DS0-001 CompTIA DataSys+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

The property that addresses this concern is durability. Durability is one of the four properties (ACID) that ensure reliable transactions in a database system. Durability means that once a transaction has been committed, its effects are permanent and will not be lost in case of system failure, power outage, crash, etc. Durability can be achieved by using techniques such as write-ahead logging, checkpoints, backup and recovery, etc. The other options are either not related or not specific to this concern. For example, isolation means that concurrent transactions do not interfere with each other and produce consistent results; atomicity means that a transaction is either executed as a whole or not at all; consistency means that a transaction preserves the validity and integrity of the data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.3 Given a scenario, identify common database issues.

The correct answers are C. Entity Framework and E. Hibernate. CompTIA DataSys+ defines Object-Relational Mapping (ORM) tools as software frameworks that allow developers to interact with relational databases using object-oriented programming concepts instead of writing raw SQL queries. ORM tools map database tables to application objects, rows to object instances, and columns to object attributes, simplifying database access and improving developer productivity.

Entity Framework is a widely used ORM tool in the Microsoft ecosystem, commonly paired with .NET applications. It enables developers to define data models in code and allows the framework to automatically generate SQL queries, manage relationships, and handle CRUD (Create, Read, Update, Delete) operations. DataSys+ highlights ORM tools like Entity Framework as a way to reduce repetitive SQL coding while maintaining consistency and abstraction between application logic and the database layer.

Hibernate is a popular ORM framework used primarily in Java-based applications. Similar to Entity Framework, Hibernate manages database interactions by mapping Java objects to relational database structures. It handles SQL generation, transaction management, and caching, making it a core example of an ORM solution referenced in DataSys+ learning objectives.

Option A, PL/SQL, and option D, T-SQL, are procedural SQL languages, not ORM tools. They are used to write stored procedures, functions, and scripts that execute directly within the database. Option B, XML, is a data format used for data representation and exchange, not for object-relational mapping. Option F, PHP, is a general-purpose programming language that can use ORM tools but is not itself an ORM framework.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes understanding the distinction between database languages, programming languages, and abstraction frameworks like ORMs. Entity Framework and Hibernate clearly fit the definition of ORM tools by bridging object-oriented applications and relational databases.

Therefore, the correct and fully verified answers are C and E.

The SQL syntax that the administrator should use to create an object is option B. This syntax uses the CREATE TABLE statement to define a new table named customer with four columns: customer_id, name, email, and phone. Each column has a data type and a constraint, such as NOT NULL or PRIMARY KEY. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect keywords, or do not specify the table name or columns correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

The document that should be used to analyze the database’s structure is an ERD. An ERD, or Entity Relationship Diagram, is a graphical representation of the entities (tables), attributes (columns), and relationships (constraints) in a database. An ERD helps to visualize the structure and design of the database, as well as the dependencies and associations among the tables. An ERD can also help to evaluate the level of normalization of the database, which is a process that organizes data into tables and columns to reduce redundancy and improve consistency. By using an ERD, a database professional can consider denormalizing a database, which is a process that introduces some redundancy or duplication of data to improve performance or simplify queries. The other options are either different types of documents or not related to the database’s structure. For example, an SOP, or Standard Operating Procedure, is a document that describes the steps and procedures for performing a specific task or operation; a data dictionary is a document that describes the metadata (information about data) of a database; a UML diagram is a graphical representation of a software system or its components using the Unified Modeling Language (UML). References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The administrator should use peer-to-peer replication to achieve this objective. Peer-to-peer replication is a type of replication that allows data to be distributed across multiple database instances that are equal partners, or peers. Each peer can read and write data that will be synchronized across all peers. This provides high availability, scalability, and load balancing for the application. The other options are either not suitable for this scenario or do not support bidirectional data synchronization. For example, failover clustering provides high availability but does not distribute the workload across multiple instances; log shipping provides disaster recovery but does not allow writing data to secondary instances; availability groups provide high availability and read-only access to secondary replicas but do not support peer-to-peer replication. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement replication of database management systems.

The correct answer is A. Columnstore. According to CompTIA DataSys+, a columnstore index stores data in a column-oriented, tabular structure, where each column of a table is stored separately rather than storing entire rows together. This design is particularly optimized for analytical and reporting workloads, which commonly scan large datasets and perform aggregations on specific columns.

