FC0-U71 CompTIA Tech+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

This scenario describes a situation where a user has already successfully logged into the system (i.e., has been authenticated) but cannot access a particular network resource (the shared folder). This falls under the concept of authorization, which determines what actions or resources a user is permitted to access after authentication.

“Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to network resources once the user has been authenticated.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Authentication verifies the identity of the user (e.g., username and password).

Authorization controls access rights (e.g., shared folders, files).

Accounting tracks user activity (e.g., audit logs).

Non-repudiation ensures actions or transactions cannot be denied later.

Therefore, the correct answer is B: Authorization.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide identifies RJ45 as the standard Ethernet connector:

“An RJ45 connector is used to connect network cables to devices such as switches, routers, and computers. It’s the most common connector for Ethernet networking.”

RJ45 connectors terminate Cat 5, 5e, and 6 cables for network communication.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Network Connectors: RJ45” (pp. 90–92).

The pseudocode reads from a block of numbers listed in line 40. This collection of values is structured like an array—a group of data elements stored together.

“An array is a collection of similar data elements stored in a structured sequence, often referenced or processed in loops.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the value 9 can be represented using only ones and zeros, which is the definition of binary. In binary, the decimal number 9 is represented as 1001.

“Binary is a base-2 numeral system that represents numeric values using only two symbols: 0 and 1. Computers use binary to process and store all data.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide discusses social engineering prevention:

“Social engineering relies on manipulating people rather than technology. The best protection against social engineering is user awareness and verifying identity before sharing information.”

Verifying a user’s identity via a phone call before taking any action (such as password reset or data access) is an essential safeguard against impersonation attempts.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Recognizing Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks” (pp. 586–588).

Changing the router ' s password (particularly the Wi-Fi password) prevents unauthorized users from reconnecting to the network. It’s the most immediate and effective response.

“One of the most effective ways to secure a wireless network is by changing the default and existing passwords to prevent unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Calling support may help but doesn’t address the issue directly.

Decreasing signal range may reduce but not eliminate access.

Resetting the router is more disruptive and unnecessary if the password can be changed.

Correct answer: C

Pseudocode represents logic written in plain, human-readable language that resembles programming structure but isn’t actual code:

“Pseudocode allows programmers to design algorithms using readable statements before translating them into actual code.”

Branch and sequence refer to control flow structures, and object-oriented refers to a programming paradigm.

A hypervisor is the software or hardware platform that enables virtualization. It allows multiple operating systems (guest OSes) to run on a single physical machine.

“A hypervisor manages virtual machines on a single physical system. It enables the creation and management of guest OS environments.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: D

The correct order for creating a network cable:

Measure and cut with wire cutter

Strip the wires

Attach Ethernet connector using a crimper

Finally, test the cable with a cable tester to ensure connectivity and proper pinout.

“After crimping the RJ-45 connectors, a cable tester is used to validate the electrical continuity and correct wiring order.” — CompTIA ITF+ Curriculum

Correct answer: A

A firewall can block traffic between workstations if it ' s not properly configured. If a user cannot connect from one device to another on the network, it is likely that the firewall settings are preventing this communication.

“Firewalls control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. If improperly configured, they may block legitimate access between devices.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Database – Not related to connectivity

C. Anti-malware – Protects from malicious software, not network configuration

D. Certificate – Used for secure communication, but not basic connectivity

Correct answer: A

For locations without cable or cellular towers, satellite internet is the most viable solution. Satellite does not require terrestrial infrastructure beyond a dish and has global coverage.

“Satellite is often used in remote or rural locations where wired and cellular connectivity is not available. It uses a dish to communicate with orbiting satellites for internet access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Curriculum

Fiber optic and IDSL require ground cabling.

Cellular requires nearby towers, which the scenario rules out.

Correct answer: D. Satellite

If the student’s built-in camera isn ' t functioning, it is likely due to a missing or outdated device driver. Updating the camera driver allows the OS to properly interface with the hardware.

“Drivers are essential software that enables communication between the OS and hardware devices. A malfunctioning camera often points to a driver issue.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: B

USB-C is commonly used for both charging and data transfer between modern computers and smartphones. It supports high-speed data transmission and is a standard port on most new smartphones.

“USB-C cables support power delivery and high-speed data transfer, and are commonly used to connect smartphones to computers.” — CompTIA ITF+ Guide

VGA is for video output.

