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CSC2 Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is a characteristic of provincial savings bonds?

Options:

A.

Backed by provincial assets

B.

Available only at a certain time

C.

Can be issued Internationally.

D.

Mature every six months

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Questions 5

What is a characteristic of an investment firm’s liability traders?

Options:

A.

They are responsible for managing the dealer’s trading capital to encourage market flows.

B.

They have a limited amount of flexibility in the strategies they employ.

C.

They improve liquidity to the market and increase trading volumes.

D.

They have large client commitments.

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CSC2 Report Card

Questions 6

How are monthly Canada Pension Plan (CPP) benefits treated when both spouses are eligible for CPP?

Options:

A.

Each spouse receives the higher pension amount.

B.

Each spouse can only receive their own benefits.

C.

Each spouse receives the lower pension amount.

D.

Each spouse can share a portion of the total pension amount.

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Questions 7

A portfolio manager at an investment firm is analyzing the behavior of stocks in various market conditions. They believe markets are efficient and that all public and non-public and non-public available information is fully reflected in current process. How should the construct their investment portfolio?

Options:

A.

Create a passive investment portfolio with exchange- traded funds.

B.

Use both fundamental and technical analysis to add value to the portfolio.

C.

Use technical analysis to review all past price movements and trends.

D.

Actively buy and sell stocks in an attempt to beat the stock market’s average returns.

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Questions 8

What does a simplified prospectus typically allow a fund company to do?

Options:

A.

Quality one or more mutual funds for sale.

B.

Provide up-to-date holding information to the public.

C.

Replace the financial reporting documents.

D.

To quality a real property funds for sale.

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Questions 9

What is the reason for an individual to use an estate freeze?

Options:

A.

Eliminate probate fees

B.

Reduces asset price volatility

C.

Transfer control of the assets.

D.

Limit the tax liability for future growth

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Questions 10

What type of return is adjusted for inflation?

Options:

A.

Ex-ante

B.

Nominal

C.

Ex-post

D.

Real

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Questions 11

What typically causes a designated broker to remove ETF units from the market?

Options:

A.

A client sells on the exchange.

B.

The broker delivers the basket of shares to the ETF provider.

C.

Demand of an ETF outstrips supply.

D.

There are arbitrage opportunities with the ETF price.

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Questions 12

John is a wealthy investor who frequently travels internationally. Why would a non-managed fee-based account be unsuitable for a client like John?

Options:

A.

Frequent meetings with the advisor are required

B.

Higher trading fees due to the one-on-one client-advisor relationship

C.

Clients must approve all trades

D.

Lack of customization to client needs

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Questions 13

For what type of company is the dividend discount model least applicable?

Options:

A.

One with changing dividend payments and a stable dividend growth rate.

B.

One with stable dividend payments and a stable dividend growth rate.

C.

One with stable dividend payments and a fluctuating dividend growth rate.

D.

One with changing dividend payments and a fluctuating dividend growth rate.

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Questions 14

Which type of ETF could incur roll yield loss?

Options:

A.

Index-based.

B.

Futures-based.

C.

Physical-based.

D.

Equity-based.

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Questions 15

What is one at the most important factors to determine how much of a product people buy or sell in a given marketplace?

Options:

A.

Consumer satisfaction

B.

Government spending

C.

Price level

D.

Maximized profits

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Questions 16

What industry stocks tend to have lower betas than the market?

Options:

A.

Transportation

B.

Capital goods

C.

Utilities

D.

Automobiles and components

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Questions 17

Which will taxed at the taxpayer’ marginal tax rate?

Options:

A.

Dividends from foreign corporations.

B.

Domestic property valued over $100,00.

C.

Dividends not eligible for the divided tax credit.

D.

Foreign property valued under $100,000

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Questions 18

What is the Sharpe ratio given the following information?

CSC2 Question 18

Options:

A.

1.5

B.

0.4

C.

20

D.

2.5

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Questions 19

In a multi-mandate managed account, who sets the overall optimal asset mix?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Sub-advisor

C.

Client

D.

Overlay manager

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Questions 20

Omar invests $5,000 in a labour-sponsored venture capital corporation (LSVCC) in Ontario, his province of residence. What is the total LSVCC tax credit that Omar is eligible to receive from this investment?

Options:

A.

$1,500

B.

$750

C.

$1,625

D.

$875

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Questions 21

What investment option is classified as a fixed-income asset?

Options:

A.

Preferred share.

B.

Rental property.

