IFC Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam Questions and Answers

Suitability ensures that recommendations align with the client’s unique situation and investment objectives, based on their personal and financial circumstances. The feedback from the document states:

"Suitability means ensuring that all recommendations are appropriate for the client’s unique situation and investment objectives. It also means that recommendations are based on a personal and financial knowledge of the client and knowledge of the investment products being recommended."

Speculators avoid diversification because it reduces the potential for both large losses and large gains, which they seek to achieve significant wealth. The feedback from the document states:

"Diversification affects the returns that investors hope to earn. Diversification tends to reduce the probability of both very large losses and very large gains. Speculators tend to avoid diversification for this reason. Great wealth can be achieved only through an absence of diversification."

A Canadian equity index fund would be the most tax-efficient option for Xerxes. A Canadian equity index fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of Canadian stocks that track a specific market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index. A Canadian equity index fund would be tax-efficient for Xerxes because it would generate mostly capital gains and eligible dividends, which are taxed at lower rates than interest income or foreign dividends. A Canadian equity index fund would also have low turnover and minimal distributions, which would defer taxes until Xerxes sells his units. The other options are less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund. A target date fund is a type of mutual fund that adjusts its asset allocation over time based on a predetermined retirement date. A target date fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would have higher turnover and more distributions, which would trigger taxes every year. A target date fund would also invest in a mix of asset classes, such as bonds and foreign equities, which would generate interest income and foreign dividends that are taxed at higher rates than capital gains and eligible dividends. A bond fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of fixed-income securities, such as government bonds, corporate bonds, and mortgage-backed securities. A bond fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would generate mostly interest income, which is taxed at the highest rate among different types of investment income. A bond fund would also have regular distributions, which would trigger taxes every year. An asset allocation fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of other mutual funds that cover different asset classes, such as stocks, bonds, and cash equivalents. An asset allocation fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would have higher fees and more distributions, which would reduce the net returns and trigger taxes every year. An asset allocation fund would also invest in a mix of asset classes, some of which would generate interest income and foreign dividends that are taxed at higher rates than capital gains and eligible dividends. References: [Canadian Equity Index Funds], [Tax-Efficient Investing], [Target Date Funds], [Bond Funds], [Asset Allocation Funds]

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

C is correct because the management expense ratio (MER) reflects the percentage of each dollar of fund assets that is used to pay for management services and operating expenses of a mutual fund. The MER includes various fees and expenses, such as management fees, administration fees, trailer fees, audit fees, legal fees, and taxes. The MER reduces the return of the fund, as it is deducted from the fund’s income and capital gains before they are distributed to investors. Mutual funds are not required to calculate the MER on a daily basis (A), but rather on an annual basis. Trailer and brokerage fees are included in the MER (B), not charged separately. Mutual fund performance is impacted by the MER (D), as it lowers the net return of the fund. Rates of return are published net of fees, but they do not reflect the impact of the MER on the fund’s performance.

Disclosure documents are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s features, risks, performance, fees, and expenses to investors and regulators. Disclosure documents are required by securities laws and must be prepared and filed by the fund manager in accordance with the prescribed rules and standards. Disclosure documents relating to mutual funds include the following:

Statement of net assets: This is a document that shows the value of the fund’s assets and liabilities as of a specific date. It also shows the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund, which is the price at which investors can buy or sell units of the fund. The statement of net assets is part of the fund’s financial statements, which are prepared and filed semi-annually and annually.

Annual information form (AIF): This is a document that provides additional information about the fund that is not included in the simplified prospectus or the fund facts. The AIF includes information such as the fund’s history, organization, management, governance, policies, risks, conflicts of interest, fees, expenses, taxation, and legal matters. The AIF is prepared and filed annually.

Management reports of fund performance (MRFP): These are documents that provide information about the fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFPs are prepared by the fund manager and filed semi-annually and annually. The MRFPs include sections such as financial highlights, past performance, summary of investment portfolio, management discussion of fund performance, and financial statements.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

Endowment bias leads investors to overvalue assets they own compared to similar assets they do not own. The feedback from the document states:

"People who are subject to endowment bias place more value on an asset they hold property rights to than on an asset they do not hold property rights to."