Thunderbolt is high-speed, but typically used with Apple or specialized hardware.

NFC is a wireless protocol, not a cable.

Correct answer: A

Device physical addresses, such as MAC (Media Access Control) addresses, are represented in hexadecimal format. A typical MAC address looks like 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E, using base-16 values (0–9 and A–F).

“MAC addresses are 48-bit identifiers assigned to network interfaces, commonly displayed in hexadecimal format.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: A

Encryption protects data by encoding it, so it can only be accessed or read by someone with the proper key or password. It ensures confidentiality during file transfers over insecure networks like the internet.

“Encryption is used to protect data in transit, ensuring that only authorized parties can read the content during transmission.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Essentials

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“For a table in a database to be relational, it must have a primary key. In fact, its creation is mandatory when a table is created. A primary key is one or more fields whose data is used to identify a record uniquely.”

It further adds:

“Primary keys for tables are stored in an index, which enforces the uniqueness requirement.”

Hence, the unique identifier for records in a relational database is the primary key.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Primary Key” (pp. 394–395).

Wireless interference is often caused by environmental factors such as proximity to kitchens, which may contain microwaves and other electronic devices operating on the same 2.4 GHz frequency used by many Wi-Fi networks. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

“Wireless signals are subject to interference from physical objects, walls, appliances, and other electronic devices operating on the same frequency.”

“Microwave ovens and cordless phones are common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks.”

In this case, the user ' s proximity to the kitchen is causing interference, not access control or standards issues.

The correct answer is C. 192.168.1.10. A valid IPv4 address is written in dotted-decimal notation, using four decimal numbers separated by periods. Option A is formatted like a MAC address, not an IP address. Option B has no dotted-decimal separation. Option D uses colons, which is not the standard IPv4 dotted-decimal format.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that an IP address is “typically written in dotted-decimal notation,” such as 192.168.10.55, and explains that each number represents an octet. The guide also distinguishes IP addresses from MAC addresses, noting that an IP address is logical and a MAC address is physical.

Interference or poor signal strength is a common issue in Wi-Fi networks, especially in distant or obstructed locations like basements.

“Physical obstructions and electronic interference can weaken wireless signals, leading to connectivity issues in areas like basements.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: A

The correct answer is B. Import. To populate a database from a flat file, data must be brought into the database. That function is called importing. Create is used to create a database or database structure, not to fill it with existing data. Query is used to retrieve or manipulate data after it exists in the database. Report is used to present database information in a readable format.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that “you can import data from Excel into a database application, such as Access.” It also summarizes database work by saying databases are created, data is imported or inputted, and then queries and reports can be run.

A byte consists of exactly 8 bits. Bits (binary digits) are the smallest unit of data, and eight of them grouped together form one byte, which is used to represent characters and numbers in digital systems.

“A byte is made up of 8 bits and is the standard unit of data used to represent information such as characters in computing.” — CompTIA ITF+ Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

Task management tools such as Task Manager in Windows or Activity Monitor in macOS allow users to monitor running applications and processes. They also provide the functionality to force-close (end) applications that are not responding.

“Task Manager provides a way to close applications that are unresponsive and manage running processes.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Guide

Correct answer: A

The requirement to change passwords every 60 days is a policy known as password expiration. It is part of enforcing secure authentication by limiting the amount of time a password is valid.

“Password expiration is a security measure that requires users to change their passwords after a specific period, such as every 60 or 90 days, to reduce the risk of compromised credentials being used over time.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Guide

Password complexity refers to rules about what characters are required.

Password management refers to overall policies and tools for handling passwords.

Password privacy relates to confidentiality but not periodic resets.

Thus, the correct choice is C.

A primary key is a unique identifier for each record in a database table. It must be unique and not null across all rows. In this table, the field ID is the only column that uniquely identifies each row and does not repeat.

“A primary key is a field (or a set of fields) that uniquely identifies a record in a table. It ensures that each record can be uniquely retrieved.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Analysis of other options:

Month, Day, Year, and Name can have duplicate values across multiple records and therefore do not serve as unique identifiers.

Correct answer: A

The ID field contains unique values for each record and is typically used as a primary key in a database. A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table.

Month, Day, Year, and Name may have duplicates and do not guarantee uniqueness.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide details this advantage:

“If you need to have multiple concurrent users accessing data, you need a database. Flat files don’t do well when several people try to access them at once. In the vast majority of cases, one user might be able to write to the file, but all users will be limited to a read-only copy.”