C.

Real estate investment trust security.

D.

Hedge fund.

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Questions 22

When acting as a principal, how do investment dealers generate revenue?

Options:

A.

Through commissions

B.

Thrown tracers.

C.

Through brokerage changes.

D.

Through spreads on buy/sell prices.

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Questions 23

Which individual is most likely to have income as an investment objective?

Options:

A.

Elaine, who is contributing to an RRSP with a plan to use the funds for the Lifelong Learning Plan in seven years.

B.

Naveed, who plans to use his investments to buy a house in five years.

C.

Hira, who is investing in her RRSP in anticipation of retirement in 15 years.

D.

Andrew, who is retired and needs to supplement his retirement pension.

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Questions 24

What product intrinsically minimizes taxable events?

Options:

A.

Index-based ETF.

B.

Mortgage-backed security.

C.

Asset-backed commercial paper.

D.

Mutual fund.

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Questions 25

In March of this year, a client buys 1,000 PIL inc, common shares at $16 per share and pays a commission of $25 on the purchase. Several months later in the same year, the client sell the shares at $12 per share and pays commission of $50 on the sale. What is the client’s allowable capital loss on the transaction?

Options:

A.

$2,038

B.

$2,025

C.

$1,925

D.

$2,013

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Questions 26

During which step of the financial planning process should an engagement be formalized with a professional service contract?

Options:

A.

Implement recommendations.

B.

Establish the client-advisor relationship.

C.

Recommend strategies to meet goals.

D.

Collect data and information.

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Questions 27

What is a key characteristic of an actively managed product that might interest an investor?

Options:

A.

Assumes only systematic risk.

B.

Potential to outperform the market.

C.

Low fees.

D.

Access to money at any time.

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Questions 28

What does a fundamental analyst believe that is contrary to the beliefs of a technical analyst?

Options:

A.

History repeats itself.

B.

Fiscal policy, monetary policy and inflation may be analyzed.

C.

The movements in price movements must be studied.

D.

The profitability of the issuer is paramount.

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Questions 29

What is a restriction that a mutual fund manager must follow?

Options:

A.

Adherence to maximum exposure limits for short selling

B.

Purchases of no more than 20% of the net assets in the securities of a single issuer

C.

Limit of no more than 30% on purchases of net assets in companies engaged in the same industry

D.

No purchases of shares in the manager ' s own company allowed

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Questions 30

What information is an investor unable to retrieve through the SEDAR+ website?

Options:

A.

Interim financial statements.

B.

Annual information form.

C.

Annual report.

D.

Registration information for dealers.

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Questions 31

What is the key objective for investors in alternative strategy funds?

Options:

A.

To match the performance of a reference index.

B.

To maximize risk-adjusted returns.

C.

To achieve absolute returns

D.

To exceed the current rate of inflation.

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Questions 32

What is a typical characteristic of managed fee-based accounts?

Options:

A.

They provide services to the client only on investment management.

B.

The fees are fixed and non-negotiable.

C.

The manager is a licensed portfolio manager with trading authority over the account.

D.

The fees for registered accounts are tax-deductible.

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Questions 33

What item compares the expected return of the market portfolio to the riskless rate?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Risk premium

C.

Alpha

D.

Variance

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Questions 34

What is the normal shape of a yield curve?

Options:

A.

Downward slope

B.

inverted

C.

Upward slops

D.

Humped

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Questions 35

Which type of market participant is generally regulated as an alternative trading system?

Options:

A.

Venture exchange

B.

Pink sheets

C.

Dark pool

D.

Over-the-counter bulletin board.

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Questions 36

When considering management accounts, what is most accurate regarding model-based account management?

Options:

A.

It is only intended for short-term use.

B.

It requires solicitation.

C.

It permits tax loss selling.

D.

It requires client permission before executing trades.

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Questions 37

A financial institution is selling their pooled mortgages to a Special Purpose Vehicle. What process are they engaging in?

Options:

A.

Merger strategy.

B.

Asset securitization.

C.

Share splitting.

D.

Credit spread arbitrage.

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Questions 38

What is the main benefit of investing in preferred shares?

Options:

A.

Priority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.

B.

Priority to claim assets ahead of debt holders.

C.

Higher potential for capital appreciation than common shares.

D.

Guaranteed dividend payment.

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Questions 39

What type of return is calculated for a security held for 18 months if no adjustments to the return are made?

Options:

A.

Effective rate of return.

B.

Nominal rate of return.