A registered disability savings plan (RDSP) is a savings plan intended to help parents and others save for the long-term financial security of a person who is eligible for the disability tax credit (DTC). The DTC is a non-refundable tax credit that helps persons with disabilities or their supporting persons reduce the amount of income tax they may have to pay. To be eligible for the DTC, a person must have a severe and prolonged impairment in physical or mental functions, as defined by the Income Tax Act and as certified by a medical practitioner. Therefore, Alex must qualify for the DTC in order to be eligible for an RDSP. References: What is a registered disability savings plan (RDSP) - Canada.ca, Disability tax credit - Canada.ca

When an investor purchases a mutual fund, the price is based on the next NAVPS (Net Asset Value Per Share) calculated after the order is entered. Orders placed before 4:00 p.m. ET are priced at that day’s closing NAV; orders after 4:00 p.m. are priced using the next business day’s NAV.

Since the order was placed at 2:30 p.m. ET, today’s NAV applies.

In a defined contribution plan, the retirement benefit depends on the performance of the investments within the plan, also known as a money-purchase plan. The feedback from the document states:

"In a defined contribution plan, also known as a money-purchase plan, the eventual benefits at retirement will be based on how the contributions were invested within the plan."

Discussing questionable personal experiences in a public setting can harm the representative’s professional image, relating to the aspect of other personal endeavors. The feedback from the document states:

"The representative must take care to ensure that any publicly visible activity in which he participates is conducted responsibly and moderately so as not to present an unfavorable public image."

Beta measures systematic (market) risk:

Beta = 1.0 → moves with market.

Beta < 1.0 → less volatile, more defensive.

Beta > 1.0 → more volatile, aggressive.

Defensive stocks (e.g., banks, utilities) typically have low betas.

Given options:

0.5 (A) = least risky, most defensive.

2.0 (B) = highly aggressive.

1.0 (C) = average risk.

1.5 (D) = above-average risk.

Mutual fund registrants are expected to:

Act in clients’ best interests.

Provide advice to help achieve client financial goals.

A (circumventing rules) is illegal.

B (developing financial plans) may be part of the role, but the CSC stresses suitability and addressing client goals.

D (cross-selling) benefits the dealer, not the client.

✅ Correct = Addressing client goals.

The question that you should ask Sarah and Kyle next is what is their investment objective for these savings. An investment objective is a statement that defines the purpose and goals of an investment. It helps investors and advisors select suitable investment products and strategies that match the investor’s needs and expectations. An investment objective typically considers factors such as risk tolerance, return expectations, time horizon, liquidity needs, tax situation, and personal preferences. Therefore, option B is the correct question to ask Sarah and Kyle next. The other options are not relevant or sufficient to determine their investment objective. Option A is related to their risk tolerance, but it is not the only factor that affects their investment objective. Option C is related to their net worth, but it does not indicate their purpose and goals for their savings. Option D is related to their income, but it does not reflect their return expectations or liquidity needs for their savings. References: [Investment Objective Definition], [Investment Objectives: What They Are and How to Use Them], [Investment Objectives | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Taline’s risk profile should be “low” because her risk capacity is low and she cannot afford large investment losses. Risk capacity is the degree of risk that an investor must take in order to achieve their financial goals, while risk tolerance is the degree of risk that an investor is willing to take. Risk capacity is more important than risk tolerance in determining an investor’s risk profile1. Taline has a low risk capacity because she lives on a low, fixed income and cannot afford to lose money. Her risk tolerance may be high, but that does not mean she should take more risk than she can handle. Faruq should not override Taline’s risk capacity or assess her risk profile based on the higher of her risk tolerance and risk capacity, as that would be unsuitable and unethical. References: Unit 3: Suitability

Tony is employing a top-down investment approach, which is a method of selecting securities based on macroeconomic factors, such as the state of the economy, the industry trends, and the market conditions. A top-down investor starts by analyzing the big picture and then drills down to the specific sectors, regions, and companies that are expected to perform well in that environment. Tony has done an economic analysis of the various provinces and sectors of the Canadian economy and has determined that Nova Scotia and Alberta present the best prospects. He has also identified potential in the oil and gas sector. He then narrows down his selection to an oil supply firm in Medicine Hat and a drilling company in Halifax. This shows that he is using a top-down approach to choose his investments.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return1

Systematic risk (market risk) affects the entire market or asset class, and cannot be diversified away. A downturn in Canadian equities impacts all Canadian stocks, making it a systematic risk.

