand from dependent demand.

B.

it allows planners to focus on critical products.

C.

it provides better order quantities than the economic order quantity (EOQ).

D.

it allows the firm to utilize time-phased order point (TPOP).

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Questions 95

During a threat modeling exercise using the Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE) framework, it was identified that a web server allocates a socket and forks each time it receives a request from a user without limiting the number of connections or requests.

Which of the following security objectives is MOST likely absent in the web server?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Authorization

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Questions 96

For a process that is outside its upper control limit (UCL), which of the following techniques would best be used to return the process under control?

Options:

A.

Conduct a Pareto analysis

B.

Plan-do-check-action (PDCA)

C.

Plot histograms

D.

Monitor control charts

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Questions 97

A security engineer developing software for a professional services organization has a requirement that users cannot have concurrent access to data of clients that are competitors. Which security model should the security engineer implement to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Brewer-Nash

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Biba Integrity

D.

Clark Wilson

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Questions 98

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

Options:

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

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Questions 99

A distribution requirements planning (DRP) system has which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

It treats items in distribution centers (DCs) as dependent demand.

B.

It facilitates the use of pull systems.

C.

It uses standard material requirements planning (MRP) logic.

D.

It uses statistical order point techniques to plan inventory replenishment.

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Questions 100

Which authentication method is used by an email server to verify that a sender’s Internet Protocol (IP) address is authorized to send messages by the sending domain?

Options:

A.

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

B.

Sender policy framework

C.

Pointer record

D.

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)

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Questions 101

When assessing a new vendor as a possible business partner, what would BEST demonstrate that the vendor has a proactive approach to data security compliance?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides documented safeguards in handling confidential data.

B.

The vendor provides a copy of their externally performed risk assessment.

C.

The vendor has a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) in place before work begins.

D.

The vendor has a signed contract in place before work with data begins.

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Questions 102

When designing a production cell, which of the following items would be the most important consideration?

Options:

A.

Theunit per hour requirement for the production cell to meet the sales forecast

B.

Theflow of materials into the cell and sequencing of operations to minimize total cycle time

C.

Theoutput rate for the first operation and move time after the last workstation

D.

Thetakt time requirement for each operator to meet the monthly production goals of the plant

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Questions 103

A firm's cash conversion cycle is most likely to improve when the firm:

Options:

A.

Increases the cash-to-cash cycle time.

B.

Reduces the days sales outstanding (DSO).

C.

Increases the equipment utilization rate.

D.

Extends payment terms to customers.

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Questions 104

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

Options:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

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Questions 105

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

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Questions 106

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is meeting with the external network security evaluation team's blue team leader to confirm the internal system administrator's work schedules, hardware lists, and logistical support for their debriefing. Which of the following would be the MOST likely topic of discussion for the briefing?

Options:

A.

Remediation

B.

Administration

C.

Authorization

D.

Enumeration

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Questions 107

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

Options:

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Questions 108

A web application is found to have SQL injection (SQLI) vulnerabilities. What is the BEST option to remediate?

Options:

A.

Use prepared statements with parameterized queries

B.

Do allow or use Structured Query Language (SQL) within GET methods.

C.

Use substitution variables for all Structure Query Language (SQL) statements.

D.

Do not allow quote characters to be entered.

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Questions 109

Forecast error typically triggers forecast revision when it is:

Options:

A.

used in computing the tracking signal.

B.

associated with the Introduction stage of the product life cycle.

C.

continually increasing.

D.

caused by random variation.

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Questions 110

The cost accountant has discovered a consistent overage in actual run time for one operation. This information should be sent first to the:

Options:

A.

product manager to increase the selling price of the product.

B.

quality manager to add a new quality measurement to the operation.

C.

production supervisor to review and explain the overage.

D.

the engineering manager to evaluate the run time for the routing.

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Questions 111

If fixed costs are §200,000 and 20,000 units are produced, a unit's fixed cost is §10. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

variable costing.

B.

activity-based costing (ABC).

C.

absorption costing.

D.

overhead costing.

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Questions 112

Employees at an organization use web based services provided by an affiliate. Which of the following risks is unique to this situation?

Options:

A.

Watering hole attack

B.

Man-In-Middle (MITM) attack

C.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack

D.

PowerShell attack

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Questions 113

The primary consideration In maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supply systems typically is:

Options:

A.

order quantity.

B.

stockout costs.

C.

carrying costs.

D.

shelf life.

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Questions 114

An example of a cradle-to-cradle sustainability model would be:

Options:

A.

a laundry service collects dirty baby clothes from families; cleans the clothes in large, efficient batches; and then sorts and delivers the clothes back to each family.

B.

a coffee shop collects paper waste in its restaurants, has a selected supplier collect the paper waste to be recycled, and then purchases paper products from that supplier.