C.

Annualized total return.

D.

Holding period return.

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Questions 40

What is typically a key tax attribute of dividends?

Options:

A.

Dividend income is taxed more preferentially than interest income.

B.

Dividends from preferred shares are ineligible tot dividend tax credit.

C.

Stock dividends are treated differently than regular cash dividends for tax purposes.

D.

Reinvested dividends are non-taxable to the shareholders.

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Questions 41

Yusef is a high-net-worth individual who wants to diversify his portfolio with private equity but is concerned with the potential disadvantages of this asset class. What disadvantage should Yusef be considering as a potential private equity investor?

Options:

A.

Private equity excludes investment from private debt

B.

Private equity companies are not listed on stock exchanges

C.

Private equity is a high-risk investment

D.

Private equity typically provides lower long-term returns than other asset classes

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Questions 42

What document must be provided to an investor before they purchase a mutual fund?

Options:

A.

The annual information form.

B.

A simplified prospectus.

C.

A Fund Facts document.

D.

The annual audited statements.

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Questions 43

What happens if a company ' s dividend payout ratio exceeds 100%?

Options:

A.

The company will be unable to repay its debts

B.

Profits will be reduced

C.

Shareholders ' equity will be eroded

D.

The share price will increase

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Questions 44

How does beta help assess the risk of a mutual fund?

Options:

A.

Compares management expense ratios.

B.

Monitors trading volumes.

C.

Measures comparative performance.

D.

Relates its returns to the underlying markets.

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Questions 45

Which type of trader specializes in managing block trades on behalf of institution clients?

Options:

A.

Responsible designated trader.

B.

Agency trader

C.

Liability trader

D.

Market maker

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Questions 46

What is most likely true of a portfolio that is managed from a value basis?

Options:

A.

Portfolio turnover is high, so investors can expect to incur frequent capital gains

B.

The portfolio will realize higher dividend yields than a growth equity portfolio

C.

Stock selections tend to have a higher beta than those chosen by a growth manager

D.

This portfolio style tends to perform best in up markets, with minimal gains in down markets

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Questions 47

Tom sold some bonds in his RRSP and used the total $100,000 in proceeds to buy a 75% guaranteed segregated fund. Three years later, Tom died. At the time of his death, the market value of the segregated fund was $700,000. Assuming no interim withdrawal on market value reset, what is the death benefit payable from this investment?

Options:

A.

$0,

B.

$70,000

C.

$30,000

D.

$5, 000

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Questions 48

What is a structured product?

Options:

A.

A mortgage loan.

B.

A principle-protected note.

C.

An equity index.

D.

A credit card receivable

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Questions 49

Which investor right must be disclosed in a Fund Fact document?

Options:

A.

Investors have the right to rescind the purchase if these is misrepresentation in the document.

B.

Investors have a right to withdrawal from their purchase within 24 hours after confirmation of the purchase is received.

C.

Investors can request a paper copy of the simplified prospectus for a small charge.

D.

Investors have the right to act or claim damages without any limitation.

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Questions 50

The Bank of Canada uses an operating band to help manage the oversight rate. How wide is the operating Band?

Options:

A.

25 basis points

B.

75 basis points

C.

50 basis points

D.

100 basis points.

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Questions 51

What information must be disclosed in ETF Facts documents that may be excluded from Fund Facts documents?

Options:

A.

The management fee

B.

The total value of all units within the fund

C.

The investment exposure.

D.

The market price and bid-ask spread.

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Questions 52

What action must an investment advisor take when submitting a trade ticket for a short sale?

Options:

A.

Verify the client can borrow the shares.

B.

Mark the sell-order ticket as a short sate

C.

Obtain minimum margin amount from client

D.

Mark it as a margin order

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Questions 53

What are examples of primary investment objectives?

Options:

A.

Growth and preservation of capital

B.

Tax minimization and safety of principal.

C.

Marketability and growth of capital.

D.

Marketability and tax minimization.

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Questions 54

For a market capitalization-weighted ETF focused on the S & P/TSX Composite Index, what is likely the greatest contributor to underperformance relative to the reference index?

Options:

A.

Liquidity.

B.

Fees.

C.

Rebalancing.

D.

Cash drag.

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Questions 55

What is the objective of a relative value strategy?

Options:

A.

To eliminate market risk by combining securities with perfect negative correlation

B.

To assume a net long position by combining both long and short positions on a basket of securities

C.

