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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is a potential limitation of using qualitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis techniques always lead to incorrect conclusions about risk, reward, and compliance.

B.

Qualitative analysis techniques are not applicable to the analysis of risk and reward.

C.

Qualitative analysis techniques rely on descriptive data and subjective judgments, which may result in less precise estimations compared to quantitative analysis.

D.

Qualitative analysis techniques are only useful for analyzing compliance-related risks.

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Questions 5

How do organizational values contribute to acting with integrity?

Options:

A.

Adhering to established organizational values helps create a shared sense of purpose and direction, aligning actions and decisions with the organization's mission and goals

B.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by increasing the organization’s market share and profitability, which will satisfy shareholders to whom promises were made

C.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by allowing the organization to bypass certain legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by reducing the likelihood of enforcement actions because the organization is self-regulating

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Questions 6

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

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Questions 7

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

Options:

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

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Questions 8

What is the importance of gaining subordinate buy-in when setting the direction for an organization?

Options:

A.

To determine the organization’s expansion and growth plans without internal conflict

B.

To establish the organization’s brand identity and image without conflict

C.

To ensure that the organization has sufficient staff to take on defined tasks

D.

To help subordinate units understand and define ways to contribute to the organization’s success, reducing the risk of strategic misalignment and engagement decay

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Questions 9

What are key risk indicators (KRIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

The rate of return on investment and capital allocation

B.

The quality of products and services offered to customers

C.

The level of innovation and technological advancement

D.

The negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

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Questions 10

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

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Questions 11

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

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Questions 12

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Questions 13

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

Options:

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

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Questions 14

Which of the following best describes the overall process of analyzing risk culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

Determining the level of risk-taking that each employee is comfortable with.

B.

Assessing the organization's ability to attract and retain top talent that is willing to take risks to achieve objectives.

C.

Evaluating the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels for each type of risk.

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce perceives risk, its impact on work, and its integration with decision-making.

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Questions 15

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Questions 16

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

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Questions 17

Which statement is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

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Questions 18

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

Options:

A.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization.

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event.

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

D.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

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Questions 19

What is the role of suitable criteria in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

These criteria are performance metrics used to assess the efficiency of the organization's operations.

B.

These criteria are standards for the ethical conduct of employees and stakeholders.

C.

These criteria are guidelines for the allocation of resources within the organization.

D.

These criteria are benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results.

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Questions 20

What is the significance of assigning a single owner to each objective?

Options:

A.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures clear accountability and authority to ensure successful achievement

B.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures that the owner receives recognition and rewards for achieving the objective

C.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to delegate tasks to other employees to achieve the objective

D.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to make unilateral decisions without consulting other stakeholders, which is necessary to keep plans for achieving the objective on track

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Questions 21

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

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Questions 22

What is the duality of compliance, and how does it relate to risk?

Options:

A.

The duality of compliance refers to the distinction between domestic and international regulations that an organization must follow.

B.

The duality of compliance refers to the trade-off between investing in compliance measures and allocating resources to other business areas.

C.

The duality of compliance involves addressing both compliance with obligations and compliance-related risks. Compliance involves meeting mandatory and voluntary obligations, while compliance-related risks involve addressing the risk of negative outcomes associated with non-compliance.

D.

The duality of compliance refers to the balance between financial gains and ethical considerations in business decisions.

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Questions 23

What are the two key factors that determine the level of assurance provided by an assurance provider?

Options:

A.

Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence

B.

Assurance Transparency and Assurance Accountability

C.

Assurance Consistency and Assurance Reliability

D.

Assurance Efficiency and Assurance Effectiveness

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Questions 24

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

Options:

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

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Questions 25

What is the significance of evaluating costs and benefits during design?

Options:

A.

It enables the organization to decide it would rather bear the risk and cost of a compliance enforcement action than spend more money to ensure compliance.

B.

It determines the number of employees to commit to any aspect of the design.

C.

It provides insights into the preferences and behaviors of customers and clients.

D.

It ensures that the costs do not outweigh the benefits of a design decision.

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Questions 26

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Questions 27

Which of the following reflects what the learner will be able to do after a learning activity?

Options:

A.