In a columnstore index, data is logically still represented in a table-like (tabular) format, but physically organized by columns instead of rows. This allows the database engine to read only the required columns for a query, significantly reducing disk I/O and improving query performance. DataSys+ highlights columnstore indexes as a best practice for data warehousing, business intelligence, and read-heavy analytical queries.

Option B, a non-clustered index, stores a separate index structure that contains indexed column values and pointers to the underlying table rows. While it improves lookup performance, it does not store data in a tabular columnar format. Option C, a unique index, is a constraint-based index that enforces uniqueness on column values but does not define how data is physically stored. Option D, a secondary index, is a general term for indexes that are not primary and does not specifically describe column-based tabular storage.

Sys+ emphasizes understanding different index types and their appropriate use cases. Columnstore indexes are distinct because they physically reorganize data by columns, compress data efficiently, and support high-performance analytics. This makes them especially effective in scenarios involving large datasets and complex queries.

Therefore, the index type that stores records in a tabular, column-oriented format is the columnstore index, making option A the correct and fully verified answer aligned with CompTIA DataSys+ objectives.

The correct answers are A. Firewall and B. Strong passwords. CompTIA DataSys+ differentiates security controls into logical (technical) and physical infrastructure security measures. Logical security measures are implemented through software, configuration, and system controls to protect data, systems, and network resources from unauthorized access or misuse.

A firewall is a core logical infrastructure security control. It enforces security rules that regulate incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined policies. In database environments, firewalls are used to restrict access to database servers, limit exposed ports, and allow connections only from trusted IP addresses or networks. DataSys+ emphasizes firewalls as a first line of defense in protecting databases from unauthorized access and network-based attacks.

Strong passwords are another essential logical security measure. They are part of authentication controls that ensure only authorized users can access systems and databases. Strong password requirements—such as minimum length, complexity, expiration, and reuse restrictions—help mitigate attacks like brute-force attempts, credential stuffing, and unauthorized privilege escalation. DataSys+ highlights strong authentication controls as foundational to protecting database environments.

Option D, port security, can be ambiguous, but in CompTIA context it is often associated with network switch configurations and is more infrastructure-specific; however, the exam most clearly classifies firewall and authentication mechanisms as logical controls. Options C, E, and F—key cards, camera systems, and time locks—are all physical security controls. These protect the physical facility or hardware but do not directly enforce access through software or system logic.

CompTIA DataSys+ stresses a layered security approach, where logical controls protect data and systems, while physical controls protect facilities. In this question, the focus is explicitly on logical infrastructure security, making Firewall and Strong passwords the most accurate and clearly aligned answers.

Therefore, the correct selections are A and B.

The tool that is used for natively running a Linux system in Windows is WSL. WSL, or Windows Subsystem for Linux, is a feature that allows users to run a Linux system natively on Windows 10 or Windows Server. WSL enables users to install and use various Linux distributions, such as Ubuntu, Debian, Fedora, etc., and run Linux commands, tools, applications, etc., without requiring a virtual machine or a dual-boot setup. WSL also provides users with interoperability and integration between Linux and Windows, such as file system access, network communication, process management, etc. WSL is useful for users who want to use Linux features or functionalities on Windows, such as development, testing, scripting, etc. The other options are either different tools or not related to running a Linux system in Windows at all. For example, Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a protocol that allows users to remotely access and control another computer or device over a network; SSH, or Secure Shell, is a protocol that allows users to securely connect and communicate with another computer or device over a network; Telnet is a protocol that allows users to interact with another computer or device over a network using a text-based interface. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The most likely causes of the reporting application not working are that the access permissions for the service account used by the reporting application were not changed, and that the reporting application’s mapping to the database location was not updated. These two factors could prevent the reporting application from accessing the new database server. The other options are either irrelevant or unlikely to cause the problem. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common database issues.

The correct answer is B. Rights and privileges. CompTIA DataSys+ clearly distinguishes between different categories of security controls, and access to shared resources such as folders is governed primarily by authorization mechanisms, specifically rights and privileges. In this scenario, access is restricted so that only authorized users can view or modify the shared folder, which directly reflects the enforcement of permissions.

Rights and privileges define what actions an authenticated user is allowed to perform on a system or resource. For shared folders, this typically includes read, write, modify, or full control permissions assigned to users or groups. DataSys+ emphasizes the principle of least privilege, which ensures users are granted only the minimum level of access required to perform their job functions. Applying appropriate rights and privileges protects sensitive data from unauthorized access and accidental modification.