C.

a company uses wood that has been gathered from multiple sources to construct items, such as beds and toys for babies and young children.

D.

a bank offers the lowest interest rates on loans to firms that are committed to using recycled materials and implementing zero-waste initiatives in their processes.

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Questions 115

A healthcare organization is preparing an exercise test plan of its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for the Electronic Medical Record (EMR) application. The Business Continuity (BC) analyst is reviewing the requirements of the DRP. The EMR must provide basic charting services within 4 hours, must not lose more than 15 minutes of data, and must be fully functional within 12 hours. At the completion of the exercise, the analyst is preparing a lessons learned report and notes that the EMR was available after 3 hours and 25 minutes of data was lost. Which PRIMARY requirement needs to be addressed because of the exercise?

Options:

A.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

B.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Mean Time to Recovery (MTTR)

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Questions 116

Which of the following should recommendations from a Plan Of Action And Milestones (POA&M) be based on?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Change Control Board (CCB) coordination

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 117

Which of the following is a system architecture in a data protection strategy?

Options:

A.

Logical isolation

B.

Network segmentation

C.

Distributed network

D.

Access enforcement

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Questions 118

An organization is designing a new Disaster Recovery (DR) site. What is the BEST option to harden security of the site?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Natural disaster insurance

C.

Natural surveillance

D.

Territorial reinforcement

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Questions 119

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

Options:

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

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Questions 120

An organization is attempting to address the security risk introduced by employees writing down door entry passcodes. Which of the following security measures BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Privileged Access Management (PAM) policy

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Video log monitoring

D.

Notification alerts

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Questions 121

Which of the following should Business Impact Analysis (BIA) reports always include?

Options:

A.

Security assessment report

B.

Recovery time objectives

C.

Plan of action and milestones

D.

Disaster Recovery Plans (DRP)

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Questions 122

Additional requirements that are outside the original design are being added to a project, increasing the timeline and cost of the project.

What BEST describes the requirement changes that are happening?

Options:

A.

Volatility

B.

Stove-piped requirements

C.

Non-verifiable requirements

D.

Scope creep

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Questions 123

Which of the following tools shows process changes and random variation over time?

Options:

A.

Check sheet

B.

Control chart

C.

Histogram

D.

Pareto analysis

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Questions 124

An organization has decided to advance from qualitative risk assessment to quantitative risk analysis. The information security risk analyst has been tasked with replacing the organization’s qualitative likelihood scale of low, medium, and high with a quantitative approach. Which is the BEST approach for replacing the qualitative input values?

Options:

A.

Estimate the probability of the scenario ever occurring and use that percentage.

B.

Replace the qualitative scale’s thresholds with point percentages (e.g., low = 25%; medium = 50%; high = 75%) and use those percentages.

C.

Replace the qualitative scale’s thresholds with ranges of percentages (e.g., low = 1–33%; medium = 34–66%; high = 67–99%) and use those percentages.

D.

Estimate the probability of the scenario occurring within the following year and use that percentage.

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Questions 125

The primary purpose for engaging in cycle count activities is to:

Options:

A.

eliminate the need for a traditional physical inventory count.

B.

more frequently reconcile the actual on-hand and system on-hand for items.

C.

smooth out the tasks of counting inventory throughout the fiscal year.

D.

improve material handling processes and reduce or eliminate errors.

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Questions 126

A company assembles kits of hand tools after receipt of the order from distributors and uses two-level master scheduling. The appropriate levels of detail for the forecasts that are input to master scheduling would be total number of kits and:

Options:

A.

each unique tool.

B.

percentage of total for each tool.

C.

raw material requirements.

D.

specific kit configurations.

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Questions 127

A part is sold as a service part, and It is also used as a component In another part. Which of the following statements about the planning for this part is true?

Options:

A.

Its low-level code is zero.

B.

The material requirements for the part will be understated.

C.

The service part demand can be included In the gross requirements.

D.

It shouldn’t have any safety stock.

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Questions 128

An organization is planning to streamline its Identity and Access Management (IAM) processes and platform. The executive team mandated a compact platform to efficiently manage identities for internal and third-party services access. What is the BEST platform choice?

Options:

A.

Cloud Single Sign-On (SSO)

B.

On-premise IAM

C.

Cloud IAM

D.

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

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Questions 129

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

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Questions 130

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

Options:

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

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Questions 131

Cloud computing introduces the concept of the shared responsibility model. This model can MOST accurately be described as defining shared responsibility between which of the following?

Options:

A.

Hosts and guest environments

B.

Operating Systems (OS) and applications

C.

Networks and virtual environments

D.