Learning Assessment

B.

Learning Objective

C.

Learning Content

D.

Learning Outcome

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Questions 28

Within an organization, what is the governing authority responsible for?

Options:

A.

Directly managing the most critical aspects of the organization's operations to ensure they achieve established objectives

B.

Designing every strategic plan that applies at any level of the organization

C.

Negotiating contracts with all organization executives, as well as all suppliers and vendors

D.

Balancing the competing needs of stakeholders to guide, constrain, and conscribe the organization to reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity

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Questions 29

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Likelihood and impact

B.

Probability and consequence

C.

Certainty and effect

D.

Accuracy and precision

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Questions 30

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

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Questions 31

What does it mean for an organization to be "agile" within the context of the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The ability to rapidly expand and scale the organization’s operations in response to change

B.

The ability to quickly re-learn context and culture when things change

C.

The ability to adapt the organization’s mission and vision to changing market conditions

D.

The ability to effectively manage risks and respond to compliance issues that are identified

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Questions 32

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be "Lean"?

Options:

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

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Questions 33

Which aspect of culture includes workforce satisfaction, loyalty, turnover rates, skill development, and engagement?

Options:

A.

Compliance and ethics culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Workforce culture

D.

Governance culture

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Questions 34

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

Options:

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Questions 35

What are the three main aspects that organizations must face and address while driving toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Opportunities (reward), obstacles (risk), and obligations (compliance)

B.

Profitability, liquidity, and solvency

C.

Growth, diversification, and resiliency

D.

Leadership, teamwork, and communication

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Questions 36

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Questions 37

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

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Questions 38

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

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Questions 39

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

Options:

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Questions 40

What are the four dimensions used to assess Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Quality, Productivity, Flexibility, and Durability

B.

Accuracy, Precision, Speed, and Stability

C.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

D.

Compliance, Consistency, Adaptability, and Robustness

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Questions 41

What practices are involved in analyzing and understanding an organization’s ethical culture?

Options:

A.

Developing a strategic plan to achieve the organization’s long-term goals for improving ethical culture

B.

Conducting a survey of employees every few years on their views about the organization’s commitment to ethical conduct

C.

Implementing a performance appraisal system to evaluate employee performance

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce generally demonstrates integrity

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Questions 42

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

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Questions 43

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

Options:

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

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Questions 44

What is the primary purpose of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the organization complies with all industry-specific regulations

B.

To provide confidence to management, governing authorities, and stakeholders by objectively and competently evaluating subject matter

C.

To facilitate communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

D.

To provide legal protection to the organization in case of disputes or litigation

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Questions 45

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

Options:

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Questions 46

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

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Questions 47

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

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Questions 48

What is the goal of implementing an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events

B.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To ensure timely and consistent reporting to applicable stakeholders

D.

To address allegations or indications of unfavorable events and respond to external inquiries and investigations

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Questions 49

In the context of event notifications, how can technology-based notifications benefit an organization?

Options:

A.

These notifications are always more reliable than traditional paper-based methods

B.

These notifications often (though not always) alert the organization sooner than other methods, especially when human methods fail or are delayed

C.

Use of this type of notification is only beneficial for large organizations with complex structures

D.

These notifications eliminate the need for any human involvement in the assignment of follow-up tasks

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Questions 50

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

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Questions 51

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

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Questions 52

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

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Questions 53

What is the role of identification criteria?

Options:

A.

Identification criteria are used to determine the order in which units undertake identification activities.

B.

Identification criteria are used to calculate the total budget for the organization based on priority objectives and the number of related obstacles and obligations.

C.

Identification criteria are used to focus on priority objectives and results.

D.

Identification criteria are used to establish the communication channels within the organization regarding opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

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Questions 54

Why is it important to prioritize, substantiate, validate, and route notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

To prevent employees from receiving any notifications that may cause stress unnecessarily

B.

To ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units or roles based on topic, type, and severity

C.

To ensure that notifications are only sent to the CEO and board of directors, or to the General Counsel if a legal issue is raised

D.

To provide the right to respond before any follow-up actions or investigations are started

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Questions 55

Why is it important for an organization to prioritize the concerns and needs of stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To organize stakeholder appreciation events

B.