It further states:

“Databases generally lock only on a record level… so multiple people can actively use the database at one time.”

Therefore, the primary advantage of databases over flat files is support for multiple concurrent users.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “When to Use Databases” (pp. 389–391).

The correct answer is A. OEM. A vendor/manufacturer website is an original equipment manufacturer source when it is owned by the company that made or provides the software or driver. The question says the driver is found on the vendor’s website, not an app store, third-party site, or SaaS platform. SaaS means Software as a Service and refers to cloud-hosted applications, not a printer driver download source.

Exact Extract/Reference: The Tech+ Study Guide states that “An original equipment manufacturer (OEM) website is one owned by the developer of the software,” and that software from an OEM website is legitimate and trusted. It also gives a printer driver example where the HP support site is identified as an OEM website.

A LAN (Local Area Network) connects devices in a limited geographical area such as a building or office.

“A LAN is a network that connects computers within a small geographical area such as a home, school, or office building.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

RAM allows multiple applications to run simultaneously. Insufficient RAM causes performance drops:

“When several applications are open, the system relies heavily on RAM for temporary storage of active processes.”

Storage, motherboard, or NIC do not directly handle temporary application memory while multitasking.

To install and use a printer over a network, the printer must have an assigned IP address so that it can be located and communicated with by other devices on the same network.

“Network printers are assigned IP addresses so computers can locate and send print jobs to them over the network.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Guide

Correct answer: B

Encryption protects files by converting them into unreadable formats unless the correct decryption key is provided. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

" Encryption is the process of converting data into a secure format that cannot be read without a decryption key. Only users with the proper key can access the original data. "

File permissions control user access based on OS-level rules, but encryption specifically ensures that only those with the key can read the file even if they access the file storage.

Hidden folders merely conceal files but don’t protect content. Compression reduces file size but doesn’t protect access.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide lists input devices explicitly:

“Input devices include keyboards, mice, scanners, and web cameras—any device that allows the user to enter data into the computer.”

In contrast, printers and speakers are output devices, while a motherboard is an internal component.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Input and Output Devices” (pp. 102–104).

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the SFP (Small Form-Factor Pluggable) connector is directly associated with fiber-optic networking. The guide lists:

“SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors are commonly used in fiber-optic connections to allow hot-swappable transceivers for different types of fiber cables.”

Additionally, the same guide’s chapter on Networking Concepts and Technologies explains:

“Fiber-optic around 2 Gbps – Incredibly fast and more expensive than DSL or cable.”

Therefore, fiber Internet is the only service type that uses SFP connectors for data transmission over optical cables.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “External network connections” and “Common Internet connection types and speeds” (pp. 429–435).

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors” (pp. 97–98).

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure, encrypted connection over the internet between the user and a remote network, enabling secure access from home or public networks.

“VPNs provide a secure tunnel for transmitting data over unsecured networks, such as the internet, by encrypting all traffic between the client and the network.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Other options:

A. LAN – Local and not for remote use

B. FTP – Transfers files but lacks modern encryption

C. DNS – Resolves domain names, not for access

Correct answer: D

The correct answer is C. 4.4 GHz. GHz means gigahertz, or billions of cycles per second, while MHz means megahertz, or millions of cycles per second. Therefore, any GHz value is much faster than a MHz value. Between 3.1 GHz and 4.4 GHz, 4.4 GHz is higher.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that IBM’s first PC ran at 4.77 MHz, which is 4.77 million cycles per second, while modern processors operate at “billions of cycles per second, or gigahertz (GHz).” It also states that, generally speaking, faster processor speed is better.

When the network is unavailable, portable storage like a flash drive (USB storage device) is suitable for transferring large files:

“Flash drives provide portable storage solutions capable of handling large data files.”

NAS (network-attached storage) requires a functioning network. RAM is volatile memory not used for file transfer, and cloud storage requires internet connectivity.

A char (character) represents a single letter, number, or symbol. It differs from a string, which is a sequence of characters.

“The char data type stores a single alphanumeric character or symbol.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

A GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is a specialized processor designed to perform calculations related to rendering images and videos. It’s an example of a processing component.