To exploit market price inefficiencies by simultaneously taking matched long and short positions

D.

To take long positions in convertible bond securities paired with long positions in equities

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Questions 56

What obligation dues an IA have when communicating information about a preliminary prospectus to prospective investors?

Options:

A.

The IA must ensure 3 proxy is mailed to the investors to vote for approval or disapproval of the offering.

B.

The IA must provide a greensheet

C.

The IA must make a tombstone advertisement.

D.

The IA mum record the names addresses of those who have requested and received a preliminary prospectus

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Questions 57

What is an example of an activity that is restricted in a mutual fund?

Options:

A.

The purchase of 6% of net assets in the securities of a single issuer.

B.

The purchase of a put option on an equity index.

C.

The purchase of a silver futures contract.

D.

The purchase of an ETF, while netting out the fees.

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Questions 58

Jerry sells Company A’s regular bond because the thinks it is overvalued. Using the proceeds from the sale, jerry then busy Company A’s convertible bond because the thinks that the equity component is undervalued and that he convertible bond’s coupon rate is relatively attractive given his forecast of falling interest rates. What fixed-come management style is jerry most likely using?

Options:

A.

Market timing.

B.

Interest rate anticipation.

C.

Bond swap

D.

Immunization

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Questions 59

What is the requirement regarding the discretionary authority in managed accounts?

Options:

A.

The IA can implement the transaction upon approval from the client, or by any person on a client’s behalf.

B.

The discretionary authority must be given by the client in writing and accepted by the IA verbally.

C.

The IA must use a model portfolio due to the short-term nature of these types of accounts.

D.

The discretionary authority must specify the client’s investment objectives in the trading authorization.

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Questions 60

What is a disadvantage of fee-based accounts when compared to commission-based accounts?

Options:

A.

There may be a limit to the number of trades permitted.

B.

The advisor may be more inclined to do more frequent trading.

C.

The advisor may be unable to provide a broad range of services to clients.

D.

There is a more restricted selection of investment opportunities.

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Questions 61

In Canada, which industries are categorized as defensive?

Options:

A.

Baking and materials

B.

Energy and materials.

C.

Energy and utilities.

D.

Banking and utilities.

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Questions 62

What is the primary goal of a buy-side trader?

Options:

A.

To provide pertinent and timely information to the head of fixed-income and equity markets.

B.

To remain informed at all times of the portfolio manager ' s detailed investment strategy.

C.

To execute the portfolio manager ' s trades at the best prices available in the market at the time of the trade.

D.

To maintain good, professional relationships with sales and trading staff of dealers with whom the firm does business.

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Questions 63

What is the likely outcome at the end of a five-year term of a rate-reset preferred share if the issuer does not redeem the shares?

Options:

A.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for a specified number of common shares.

B.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for a fixed-rate preferred share.

C.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for an unsecured bond

D.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for a floating-rate preferred share

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Questions 64

Companies W, X, Y, and Z ail issue preferred shares and have experienced the following conditions

Over the last five years:

CSC2 Question 64

Based on the above, which company is most likely to experience an increase in the market price of its preferred shares?

Options:

A.

Company W.

B.

Company Z.

C.

Company Y.

D.

Company X.

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Questions 65

Which regulatory body is responsible for the surveillance of trading and market-related activities of participants on Canadian equity marketplaces?

Options:

A.

OBSI

B.

OSFI

C.

CIRO

D.

CSA

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Questions 66

What actions can a government take to lower a $40 billion national deficit?

Options:

A.

Increase taxation

B.

Increase government spending.

C.

Decrease taxation

D.

Increase interest rates.

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Questions 67

What economic outcome does the government set out to achieve by increasing their own spending?

Options:

A.

To create inflationary pressure.

B.

To increase the spending power of individuals.

C.

To boost business profits and common share prices.

D.

To stimulate the economy in the short run.

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Questions 68

For buy-side institutional investors, what is the purpose of algorithmic trading?

Options:

A.

To consolidate a large number of individual trades into a single trade to reduce the market impact.

B.

To optimize the order execution of small trades.

C.

To optimize the order execution of a large block of shares by breaking it up into smaller trades.

D.

To reduce overall trading order execution costs.

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Questions 69

Which type of mutual funds tend to have the lowest management fees?

Options:

A.

Asset allocation

B.

Small cap

C.

Bond

D.

Index

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Exam Code: CSC2
Exam Name: Canadian Securities Course Exam 2
Last Update: Jul 4, 2026
Questions: 232

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