Unique risk (A) is company-specific and can be diversified away.

Currency risk (B) arises from exchange rate fluctuations, not applicable here.

Default risk (C) applies to debt issuers failing to meet obligations, not equities.

The right of withdrawal is a statutory right that allows investors to cancel their mutual fund purchase within two business days of receiving the Fund Facts document or confirmation of purchase, whichever is later. The right of withdrawal is based on the securities act legislation within the jurisdiction where the purchase occurred, which may vary slightly across provinces and territories.

By asking Brad about his financial obligations and assets, you are trying to gather information about his net worth, which is one of the essential facts that you need to know about your client according to the KYC rule. Net worth is the difference between the total value of a client’s assets and the total value of their liabilities. It reflects the client’s financial position and helps you assess their risk tolerance, investment objectives, and suitability for different products and services.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 1: The Financial Services Industry - Section 1.3: Know Your Client (KYC)1 and web search results from search_web(query="know your client rule")23

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-1.pdf

The answer that you should tell Lior is that dividend funds tend to be less volatile and lower risk than equity funds. A dividend fund is a type of equity fund that invests primarily in dividend-paying stocks, which are shares of companies that distribute a portion of their earnings to shareholders on a regular basis. A dividend fund provides income and capital appreciation to investors, as well as tax advantages for eligible dividends paid by Canadian corporations. A dividend fund tends to be less volatile and lower risk than an equity fund that invests in non-dividend-paying stocks or growth stocks, which are shares of companies that reinvest their earnings into expanding their business rather than paying dividends. This is because dividend-paying stocks are usually issued by well-established and profitable companies that have stable cash flows and earnings, which make them more resilient to market fluctuations and economic downturns. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what you should tell Lior. The other options are not correct or relevant to what you should tell Lior. Option A is false because equity funds are not more appropriate than dividend funds if Lior requires a steady flow of income; rather, dividend funds are more suitable for income-oriented investors who want to receive regular dividends from their investments. Option B is false because dividend funds do not generate tax-preferred income while income from equity funds is fully taxable; rather, both types of funds generate taxable income for investors, but eligible dividends from Canadian corporations may qualify for a lower tax rate than other types of income due to the dividend tax credit. Option D is false because equity funds do not hold common shares while dividend funds hold only preferred shares; rather, both types of funds hold common shares, but dividend funds focus on common shares that pay dividends, while equity funds may also hold common shares that do not pay dividends or pay low dividends. References: [Dividend Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Equity Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Dividend Tax Credit | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

The dividend tax credit for Canadian dividends is calculated based on the grossed-up dividend amount. For eligible dividends, the gross-up is 38%. The taxable amount for $1,200 in dividends is $1,200 × 1.38 = $1,656. The dividend tax credit is 15.02% of the grossed-up amount: $1,656 × 15.02% = $248.73. The feedback from the document confirms:

"The taxable amount of the dividend is the income received plus a 38% gross-up amount. In this example, $1,200 + ($1,200 × 38%) = $1,656. The dividend tax credit is 15.02% of the grossed-up amount, in this example, $1,656 × 15.02% = $248.73."

 Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder a right to share in the issuer’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. This means that participating preferred shareholders may receive additional dividends if the issuer performs well. Iliana owns participating preferred shares in the First Canadian Bank, which means she has a right to share in the bank’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

Discretionary trading is a type of trading activity where the advisor makes investment decisions on behalf of the client without obtaining the client’s prior consent for each transaction. Discretionary trading is only allowed if the client has signed a discretionary management agreement with the advisor and the advisor is registered as a portfolio manager. A limited authorization form (LAF) does not grant the advisor the authority to engage in discretionary trading. A LAF only allows the advisor to execute trades that are initiated by the client, such as pre-authorized contributions or withdrawals. Therefore, Khuyen has performed discretionary trading by switching Bao’s funds without consulting him, which is a violation of her registrant responsibilities and ethical standards. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 2: The Sales Process, Section 2.4: Ethics and Compliance, page 2-161

Discretionary Trading Definition - Investopedia2

Risk hierarchy in CSC: Common shares (highest risk), Preferred shares, Debentures, Bonds, T-bills (lowest risk) .

Portfolio analysis:

A (Preferred + Common) → Medium-high risk.

B (T-bills + Debentures) → Low-medium risk.

C (Debentures + Common) → Contains common shares (high risk) plus debentures (credit risk), making it highest overall risk.

D (T-bills + Preferred) → Low risk.

Therefore, Portfolio C carries the greatest amount of risk.

To convert the proceeds from USD to CAD, Frederic needs to divide the amount in USD by the exchange rate. The exchange rate is $1 CAD for $0.99 USD, which means that $0.99 USD is equivalent to $1 CAD. Therefore, Frederic will receive

A math problem with numbers AI-generated content may be incorrect.

CAD in Canadian dollars.

The sensitivity of a bond or bond portfolio to interest rate changes is measured by duration, also called time-weighted maturity.

Duration represents the approximate % change in bond price for a 1% change in interest rates.

Higher duration = greater sensitivity to interest rate movements.

Therefore, the correct measure is Time-weighted maturity (Duration).

Money market funds invest in short-term securities that generate interest income, and their unit value remains constant (typically $10), preventing capital gains. The feedback from the document states:

"All returns earned on money market funds are considered interest earnings and are taxed as interest income. Since money market funds invest only in money market securities that pay interest, no other type of income can be earned. Because the value of the units of a money market fund is constant ($10), no capital gains can be made on the sale of units of the fund."

A labour-sponsored investment fund (LSIF) is a type of mutual fund that invests in small and medium-sized businesses that are not publicly traded. LSIFs are sponsored by labour unions or associations and offer tax credits to investors. However, LSIFs are also very risky and illiquid investments that may not be suitable for investors with a medium risk profile, such as Banji. Therefore, Quinton should not proceed with the purchase of the Prospect Labour-Sponsored Fund because it is not suitable for Banji based on her current KYC. Therefore, C is the correct answer. References: Labour-Sponsored Investment Funds (LSIFs): Definition and How They Work - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

Michael, capital gains are the profits you make when you sell an asset that has increased in value. For example, if you bought a mutual fund for $1,000 and sold it later for $1,500, you have a capital gain of $500. Capital gains are taxed only when they are realized, which means when you actually sell the asset and receive the proceeds. You do not have to report any unrealized capital gains, which are the potential profits you would make if you sold the asset at its current market value. Capital gains are taxed on all types of mutual funds, not just equity funds. However, the amount of capital gains you have to report may vary depending on the type of fund and how often it distributes its gains to investors. Capital gains are not tax-free, but they are taxed at a lower rate than other types of income. You only have to pay tax on 50% of your net capital gains, which is the total capital gains minus the total capital losses in a year. For more information on how to calculate and report your capital gains, you can refer to the Canada Revenue Agency website1 or consult a tax professional.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 9: Taxation of Investment Income2

The peak stage of the business cycle is marked by demand exceeding supply, leading to rising wages, inflation, and interest rates, while sales slow and business investment decreases. The feedback from the document states:

"The top of the cycle is called a peak. A peak is characterized by the following activities: demand begins to outstrip the capacity of the economy to supply it; wages increase; inflation rises; interest rates rise and bond prices fall; sales begin to decline; business investment slows, and stock market activity begins to decline."