Customers and providers

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Questions 132

Which of the following regarding authentication protocols is a PRIMARY consideration when designing an authentication and key management system?

Options:

A.

Refresh

B.

Visibility

C.

Authorization

D.

Integrity

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Questions 133

An example of a flexibility metric for an organization Is:

Options:

A.

average batch size.

B.

scrap rate.

C.

percentageof orders delivered late.

D.

cycle time.

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Questions 134

Reducing distribution network inventory days of supply will have which of the following Impacts?

Options:

A.

Increase turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

B.

Increase turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

C.

Decrease turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

D.

Decrease turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

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Questions 135

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

Options:

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

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Questions 136

If organizational leadership determines that its required continuous monitoring plan is too costly for the organization, what action should be taken by leadership and the Authorizing Official (AO)?

Options:

A.

Determine if the organization’s risk posture allows the system to operate without the continuous monitoring of the controls in question

B.

Identify and monitor only the technical controls, as they cover the most critical threats to the organization

C.

Ensure that the organization’s Configuration Management (CM) and control processes are documented and executed according to policy

D.

Continue developing the system using a secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) approach and testing, thereby eliminating the need for monitoring the security controls

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Questions 137

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

Options:

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

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Questions 138

An organization starts to develop a drone inspection and defect detection system includes different subsystems running at different clouds from different service providers. During the architectural design phase, which security architecture principle should be the MOST important for the security engineer to apply?

Options:

A.

Security by design

B.

Default deny

C.

Security by default

D.

Security before design

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Questions 139

Which technology is BEST suited to establish a secure communications link between an individual’s home office and the organization’s Local Area Network (LAN)?

Options:

A.

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

B.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

C.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Questions 140

A security assessor has been engaged to perform a penetration test on control system components located on a shipping vessel. The individuals on the ship do not have any knowledge of how the component is configured or its internal workings. Which of the following test types does this scenario call for?

Options:

A.

Tandem testing

B.

Blind testing

C.

Double-gray testing

D.

Double-blind testing

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Questions 141

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach. Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Common configuration enumerations

D.

National vulnerabilities database

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Questions 142

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in a full-scale disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

Sign off by the Chief Information Officer (CIO)

B.

Financial cost of the organization

C.

Business interruption

D.

Available Information Technology (IT) hardware

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Questions 143

Global outsourcing and shared suppliers serving an industry are drivers of which category of risk?

Options:

A.

Supply disruptions

B.

Forecast inaccuracy

C.

Procurement problems

D.

Loss of intellectual property

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Questions 144

A champion is assigned to lead a threat modeling exercise. Which of the following will be the FIRST thing to consider?

Options:

A.

Using an automated tool to construct system models

B.

Outlining a detailed threat modeling procedure

C.

Scheduling weekly threat modeling sessions

D.

Ensuring the right stakeholder are involved

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Questions 145

What is the process when a security assessor compiles potential targets from the attacker’s perspective, such as data flows, and interactions with users?

Options:

A.

Threat categorization

B.

Threat avoidance

C.

Threat acceptance

D.

Threat mitigation

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Questions 146

Which of the following methods most likely Introduces a temporary variance between the inventory balance and the inventory record?

Options:

A.

Inventory write-off

B.

Backflushing

C.

Cycle count

D.

Kanban

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Questions 147

An organization's security policy requires remote hosts to be authenticated before they can access network resources. Which of the following is the BEST option for the organization to enforce its policy?

Options:

A.

Install a firewall.

B.

Implement Internet Protocol (IP) Access Control Lists (ACL).

C.

Implement 802.1X.

D.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).

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Questions 148

The production plan relates to a firm's financial planning because it is used to:

Options:

A.

calculate standard product costs.

B.

determine variable costs.

C.

project payroll costs.

D.

identify future cash needs.

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Questions 149

A security consultant is recommending the implementation of a security-focused Configuration Management (CM) process in an organization. What would be the BEST benefit the security consultant would include in the recommendation?

Options:

A.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with existing security requirements of the organization.

B.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with regulatory requirements placed on an organization.

C.

Security-focused CM surpasses existing security requirements of the organization.

D.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with best practices derived from industry frameworks.

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Questions 150

Which of the following outcomes Is a benefit of mixed-model scheduling?

Options:

A.

Increased inventory

B.

Improved demand response

C.

Fewer setups

D.

Fewer material shortages

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Questions 151

As the organization requires user friendly access to a new web-based application, a software developer decides to implement Single Sign-On (SSO). The developer uses the de-facto standard for web-based applications and the implementation includes the use of a JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) web token. With this information, which is the BEST way for the software developer to establish SSO capability?

Options:

A.

The developer Inputs the user's account, the user's password, and a token.

B.

The developer uses the user's credentials stored within the web-based application.