Option A, password policies, control how passwords are created and managed, such as complexity, expiration, and reuse rules. While password policies help verify a user’s identity during authentication, they do not determine which resources a user can access after logging in. Option C, service accounts, are specialized non-human accounts used by applications or services and are unrelated to user access to shared folders. Option D, firewall policy, controls network-level traffic and determines which connections are allowed or blocked between systems, not access to files or folders once a connection is established.

CompTIA DataSys+ materials emphasize that security is layered, with authentication confirming identity and authorization enforcing access. In this case, users are already authenticated, and the restriction applies at the resource level. That makes rights and privileges the relevant control.

Therefore, the policy applied to ensure only authorized users can access the shared folder is rights and privileges, making option B the correct and fully verified answer.

The best option to configure IP addresses to allow access to the database is a firewall. A firewall is a network device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing traffic based on a set of rules or policies. A firewall can be used to filter the traffic by IP addresses, ports, protocols, or other criteria, and allow or deny access to the database accordingly. The other options are either not relevant or not sufficient for this task. For example, a static IP address is an IP address that does not change over time, but it does not determine the access to the database; a dynamic IP address is an IP address that changes periodically, but it does not control the traffic to the database; an IDNS is an Internet Domain Name System, which translates domain names into IP addresses, but it does not regulate the access to the database. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The correct answer is B. Checkpoints. CompTIA DataSys+ explains that checkpoints play a critical role in database recovery mechanisms by limiting the amount of transaction log data that must be processed during recovery. Log-based recovery relies on transaction logs to restore the database to a consistent state after a failure. If checkpoints are infrequent, the database engine must replay a large portion of the transaction log, which increases recovery time and system overhead.

A checkpoint is a process where the database writes all modified (dirty) pages from memory to disk and records a synchronization point in the transaction log. After a checkpoint completes, the database knows that all changes up to that point are safely stored on disk. During recovery, the system only needs to process log entries that occurred after the most recent checkpoint, significantly reducing recovery workload and time. DataSys+ highlights checkpoints as a key performance and availability feature, especially in systems with high transaction volumes.

Option A, deadlocks, are concurrency issues that occur when two or more transactions block each other indefinitely. While deadlock handling is important for transaction throughput, it does not reduce log-based recovery overhead. Option C, locks, control concurrent access to data and help maintain consistency, but they do not affect how much log data must be replayed during recovery. Option D, indexes, improve query performance but can actually increase logging activity because index changes are also logged.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that effective recovery planning includes optimizing logging behavior and checkpoint frequency. Properly configured checkpoints strike a balance between runtime performance and recovery efficiency by reducing excessive log replay without causing unnecessary disk I/O.

Therefore, to best mitigate the overhead caused by log-based recoveries, the database manager should use checkpoints, making option B the correct and fully verified answer.

The correct answer is D. The continuity of operations policy. CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that when an unexpected system failure occurs—especially during critical activities such as database migrations—the primary concern is restoring services, minimizing downtime, and ensuring data availability. The continuity of operations policy (often aligned with business continuity and disaster recovery planning) provides documented guidance on how to respond to system outages and operational disruptions.

A continuity of operations policy outlines procedures, roles, and responsibilities for maintaining or rapidly restoring essential systems after an incident. This includes steps for failover, rollback procedures, recovery prioritization, communication protocols, and escalation paths. During a migration-related crash, administrators rely on this policy to determine whether to restore from backups, revert to a previous database version, activate standby systems, or follow defined recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs). DataSys+ highlights these policies as critical for ensuring predictable and coordinated responses during system failures.

Option A, the data retention policy, focuses on how long data must be stored and when it can be archived or deleted. It does not provide operational guidance for handling system crashes. Option B, the access control policy, governs authentication and authorization rules and is unrelated to recovery actions. Option C, the database compliance policy, addresses regulatory and audit requirements but does not define technical recovery procedures during an outage.

CompTIA DataSys+ clearly distinguishes governance and security policies from operational resilience policies. When a database crashes during a migration, the administrator’s priority is service restoration and data integrity, both of which are addressed by continuity of operations planning.

Therefore, the systems administrator should refer to the continuity of operations policy, making option D the correct and fully verified answer.