LSIFs are a type of investment fund that provide venture capital to small and medium-sized Canadian businesses, while offering tax benefits to investors. However, LSIFs are also considered high-risk and illiquid investments, as they invest in private companies that may not have a proven track record or marketability. Therefore, LSIFs are not suitable for investors with a short-term time horizon or a low risk tolerance. Investors who buy LSIFs receive a 15% federal tax credit and may also receive an additional provincial tax credit, depending on the province where they reside. However, these tax credits are conditional on holding the LSIF investment for at least 8 years. If investors redeem their LSIF investment before the 8-year period, they will have to repay the tax credits they received.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

 A material conflict of interest is a situation where a Dealing Representative or their firm has an interest that could reasonably be expected to affect the exercise of their professional judgment or influence their actions or recommendations. A Dealing Representative must identify, disclose, and manage any material conflicts of interest in the best interest of their clients. Oscar has properly addressed the material conflict of interest arising from the higher MER by reporting it to his dealer, disclosing it to his client, and explaining how it is in the client’s best interest. The other scenarios do not demonstrate proper management of material conflicts of interest.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

Overconfidence bias leads investors to overestimate their knowledge or the reliability of information, such as a “hot tip,” prompting them to act without sufficient due diligence. The feedback from the document states:

"Overconfidence is defined generally as unwarranted faith in one’s intuitive reasoning, judgements and cognitive abilities. People tend to overestimate both their predictive abilities as well as the precision of the information they have been given. For example, an investor may get a tip from a wealth advisor or read something on the Internet about an investment opportunity, and then take action (that is, make the decision to invest) based on her perceived knowledge advantage."

A defined contribution pension plan (DCPP) is a type of retirement savings plan where the employer and/or employee make contributions to an individual account for the employee. The retirement benefits depend on the amount of contributions and the investment returns. Contributions to a DCPP reduce the employee’s available registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) contribution room, which is the maximum amount that can be contributed to an RRSP each year without tax penalties.

Hedge fund incentive fees apply only to returns above the hurdle rate.

Gross return = 22%

Hurdle rate = 5%

Excess return = 22% − 5% = 17%

Incentive fee = 20% × 17% = 3.4%

Thus, the fund manager earns 3.4% compensation.

According to the Closed-End Funds vs. Open-End Funds: What’s the Difference? - Investopedia, open-end funds are mutual funds that can issue an unlimited number of shares to investors. The number of units is not fixed, and varies with investor demand and redemption orders. Investors buy and sell open-end funds directly from the fund company at the net asset value (NAV) of the fund, which is calculated at the end of each trading day. Open-end funds are not traded on an exchange or in the secondary market.

 A fund of funds is a mutual fund that invests in other mutual funds. This means that there are two levels of management fees: one for the fund of funds itself and one for the underlying funds. Therefore, fund of funds have higher fees than traditional mutual funds that invest directly in securities.

A is correct because Francis will receive $37,888 in Canadian dollars when he redeems the Funds. This is calculated by dividing the current proceeds from the redemption in US dollars by the current CAD/USD exchange rate and rounding to the nearest dollar. That is,

The Fund Facts document is a summary disclosure document that highlights key information about a mutual fund or an exchange-traded fund (ETF), such as the performance history, investments, fees, and risks. According to the Point of Sale (POS) disclosure rules, a Dealing Representative must provide and explain the Fund Facts document to the client before accepting an order to buy or switch a fund. This allows the client to make an informed investment decision and to know their rights.

References = Fund Facts | AMF - Autorité des marchés financiers, Fund Facts/ETF Facts - Fidelity, Understanding Fund Facts | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca, IFSE CIFC Module 2: The Investment Industry, page 2-16.

Research and the CSC curriculum stress that asset allocation is the single most important factor in determining portfolio performance, more than market timing or security selection.

Proper asset mix (equities, fixed income, cash) accounts for most portfolio success or failure.

This account/transaction is unsuitable because it does not match Gilles’ investment needs and objectives, risk profile, and capacity for loss. A leverage strategy involves borrowing money to invest in mutual funds, which increases the potential returns but also the potential losses. This strategy is very risky and requires a high risk tolerance, a long-term investment horizon, and a sufficient income to cover the interest payments. Gilles is 82 years old, retired, and needs regular income, which means he has a low risk tolerance, a short-term investment horizon, and a limited income. He cannot afford to lose his principal or pay the interest costs. Therefore, a leverage strategy is not appropriate for him.

