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CS0-004 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CySA+ V4 (New Version) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is the best reason to heavily segment business-critical assets from within the network?

Options:

A.

Legacy systems

B.

Degraded functionality

C.

Asset obfuscation

D.

Proprietary server

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Questions 5

An analyst needs to perform a baseline security evaluation of the company's cloud infrastructure.

Which of the following tools is most appropriate for this task?

Options:

A.

Open Vulnerability Assessment Scanner (OpenVAS)

B.

Nikto

C.

ScoutSuite

D.

Metasploit

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Questions 6

A vendor releases details of a new vulnerability. When an analyst reviews the scheduled scans, no vulnerabilities are identified. The vulnerability is only discovered after a configuration change.

Which of the following scan types did the analyst configure?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Credentialed

C.

Agent-based

D.

Network

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Questions 7

A public threat intelligence report includes indicators of compromise (IoCs) for threat actors. The threat actors are exploiting a zero-day vulnerability that the vendor has not fixed.

Which of the following techniques should be used until a patch is available?

Options:

A.

Sinkholing

B.

Eradication techniques

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Evidence acquisition

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the most comprehensive type of report associated with a closed incident?

Options:

A.

Lessons-learned

B.

Situation

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

After action

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Questions 9

Which of the following actions should an incident response analyst take during the recovery phase of the incident response process?

Options:

A.

Verify that malicious activity has occurred.

B.

Reimage the disk.

C.

Take the system offline.

D.

Write the final report.

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Questions 10

An analyst prepares an after action report following an incident in which multiple systems were compromised over several days.

The analyst provides raw event logs from each compromised system in the report and determines that a patient-zero system cannot be found.

Which of the following should the analyst do to determine the patient-zero system?

Options:

A.

Establish an accurate timeline of events.

B.

Enable monitoring on the compromised systems.

C.

Isolate the compromised systems before remediation.

D.

Improve the content for incident updates during shift handoff.

E.

Perform a reverse composition analysis on malware packages.

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Questions 11

An incident response team identifies a malicious uniform resource locator (URL) associated with a required business process and performs the following activities:

• Access to the URL has been restricted only to the necessary users through firewall rules and Cloud Security Group rules.

• Additional monitoring has been enabled for traffic related to that site and the allowed users.

• All application servers that need to access that site have been patched with the latest security and software updates.

• Application owners have been notified of the severity and need to remediate this reported issue.

Which of the following best describes the overall mitigation the security team is performing?

Options:

A.

Patching solutions

B.

Configuration management

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Attack surface management

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Questions 12

Which of the following contains stakeholder contact information for incident response reporting?

Options:

A.

The company organization chart

B.

The communication plan

C.

The last incident report

D.

The standard operating procedures

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Questions 13

An analyst executes the top command on a Linux system for an unresponsive application and observes the following output:

CS0-004 Question 13

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

Service disruption

B.

Unauthorized software

C.

Resource exhaustion

D.

Filesystem changes

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Questions 14

A vulnerability analyst conducts a security assessment on the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) security posture within the environment.

The analyst issues the following command for the assessment: nmap -p 3389 --script rdp* 10.0.0.0/24 The analyst receives responses, which are divided into one of the two categories, from 13 out of the 254 hosts:

CS0-004 Question 14

Which of the following conclusions can the analyst make about the output on Category 2?

Options:

A.

The systems are joined to an Active Directory domain and using New Technology LAN Manager (NTLM) as an authentication method.

B.

The systems are not joined to an Active Directory domain and are using Kerberos as an authentication method.

C.

The systems are not joined to an Active Directory domain and are using NTLM as an authentication method.

D.

The systems are joined to an Active Directory domain and are using Kerberos as an authentication method.

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Questions 15

A security team reviews a penetration testing report of a web application that contains multiple cross-site scripting (XSS) and Structured Query Language injection (SQLi) vulnerabilities.

Which of the following is most likely causing these to occur?

Options:

A.

Misconfigured web application firewall (WAF)

B.

Lack of secure input validation

C.

Lack of a Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Strict Transport Security (HSTS) header

D.

Lack of endpoint protection in the environment

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Questions 16

Which of the following best describes a type of risk that exists after mitigations or controls are enacted and implemented?

Options:

A.

Residual

B.

Acceptable

C.

Inherent

D.

Appropriate

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Questions 17

A security team deploys a new scanning solution that requires root, domain administrator, and local server administrator permissions on all systems.

Which of the following is the best way to help mitigate the risk for this level of access?

Options:

A.

Enabling single sign-on for all administrators

B.

Integrating token-based authentication using a privileged access management (PAM) solution

C.

Using temporary, one-time passwords as part of the login process

D.

Configuring agentless scanning for critical targets

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Questions 18

An analyst performs Nmap scans to determine which hosts may need to be targeted to deploy a critical Windows patch. The patch for the vulnerability is to address a critical security flaw that targets open Server Message Block (SMB) ports on Windows systems only.

The analyst scans with the following command:

CS0-004 Question 18

$sudo nmap -Pn 10.203.10.0/24

The analyst then receives the following output:

Which of the following hosts should the analyst prioritize for patching?

Options:

A.

10.203.10.11

B.

10.203.10.12

C.

10.203.10.13

D.

10.203.10.16

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Questions 19

Which of the following best explains the purpose of the Pyramid of Pain in threat intelligence?

Options:

A.

To show that changing to different types of indicators and behaviors is difficult for an adversary

B.

To measure how much operational damage a threat actor can cause before detection occurs

C.

To compare open-source intelligence (OSINT) with closed-source intelligence based on collection cost

D.

To organize attack activity into categories such as spoofing, tampering, and repudiation

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Questions 20

The vulnerability management team must scan the cloud environment to establish security baselines.

Which of the following assessment tools should the team use to perform this task?

Options:

A.

Metasploit

B.

Prowler

C.

Maltego

D.

Caldera

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Questions 21

An incident response team investigates a possible data leak. Various IT systems collect evidence.

Which of the following processes is required to ensure that evidentiary artifacts are properly recorded?

Options:

A.

Packaging and labeling

B.

Chain of custody

C.

Post incident reporting

D.

Storage and containment

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the main concept behind the use of an attack methodology framework?

Options:

A.

Implementing continuous monitoring and rapid deployment of system fixes over the traditional patch, test, and deploy approach

B.

Prioritizing vulnerabilities that can be exploited based on risk calculations and using the consequences and likelihood of the exploits to determine where resources should be allocated

C.

Approaching cybersecurity from the perspective of a threat actor and using their common behaviors and motivations to identify secure solutions

D.

Applying a Zero Trust environment by assuming networks and systems are vulnerable to malicious actions by both external, hostile adversaries and insider threats

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Questions 23

A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

CS0-004 Question 23

Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

Options:

A.

Perform log correlation.

B.

Reset user credentials.

C.

Restore files from backup.

D.

Establish a timeline.

E.

Establish a legal hold.

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Questions 24

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is requiring users to phase out a legacy system that no longer receives security updates because the system will be decommissioned soon.

Which of the following risk management strategies is the CIO using?

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Acceptance

D.

Transference

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Exam Code: CS0-004
Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CySA+ V4 (New Version)
Last Update: Aug 22, 2026
Questions: 82

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