The correct answer is B. UML. CompTIA DataSys+ identifies Unified Modeling Language (UML) as a standard visual modeling tool used to design, document, and communicate system behavior, structure, and workflows during application development. UML is especially well-suited for creating workflows because it provides multiple diagram types that clearly represent processes, interactions, and control flow within an application.

Common UML diagrams used for workflow modeling include activity diagrams, which show step-by-step business or system processes, and sequence diagrams, which illustrate interactions between system components over time. These diagrams help stakeholders understand how users, systems, and data interact throughout an application’s lifecycle. DataSys+ emphasizes that UML improves collaboration between technical and non-technical stakeholders by providing a clear, standardized visual representation of application logic and flow.

Option A, ERD (Entity Relationship Diagram), is used to model database structure, including entities, attributes, and relationships. While ERDs are essential for schema design, they do not describe application workflows or process logic. Option C, ETL (Extract, Transform, Load), refers to data integration processes used in data warehousing and analytics; it is not a design or modeling tool for application workflows. Option D, ORM (Object-Relational Mapping), is a programming abstraction layer that maps application objects to database tables and does not provide workflow visualization capabilities.

CompTIA DataSys+ highlights the importance of proper planning and design tools during application development. UML enables IT managers to map workflows before implementation, reducing development errors, improving maintainability, and ensuring that business requirements are met.

Therefore, the most appropriate tool for facilitating the creation of a workflow for a new application is UML, making option B the correct and fully verified answer.

The option that is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network is TLS. TLS, or Transport Layer Security, is a protocol that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting the data using cryptographic algorithms and keys. TLS also provides authentication and integrity by verifying the identity of the parties involved and ensuring that the data has not been altered or tampered with. TLS can be used to protect various types of data, such as web traffic, email, instant messaging, voice over IP, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, TCP/IP, or Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol, is a set of protocols that defines how data is transmitted and routed over the internet, but does not provide encryption or security; NFS, or Network File System, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files over a network, but does not provide encryption or security; SMB, or Server Message Block, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files, printers, and other resources over a network, but does not provide encryption or security. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The correct answer is A. High temperatures activated the fire suppression system. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, physical infrastructure protections are a critical component of database and data center reliability. CO₂ fire suppression systems are specifically designed to respond to fire-related conditions, not recovery metrics or cooling system logic. These systems are typically triggered by smoke detectors, heat sensors, or rapid temperature increases that indicate a fire or imminent fire risk following an event such as a power failure.

When a power outage occurs, backup systems such as generators and uninterruptible power supplies may activate. If these systems malfunction or generate excessive heat, temperature thresholds can be exceeded within minutes. DataSys+ materials emphasize that automated environmental controls are designed to protect equipment and data by suppressing fires quickly, often before flames are visible. CO₂ systems work by displacing oxygen, thereby extinguishing fire without damaging sensitive electronic equipment with water or chemical residue.

Options B and D are incorrect because RPO (Recovery Point Objective) and RTO (Recovery Time Objective) are disaster recovery planning metrics. RPO defines acceptable data loss measured in time, while RTO defines acceptable downtime. Neither setting directly triggers physical fire suppression systems. They are planning and policy metrics, not automated environmental controls.

Option C is also incorrect because cooling systems do not activate CO₂ fire suppression. Cooling failures may indirectly contribute to rising temperatures, but the CO₂ system itself is triggered by fire detection mechanisms, not by cooling system logic.

CompTIA DataSys+ clearly distinguishes between environmental controls (fire suppression, HVAC, power) and disaster recovery metrics (RPO, RTO). Therefore, option A best aligns with documented data center operational behavior and exam objectives.

The two database instances that are created by default when SQL Server is installed are master and model. Master is a system database that contains the information and settings of the SQL Server instance, such as the configuration, logins, endpoints, databases, etc. Master is essential for the operation and management of the SQL Server instance, and it should be backed up regularly. Model is a system database that serves as a template for creating new user databases. Model contains the default settings and objects, such as tables, views, procedures, etc., that will be inherited by the new user databases. Model can be modified to customize the new user databases according to specific needs or preferences. The other options are either not database instances or not created by default when SQL Server is installed. For example, root is not a database instance, but a term that refers to the highest level of access or privilege in a system; log is not a database instance, but a file that records the changes made by transactions on a database; view is not a database instance, but an object that represents a subset or a combination of data from one or more tables; index is not a database instance, but a data structure that stores the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.3 Given a scenario, update database systems.

