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CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

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Questions 5

CTFL-Foundation Question 5

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Questions 6

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Questions 7

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

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Questions 8

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

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Questions 9

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

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Questions 10

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Options:

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Questions 11

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

CTFL-Foundation Question 11

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

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Questions 12

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Questions 13

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

Options:

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Questions 14

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

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Questions 16

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Questions 17

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

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Questions 18

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

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Questions 19

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

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Questions 20

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

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Questions 21

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Questions 22

CTFL-Foundation Question 22

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

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Questions 23

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

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Questions 24

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

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Questions 25

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Questions 26

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

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Questions 27

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

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Questions 28

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

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Questions 29

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

Options:

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Questions 30

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Questions 31

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Questions 32

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

Options:

A.

To be based on specifications

B.

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

C.

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

D.

To include both functional and non-functional testing

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Questions 33

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Questions 34

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Questions 35

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Questions 36

Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

Options:

A.

The number of staff available to execute tests

B.

The level of detail in the test plan

C.

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

D.

The test estimation method used

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Questions 37

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 38

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

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Questions 39

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Questions 40

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Questions 41

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Options:

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Questions 42

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

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Questions 43

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Options:

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

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Questions 44

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Questions 45

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 45

Options:

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

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Questions 46

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 47

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Options:

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 48

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Options:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

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Questions 49

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Questions 50

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

Options:

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

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Questions 51

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B.

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

C.

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

D.

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

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Questions 53

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Questions 54

Which is not the testing objective?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

C.

Preventing defects.

D.

Debugging defects

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Questions 55

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Questions 56

Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as..?

Options:

A.

functional automation tools

B.

performance testing tools

C.

configuration management tools

D.

none of the above

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Questions 57

Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.

B.

Test cases are derived systematically from the tester's experience.

C.

Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

D.

Test cases are derived from the developers' experience.

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Questions 58

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

Options:

A.

Correction of defects during the development phase.

B.

Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.

C.

Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.

D.

Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

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Questions 59

A software component has the code shown below:

Program BiggestA,

Biggest: Integer

Begin

Read A

Biggest = 10

While A > 0

Do

If A > Biggest

Then Biggest = A

Endif

Read A

Enddo

End

The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage. Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?

Options:

A.

0

B.

10, 0

C.

10, 5, 0

D.

10, 11, 0

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Questions 60

Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase..?

Options:

A.

Schedules and deliverables

B.

Hardware and software

C.

Entry and exit criteria

D.

Types of test cases

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Questions 61

Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?

Options:

A.

Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.

B.

Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.

C.

Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.

D.

Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.

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Questions 62

Which of the following are static techniques?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough.

B.

State transition testing.

C.

Decision table testing.

D.

Statement testing.

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Questions 63

Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

Options:

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.

C.

Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.

D.

Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

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Questions 64

The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.

i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.

ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.

iii. Designing the test environment set-up.

iv. Developing and prioritizing test cases.

v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.

Which statement below is TRUE?

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

B.

(i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

C.

(i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.

D.

(i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

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Questions 65

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.

(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.

(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.

(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.

(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.

Options:

A.

(i), (ii), (vi).

B.

(ii), (iii), (v).

C.

(i), (iv), (v).

D.

(i), (iii), (v).

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Questions 66

Consider the following pseudo code:

1 Begin

2 Read Time

3 If Time < 12 Then

4 Print(Time, "am")

5 Endif

6 If Time > 12 Then

7 Print(Time −12, "pm")

8 Endif

9 If Time = 12 Then

10 Print (Time, "noon")

11 Endif

12 End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 67

Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

B.

The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards.

C.

Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system.

D.

Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.

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Questions 68

Statement Coverage will not check for the following:

Options:

A.

Missing Statements

B.

Unused Branches

C.

Dead Code

D.

Unused Statement

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Questions 69

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Options:

A.

Use automation tool for testing

B.

Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

C.

Both a and b

D.

None of the above

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Questions 70

What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execution tools?

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools find defects earlier in the life cycle.

B.

Static analysis tools can be used before code is written.

C.

Static analysis tools test that the delivered code meets business requirements.

D.

Static analysis tools are particularly effective for regression testing.

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Questions 71

According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

Options:

A.

To verify the success of corrective actions.

B.

To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.

C.

To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.

D.

To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

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Questions 72

Boundary value testing:

Options:

A.

Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

B.

Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

C.

Tests combinations of input circumstances

D.

Is used in white box testing strategy

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Questions 73

Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

Options:

A.

Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.

B.

Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.

C.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

D.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

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Questions 74

Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

Options:

A.

Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.

B.

The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.

C.

Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.

D.

The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

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Questions 75

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

Options:

A.

Informal review.

B.

Management review.

C.

Inspection.

D.

Walkthrough

E.

Technical Review

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Questions 76

When is testing complete?

Options:

A.

When time and budget are exhausted.

B.

When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.

C.

When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding.

D.

When every data combination has been exercised successfully.

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Questions 77

Which of the following is true of iterative development?

Options:

A.

It uses fully defined specifications from the start.

B.

It involves the users in the testing throughout.

C.

Changes to the system do not need to be formally recorded.

D.

It is not suitable for developing websites.

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Questions 78

Which of the following is the odd one out..?

Options:

A.

White box

B.

Glass box

C.

Structural

D.

Functional

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Questions 79

Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Kick-off, review meeting, planning, follow-up.

B.

Kick-off, planning, review meeting, re-work.

C.

Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting.

D.

Planning, individual preparation, follow-up, re-work.

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Questions 80

What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

Options:

A.

The types of test techniques to be employed.

B.

The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.

C.

An estimation of the total cost of testing.

D.

Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.

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Questions 81

Which of the following is most likely to be a benefit of using static techniques?

Options:

A.

Fewer performance defects.

B.

Productivity improvements in the development process.

C.

More efficient regression testing.

D.

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Exam Code: CTFL-Foundation
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
Last Update: Jun 12, 2025
Questions: 272

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