“The GPU is a processor dedicated to graphical computations and image rendering, assisting or replacing the CPU in handling visual data.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Essentials

Correct answer: C

The correct answer is D. NVMe. NVMe is a very fast SSD data-transfer standard and is much faster than traditional HDDs, optical drives, and ordinary external flash drives. The original spelling “NvME” should be corrected to “NVMe.” Flash drives are portable but typically slower than internal NVMe storage. Optical drives and HDDs are also slower.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that NVMe is “incredibly fast” and that Generation 4 NVMe drives can transfer more than 7000 MB/s, while SATA SSDs top out at about 600 MB/s. It also states that an NVMe M.2 drive greatly outperforms a SATA M.2 drive and that any SATA SSD is several times faster than a conventional HDD.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states:

“Nearly every program running on a computer is run as a process. This includes system operations, background tasks, and applications… The Task Manager utility helps you see everything that’s running on a computer… If I have an app that’s taking up too much memory, I can click it and then click End Task to shut it down. This is also known as killing the process.”

Thus, process management is the OS function that allows users to stop (terminate) running applications.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Process Management” (pp. 238–240).

The correct answer is A. Remove unnecessary software. Removing software that is not needed is a device-hardening step. Unnecessary applications can increase the attack surface of a laptop, so removing them helps reduce vulnerabilities. Installing drivers may be required for hardware functionality, but it is not the best security improvement. Configuring backups helps with recovery, but it does not directly harden the device. Benchmark testing measures performance, not security.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that device hardening makes a device harder to exploit and includes “removing or disabling unused software and services.” The guide’s Chapter 11 lab also lists the task “Remove unwanted, unnecessary, or malicious software.”

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“A crimper is used to attach modular connectors, such as RJ45 or RJ11, to network or phone cables. The crimper pushes the metal contacts into the wires, securing them in place.”

Punchdown tools, by contrast, are used for patch panels or keystone jacks, not RJ45 ends.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Networking Tools: Crimpers, Punchdown Tools, Cable Testers” (pp. 106–108).

Because the pay rate is fixed and does not change for all workers, it is best represented as a constant in code. Constants are variables whose values do not change during execution.

“Constants are used in programming to represent fixed values that do not change during the run of a program.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Development Guide

Correct answer: C

A console or command-line interface (CLI) allows users to input text-based commands that the computer can execute.

“The console (or command prompt or terminal) allows direct command input to control an operating system or application without using a graphical interface.” — CompTIA ITF+ Guide

Services are background processes.

Attributes define properties of objects or elements.

Processes are executing programs but are not used for inputting commands.

Correct answer: D

The web browser history stores records of websites that a user has visited. This is typically the most straightforward and accessible method for determining whether users accessed inappropriate or unauthorized online content. The CompTIA ITF+ documentation explains:

“Web browsers maintain a history of visited URLs, which can be used for monitoring and auditing user activity, including detecting policy violations regarding internet usage.”

System logs are broader and generally capture system or security events.

Cookies store session and tracking data but don’t always show what content was accessed.

Location tracking helps with geolocation, not content monitoring.

Therefore, the correct choice is D.

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The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide provides a conversion table for storage units:

“1 bit = 1 bit, a single 0 or 1.

8 bits = 1 byte (one text character).

1,000 bytes = 1 kilobyte (KB).”

Thus, 8 bits equals 1 byte.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 1: Core Hardware Components — Table 1.2 “Bit and Byte Conversions” (p. 36).

The largest unit is determined by converting all values to the same unit:

2TB = 2,000GB

100GB = 100GB

4,000MB = 4GB

50KB = 0.00005GB

Thus, 2TB is the largest. As described in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Study Guide:

“Data storage capacity is measured using standard units such as KB, MB, GB, and TB, where 1TB = 1,000GB.”

Process management in an operating system is responsible for controlling the execution of applications, assigning CPU time, and prioritizing active processes to optimize performance.

“Process management allocates resources, prioritizes applications, and ensures multitasking is efficiently handled by the OS.” — CompTIA ITF+ Operating Systems Guide

Correct answer: B

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“The rules and structure of the database are called its schema. It defines the tables, forms, reports, queries, data types allowed, and pretty much everything else about the database.”

It also clarifies:

“The logical schema outlines the structure of the database, such as the tables and their fields (columns), and relationships between tables.”

Thus, an outline of a database’s structure is called a schema.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Schema” (pp. 392–393).