The command that the database administrator should use for this task is SELECT. The SELECT command is a SQL statement that retrieves data from one or more tables or views in a database. The SELECT command can also use various clauses or options to filter, group, sort, or aggregate data according to specific criteria or conditions. By using the SELECT command, the database administrator can obtain information about the performance of users in the sales department, such as their sales volume, revenue, commission, etc. The other options are either not related or not suitable for this task. For example, DROP is a SQL command that deletes an existing table or object from a database; UPDATE is a SQL command that modifies existing data in one or more rows of a table; DELETE is a SQL command that removes existing data from one or more rows of a table. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The firewall type that allows an administrator to control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as connection information and data flow communications is stateful. A stateful firewall is a type of firewall that tracks the state of each connection and packet that passes through it, and applies rules or policies based on the context and content of the traffic. A stateful firewall can control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, session status, application layer data, etc. The other options are either different types of firewalls or not related to firewalls at all. For example, a circuit-level firewall is a type of firewall that monitors and validates the establishment of TCP or UDP connections; a proxy firewall is a type of firewall that acts as an intermediary between the source and destination of the traffic; a packet firewall is a type of firewall that filters packets based on their header information. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The correct answer is C. Client-side. CompTIA DataSys+ explains that client-side scripting refers to code that is executed directly within the user’s web browser, rather than on a backend server or operating system shell. The most common and widely recognized client-side scripting language is JavaScript, which runs natively in modern web browsers and is used to enhance interactivity, validate input, and dynamically update content on web pages.

Client-side scripts execute after a web page is delivered to the user’s browser. This allows for immediate feedback, such as form validation, dynamic content updates, and interactive user interfaces, without requiring a round trip to the server. DataSys+ highlights client-side scripting as an important concept when discussing web applications that interact with databases, particularly because improper client-side controls can introduce security risks if not reinforced by server-side validation.

Option A, server-side scripting, runs on the web server rather than in the browser. Examples include PHP, Python, Ruby, and server-side JavaScript (such as Node.js). These scripts handle tasks like database queries, authentication, and business logic and are never executed in the browser itself. Option B, PowerShell, is a scripting and automation language used primarily in Windows environments for system and database administration tasks and cannot run inside a web browser. Option D, command-line scripting, refers to scripts executed in a terminal or shell environment, not within a browser context.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes the distinction between client-side and server-side execution models because of their impact on performance, security, and data handling. Understanding where code executes is critical for protecting databases from exposure and enforcing proper validation controls.

Therefore, the type of scripting that can be executed in a web browser is client-side scripting, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.

The instruction that is found on a Linux command-line script and represents a system shell is #!/bin/bash. This instruction is called a shebang or a hashbang, and it indicates the interpreter that should be used to execute the script. In this case, the interpreter is /bin/bash, which is the path to the bash shell, a common system shell for Linux. A system shell is a program that provides an interface for users to interact with the operating system, either through commands or scripts. A system shell can also perform various tasks, such as file management, process control, variable assignment, etc. The other options are either incorrect or not typical for this purpose. For example, /bin/bash is the path to the bash shell, but it does not indicate the interpreter for the script; #/bin/shell is not a valid shebang or a path to a system shell; >/bin/sh is a redirection operator followed by a path to a system shell, but it does not indicate the interpreter for the script. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The factor that the administrator should measure to analyze a database server’s disk throughput is IOPS. IOPS, or Input/Output Operations Per Second, is a metric that measures the number of read and write operations that a disk can perform in one second. IOPS indicates the performance or speed of a disk and how well it can handle multiple requests or transactions. Higher IOPS means higher disk throughput and lower latency. IOPS can be affected by various factors, such as disk type, size, speed, cache, RAID level, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, RPfvl is not a valid acronym or metric; latency is the time delay between a request and a response; reads are the number of read operations performed by a disk. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.