References = IFSE CIFC Module 3: Investment Products, page 3-24. What is Suitability? | MFDAMSN-0069 | MFDA

Loretta is looking for a well diversified equity fund that invests both within and outside Canada. She also wants a fund that invests in quality companies, which implies that she prefers lower risk and higher stability. A global equity fund would meet her criteria, as it can invest in any country, including Canada, and diversify across different regions and markets. A global equity fund that focuses on large, established companies, also known as blue chip stocks, would also suit her preference for quality and stability, as these companies tend to have strong financial performance, competitive advantages, and consistent dividends. Therefore, the Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund would be the best choice for Loretta among the given options.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6, Section 6.2

Your body language would be the most important to create an impressive first impression on your potential client. Body language is the non-verbal communication that includes your posture, gestures, facial expressions, eye contact, and physical distance. Body language can convey your confidence, enthusiasm, professionalism, and trustworthiness. According to research, body language accounts for 55% of the impact of a first impression, while tone of voice accounts for 38% and words account for only 7%. The other statements are less important than body language. Volume of your voice is part of your tone of voice, which can affect how your words are perceived by your potential client. However, volume alone is not enough to create an impressive first impression; you also need to consider your pitch, pace, and intonation. Your words are what you say to your potential client, which can include your introduction, your value proposition, and your questions. Your words are important to convey your message and establish rapport with your potential client. However, your words have less impact than your body language and tone of voice on your first impression. Tone of your voice is how you say your words, which can include your volume, pitch, pace, and intonation. Your tone of voice can influence how your potential client feels about you and your message. However, your tone of voice has less impact than your body language on your first impression. References: Unit 10: Sales Process, [The Importance Of Body Language In First Impressions]

Kiri has correctly fulfilled his suitability obligation by matching the risk-return profile of the fund with the personal circumstances of his client. The Conservative Bond Fund is a low-risk, low-return fund that pays regular interest income to investors. Myrtle’s investment objective is “income”, which means she wants to receive steady income from her investments and preserve her capital. Therefore, Kiri’s recommendation is reasonably suitable for Myrtle in all the circumstances. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest

IFSE Institute: Suitability Obligations1

SFC: Frequently Asked Questions on Compliance with Suitability Obligations2

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, a stock exchange is a centralized and regulated market where securities of listed companies are traded between buyers and sellers. A stock exchange has strict listing requirements that companies must meet in order to be eligible for trading on the exchange. These requirements may include minimum capitalization, number of shareholders, financial reporting, corporate governance, and compliance with securities laws. A stock exchange also provides liquidity, transparency, and efficiency for the trading of securities.

An over-the-counter (OTC) market is a decentralized and unregulated market where securities that are not listed on a stock exchange are traded between dealers and brokers. An OTC market has no physical location, rather the trading is done through phone, email, or computer networks. An OTC market has lower listing requirements than a stock exchange, which makes it easier for smaller or newer companies to access capital. However, an OTC market also has less liquidity, transparency, and efficiency than a stock exchange.

Therefore, if Underground Airways Ltd. wants to take their privately owned corporation public through an initial public offering (IPO), they would have to weigh the pros and cons of listing on a stock exchange or the OTC market. One of the main considerations is that a stock exchange listing would provide them with greater market exposure and public confidence than listing on the OTC market. This is because a stock exchange listing signals that the company has met the high standards of the exchange and is subject to ongoing regulation and oversight. A stock exchange listing also attracts more investors, analysts, and media attention than an OTC listing. A stock exchange listing may also increase the value and liquidity of the company’s shares.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 5: Equity Securities)