C.

The developer uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificates and Open ID Connect (OIDC).

D.

The developer uses Open ID Connect (OIDC) and Open Authorization (OAuth).

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Questions 152

Which of the following security techniques can be used to ensure the integrity of software as well as determine who developed the software?

Options:

A.

Independent verification and validation

B.

Code signing

C.

Digital Rights Management (DRM)

D.

Software assessment

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Questions 153

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

Options:

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

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Questions 154

Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is applicable primarily In companies operating In an environment where:

Options:

A.

backlog is very low.

B.

the status of work orders is disregarded.

C.

lean principles are used.

D.

material requirements planning (MRP) is used.

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Questions 155

According to best practice, at which step in the system lifecycle shall a security professional begin involvement?

Options:

A.

Project initiation and planning

B.

Functional requirements and definition

C.

System design specification

D.

Build and document

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Questions 156

Which role is MOST accountable for allocating security function resources in order to initiate the information security governance and risk management policy?

Options:

A.

Project management office

B.

Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

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Questions 157

After reviewing the output of a threat modelling workshop, the development manager decides not to implement the application features where issues were identified. What is the BEST description of how the threats from the workshop are being addressed?

Options:

A.

Eliminated

B.

Mitigated

C.

Transferred

D.

Accepted

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Questions 158

An organization has decided to give decommissioned computers to a school in a developing country. The company data handling policy prohibits the storage of confidential and sensitive data. What would be the BEST technique to use to avoid data remanence, and to minimize the operational burden for the inheriting school?

Options:

A.

Overwriting the hard disk drive of the computers

B.

Encrypting the hard disk drive of the computers

C.

Removing and physically destroying the hard disk drive of the computers

D.

Degaussing the hard disk drive of the computers

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Questions 159

Which security concept states that a subject (user, application, or asset) be given only the access needed to complete a task?

Options:

A.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

B.

Principle of least privilege

C.

Need to know

D.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

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Questions 160

When resolving conflicts, which canon within the ISC2 Code of Ethics requires members to consider duties to principals and Individuals?

Options:

A.

Maintain the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained.

B.

Advance and protect the profession.

C.

Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.

D.

Maintain competency in their respective fields.

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Questions 161

Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) protocol relies on Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). Which can be used maliciously to interrupt the flow of data. Which Information Technology (IT) component would be impacted by such a disruption?

Options:

A.

Firewall.

B.

Switch.

C.

Storage.

D.

Router.

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Questions 162

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

Options:

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

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Questions 163

An executive wants to ensure that risk related to information operations is managed in accordance with the enterprise's risk management thresholds. What is the BEST way to ensure this consistently occurs?

Options:

A.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to corporate officers.

B.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to cybersecurity analysts.

C.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to business unit managers.

D.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to system administrators.

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Questions 164

An organization’s security team is looking at ways to minimize the security risk of the container infrastructure. The lead engineer needs to select a suite of remediation actions to minimize risks. Which programmatic approach will result in preventing, detecting , and responding to the GREATEST number of threats aimed at container operations?

Options:

A.

Use of hardware-based countermeasures to provide a basis for trusted computing

B.

Use of container-aware runtime defense tools

C.

Grouping containers with the same sensitivity level on a single host

D.

Adoption of container-specific vulnerability management tools

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Questions 165

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live.

What is the organization's BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

B.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor’s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

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Questions 166

A forecasting method that responds slowly to changes in demand would be most appropriate when the historical demand pattern shows a:

Options:

A.

Minor seasonal component

B.

Major seasonal component

C.

Minor random component

D.

Major random component

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Questions 167

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

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Questions 168

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

B.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

C.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

D.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

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Questions 169

A customer of a financial Institution denies that a transaction occurred. Which of the following is used to provide evidence evidence that the customer performed the transaction?

Options:

A.

Authorization controls

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Non-repudiation controls

D.

Access audit

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Questions 170

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial services organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

B.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology (NIST) and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

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Questions 171

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

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Questions 172

When developing information security policies, What is the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business requirements

B.

Compliance with legal requirements

C.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

D.

Compliance with international standards

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Questions 173

An information security auditor is creating an audit program to assess endpoint security controls for portable storage media movement. Which type of control will MOST likely be part of the program?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Device control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Network control

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Questions 174

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

Options:

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

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Questions 175

An organization received a notification from a Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) provider that one of its products will no longer be supported. Using obsolescence progression stages, which of the following risk trigger points was activated in this case?

Options:

A.

End of Life (EOL)

B.

End of Maintenance

C.

End of Service Life (EOSL)

D.

End of Repair

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Exam Code: CPIM-8.0
Exam Name: Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)
Last Update: Feb 4, 2026
Questions: 585

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