The statement that the administrator should use to remove inactive customers from a database is option A. This statement uses the DELETE command to delete all the rows from the customer table where the status column is equal to 'inactive'. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect commands, or do not specify the condition correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The best suited database engine for this task is MongoDB. MongoDB is a type of non-relational database that stores data as documents in JSON-like format. MongoDB allows administrators to perform quick and simple queries on unstructured data, such as text, images, videos, or social media posts, without requiring a predefined schema or complex joins. MongoDB also supports cloud-based deployment, scalability, and high availability. The other options are either relational databases that require a fixed schema and structure for data, or specialized databases that are designed for specific purposes, such as graph databases for storing and analyzing network data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

The correct answer is C. 3NF (Third Normal Form). According to CompTIA DataSys+, Third Normal Form is widely regarded as the most preferable and practical level of normalization for relational database design in real-world environments. It strikes an optimal balance between reducing data redundancy, maintaining data integrity, and preserving query performance.

To understand why 3NF is preferred, it is important to consider the progression of normalization. First Normal Form (1NF) ensures that tables contain atomic values and no repeating groups. Second Normal Form (2NF) builds on this by eliminating partial dependencies, ensuring that non-key attributes depend on the entire primary key. While these forms improve structure, they do not fully address all redundancy issues.

Third Normal Form (3NF) goes further by removing transitive dependencies, meaning that non-key attributes depend only on the primary key and not on other non-key attributes. This significantly reduces duplication of data and prevents common anomalies during INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE operations. CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that eliminating transitive dependencies is critical for maintaining long-term data consistency and integrity.

Although Fourth Normal Form (4NF) and higher normal forms exist, DataSys+ notes that they are typically applied only in specialized cases involving complex multi-valued dependencies. Over-normalization beyond 3NF can increase schema complexity, require excessive joins, and negatively impact performance without providing proportional benefits in most transactional systems.

As a result, 3NF is considered the industry-standard target for relational database design. It provides a clean, maintainable schema that supports scalability, reduces redundancy, and aligns well with performance expectations. CompTIA DataSys+ highlights 3NF as the most commonly implemented and recommended normalization level for operational databases.

Therefore, the most preferable normal form for relational database design is 3NF, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.

The best action for the administrator to take is to delete all the backup files that are not required by the backup retention policy. This will free up disk space on the server and also comply with the best practices for data backup and recovery. The backup retention policy defines how long the backup files should be kept and when they should be deleted or archived. The other options are either risky, inefficient, or impractical. For example, moving all the backup files to external disks would require additional hardware and time, deleting all the backup files containing data that is rated as classified would compromise data security and compliance, and deleting all the backup files except for the most recent one would limit the recovery options in case of a disaster. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.

The advantage of creating indexes is to provide quick and efficient access to data. An index is a data structure that stores the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order, along with pointers to the corresponding rows in the table. An index helps to speed up queries that search, filter, sort, or join data based on the indexed columns, as it reduces the number of disk accesses or scans required to locate the desired data. An index also helps to enforce uniqueness or referential integrity constraints on the indexed columns. The other options are either not true or not relevant for this purpose. For example, an index does not help with space allocation, as it consumes additional space in the database; an index does not reduce memory, as it may use memory for caching or buffering purposes; an index does not update the query plan, as it is an input or a factor for the query optimizer to generate the query plan. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The command that the database administrator should use for this task is CREATE USER. The CREATE USER command is a SQL statement that creates a new user account in a database and assigns it a username and a password. The CREATE USER command also allows the database administrator to specify other options or attributes for the user account, such as default tablespace, quota, profile, role, etc. The CREATE USER command is the first step to enable a user to authenticate to a database. The other options are either invalid or not suitable for this task. For example, INSERT USER is not a valid SQL command; ALLOW USER is not a SQL command, but a keyword used in some database systems to grant permissions to users; ALTER USER is a SQL command that modifies an existing user account, but does not create a new one. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

A reason to create a stored procedure is to improve performance. A stored procedure is a set of SQL statements or commands that are stored and compiled in the database server, and can be executed by name or by a trigger. A stored procedure can improve performance by reducing the network traffic between the client and the server, as only the name or the parameters of the stored procedure need to be sent, rather than the entire SQL code. A stored procedure can also improve performance by reusing the same execution plan, as the stored procedure is compiled only once and cached in the server memory. The other options are either not true or not relevant for this purpose. For example, a stored procedure does not necessarily minimize storage space, as it still occupies space in the database server; a stored procedure does not bypass case sensitivity requirements, as it still follows the rules of the database system; a stored procedure does not give control of the query logic to the user, as it is defined and maintained by the database administrator or developer. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answer is D. Password hash salting. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, rainbow table attacks specifically target hashed passwords by using precomputed hash values to quickly reverse weak or unsalted hashes back into their original plaintext passwords. If an attacker successfully used a rainbow table, it strongly indicates that the database stored password hashes without proper salting or used weak hashing algorithms.