To rank the most valuable stakeholders

C.

To highlight and address needs that compete with or conflict with each other

D.

To create a stakeholder directory

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Questions 56

Why is it essential to make the mission, vision, and values explicit within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is important for gaining and maintaining buy-in from all stakeholders.

B.

It is necessary to comply with industry regulations and standards.

C.

It is crucial for developing the organization’s training and development programs aligned with the mission, vision, and values.

D.

It helps the workforce understand and make decisions at all levels, preventing the organization from operating on ad hoc beliefs and interests.

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Questions 57

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

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Questions 58

What is the primary objective of Lean as a technique for improvement?

Options:

A.

To maximize profits and shareholder value

B.

To improve communication and collaboration

C.

To eliminate waste and increase efficiency

D.

To enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty

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Questions 59

What are the two aspects of value that Protectors are skilled at balancing within an organization?

Options:

A.

Value creation and value protection

B.

Value production and value preservation

C.

Value measurement and value analysis

D.

Value assessment and value reporting

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Questions 60

In the IACM, what is the role of Compound/Accelerate Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To identify and address any potential conflicts of interest that may compound or accelerate enforcement actions against the company.

B.

To enhance the brand image and reputation of the organization.

C.

To accelerate and compound the impact of favorable events to increase benefits and promote the future occurrence.

D.

To accelerate and compound the benefits of reducing costs.

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Questions 61

How can "assurance competence" contribute to the level of assurance provided?

Options:

A.

It is solely based on the assurance provider's credentials and ensures the highest level of assurance

B.

It is determined by the number of years the assurance provider has been in the industry and ensures high levels of assurance

C.

A greater degree of it allows the assurance provider to use sophisticated, professional, and structured techniques to evaluate the subject matter, resulting in a higher level of assurance

D.

It is only relevant for external audits and does not apply to internal assurance activities and level of assurance

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Questions 62

In the IACM, what are the two types of Proactive Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

Reactive Actions & Controls and Passive Actions & Controls

B.

Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls and Promote/Enable Actions & Controls

C.

Centralized Actions & Controls and Decentralized Actions & Controls

D.

Quantitative Actions & Controls and Qualitative Actions & Controls

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Questions 63

What is the measure of the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed?

Options:

A.

Noncompliance

B.

Compliance

C.

Violation

D.

Deviation

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Questions 64

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

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Questions 65

In the context of the Maturity Model, what characterizes practices at Level I?

Options:

A.

Practices are improvised, ad hoc, and often chaotic.

B.

Practices are formally documented and consistently managed.

C.

Practices are measured and managed with data-driven evidence.

D.

Practices are consistently improved over time.

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Questions 66

The difference between the current skill level and the target skill level is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Learning Objective

B.

Educational Needs

C.

Skill Gap

D.

Skill Set

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Questions 67

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Questions 68

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

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Questions 69

Why is it important to establish decision-making criteria in the alignment process?

Options:

A.

To calculate the return on investment (ROI) of alignment activities

B.

To ensure that the organization stays on track and achieves its objectives

C.

To comply with industry regulations and standards

D.

To evaluate the performance of individual employees and teams

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Questions 70

What should be avoided to maintain the integrity of the inquiry process?

Options:

A.

Any inquiries that require identification of the respondent

B.

Any automated analysis of information and findings

C.

Any actual or perceived connection between inquiry responses and individual performance appraisals

D.

Any use of technology-based inquiry methods

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Questions 71

What are some systems-based methods for conducting inquiries?

Options:

A.

Coordinating survey efforts throughout the organization

B.

Avoiding any connection between inquiry responses and performance appraisals

C.

Continuous control monitoring, log management, application performance monitoring, management dashboards

D.

Observations, meetings, focus groups, and individual conversations

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Questions 72

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

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Questions 73

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

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Questions 74

How does budgeting for regular improvement activities contribute to capability maturation?

Options:

A.

It ensures that resources are available when opportunities to improve arise

B.

It increases the organization’s profitability and revenue

C.

It minimizes the risk of legal disputes and litigation

D.

It reduces the need for external audits and assessments

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Oct 4, 2025
Questions: 249

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