Password salting is a defensive technique where a unique random value (the salt) is added to each password before hashing. This ensures that even if two users have the same password, their resulting hashes are different. More importantly, salting renders rainbow tables ineffective because the attacker would need to generate a separate rainbow table for every possible salt value, which is computationally impractical. DataSys+ highlights salting as a critical immediate control to protect stored credentials once a password compromise is identified.

Option C, strong passwords, is a preventative control but not the best immediate response. Even strong passwords can be compromised if hashes are unsalted and exposed. Option A, security and awareness training, addresses user behavior but does not mitigate the technical weakness exploited in this attack. Option B, implementing security policies and procedures, is important for long-term governance but does not directly stop rainbow table attacks against existing password hashes.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that when credential storage mechanisms are compromised, administrators must prioritize cryptographic protections at the database level. This includes salting, using strong hashing algorithms, and forcing credential resets. Among the options provided, password hash salting is the most direct and effective response to prevent the same attack vector from succeeding again.

Therefore, the best immediate response is D. Password hash salting, making it the verified and correct answer aligned with CompTIA DataSys+ guidance.

The correct answer is A. Implement a virtual private network (VPN). CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes secure remote access as a critical requirement for modern database environments, especially when users need to connect from untrusted networks such as home internet connections. A VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel between the user’s device and the organization’s internal network, allowing remote users to access database resources as if they were physically on-site.

By using strong encryption and authentication mechanisms, a VPN ensures that data transmitted over public networks cannot be intercepted, read, or altered by unauthorized parties. DataSys+ highlights VPNs as a best practice for protecting data-in-transit and preventing exposure of sensitive database services directly to the internet. VPNs also allow administrators to enforce centralized access controls, logging, and monitoring, further strengthening security.

Option B, implementing strong password policies, is an important security measure but does not by itself enable secure remote connectivity. Password policies address authentication strength, not secure network transport. Option C, configuring and deploying a firewall, is essential for controlling traffic flow, but a firewall alone does not provide secure remote access for home users. It typically blocks or allows connections rather than securely tunneling them. Option D, implementing a perimeter network (DMZ), is designed to host internet-facing services while isolating internal systems. Exposing databases through a perimeter network increases risk and is not recommended for direct user access to internal data.

CompTIA DataSys+ stresses the principle of minimizing attack surface. A VPN supports this principle by avoiding direct exposure of database services while still enabling authorized remote access. It also integrates well with multifactor authentication and identity management systems.

Therefore, the most secure and appropriate method to enable remote access without compromising stored data is to implement a virtual private network, making option A the correct and fully verified answer.

The correct answer is B. 40%. CompTIA DataSys+ explains that Resource Governor is used to manage and allocate CPU and memory resources among multiple workloads or resource pools within a database system. When configuring resource pools, administrators must ensure that the total allocation of minimum resources does not exceed 100%, as all resource pools share the same finite system resources.

In this scenario, the first resource pool has a minimum CPU and memory allocation of 25%, and the second resource pool has a minimum allocation of 35%. Together, these minimum guarantees account for 60% of total available resources. Resource Governor enforces these minimums to ensure that critical workloads always receive their reserved share of system resources, even under heavy load.

The remaining resources are calculated by subtracting the total minimum allocation from 100%.

100% − 60% = 40%

This remaining 40% represents the maximum CPU and memory that can be safely assigned to the third resource pool without violating Resource Governor rules. Assigning a higher value would exceed the total available system resources and would not be permitted under proper configuration guidelines emphasized in DataSys+.

Option A (20%) underutilizes available resources and is unnecessarily restrictive. Option C (60%) and D (100%) are invalid because they would cause the combined minimum allocations to exceed system capacity, leading to misconfiguration or enforcement failures. DataSys+ stresses careful capacity planning when using Resource Governor to balance performance, fairness, and system stability.

Resource Governor is especially useful in multi-tenant or mixed-workload environments, where critical applications must be protected from resource starvation. Proper calculation of minimums and maximums ensures predictable performance and prevents one workload from monopolizing system resources.

Therefore, the correct maximum allocation for the third resource pool is 40%, making option B the correct and fully verified answer aligned with CompTIA DataSys+ guidance.