 Relationship Disclosure Information (RDI) is a document that provides important information about the nature and scope of the relationship between a registered firm and its clients. It covers topics such as the products and services offered by the firm, the fees and charges applicable to the client’s account, the risks associated with investing, the conflict of interest management policies of the firm, and the dispute resolution services available to the client. According to Section 14.2 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), registered firms must provide RDI to their clients before they purchase or sell securities for them or advise them to do so. Registered firms must also update RDI in a timely manner if there are any significant changes to it. To evidence that they have satisfied their RDI obligation, registered firms may retain a copy of the RDI in the client file with detailed notes to confirm that they have provided and explained RDI to their clients. This is one of the acceptable methods suggested by Alberta Securities Commission (ASC) in its presentation on RDI1. Delivering RDI only upon request or using a letter of engagement are not sufficient methods to comply with NI 31-103. Providing and explaining Fund Facts is a separate obligation under NI 31-101 Mutual Fund Distribution Rules. References: Relationship Disclosure Information August 2021, Relationship Disclosure Information, Relationship Disclosure Information

A short-term bond fund combines characteristics of money market and bond funds, aiming to preserve capital while generating higher income than a money market fund due to its short duration. The feedback from the document states:

"A short-term bond fund is part money market fund and part bond fund. You would expect its investment objectives to reflect this combination. A short-term bond fund’s objectives are to preserve capital and generate better current income than is likely from a money market fund. Although there is some capital gain potential, you would not expect this to be a key objective given the short duration of this type of fixed-income fund."

Gerard’s investment time horizon is the length of time he plans to hold his investment until he needs to use the money for his specific goal. In this case, Gerard’s goal is to use his mutual fund portfolio to meet the 20% down payment requirement to buy a house for $650,000. Therefore, his investment time horizon is determined by how long it will take him to accumulate enough money in his portfolio to cover the down payment amount. Assuming that Gerard does not withdraw any money from his portfolio and that his portfolio earns a constant annual rate of return of 6%, we can use the following formula to calculate how long it will take him to reach his goal:

FV=PV×(1+r)n+PMT×r(1+r)n−1​

where:

FV is the future value of the portfolio

PV is the present value of the portfolio

r is the annual interest rate

n is the number of years

PMT is the monthly payment

We can rearrange the formula to solve for n:

n=log(1+r)logPV+PMT×r1​FV−PMT×r1​​​

Plugging in the given values, we get:

n=log(1+0.06)log40,000+1,500×0.061​130,000−1,500×0.061​​​

n=4.98

Therefore, Gerard’s investment time horizon is approximately 5 years, not considering market fluctuations. This means that he will need to invest his money in a way that matches his risk tolerance and expected return for this time period.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.6: Asset Allocation and Diversification, page 4-271

Future Value of an Annuity Definition - Investopedia2

The Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) is a program that allows eligible first-time home buyers to withdraw up to $35,000 from their registered retirement savings plans (RRSPs) to buy or build a qualifying home without paying any tax on the withdrawal. The withdrawn amount must be repaid to the RRSP over a period of up to 15 years, starting from the second year after the withdrawal. If the required repayment for a year is not made, it is added to the taxpayer’s income and subject to tax. Therefore, option B describes a feature of the HBP. The other options are not correct descriptions of the HBP. Option A is false because to qualify as a first-time home buyer, you or your spouse must not have owned and lived in another home as your principal place of residence during the four-year period before the date of withdrawal. Option C is false because a qualifying home must be purchased or built before October 1 of the year following the year of withdrawal. Option D is false because if you have a spouse or common-law partner, each of you can withdraw up to $35,000 from your RRSPs, not $50,000. References: [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP)], [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) - Canada.ca], [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Dividends from a large public Canadian corporation are eligible for the dividend tax credit, which reduces the amount of tax payable on this type of income. The dividend tax credit is a non-refundable tax credit that recognizes that dividends are paid out of income that has already been taxed at the corporate level, and therefore should not be taxed again at the personal level. The dividend tax credit applies to both federal and provincial taxes, and the rates vary depending on the province or territory of residence12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 4: Taxation - Section 4.1: Taxation of Investment Income3 and web search results from search_web(query="tax treatment of different types of investment income in Canada")12

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-4.pdf

The amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC is $950,000. The IPC is a not-for-profit corporation that provides coverage to eligible clients of insolvent members of the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA). The IPC covers up to $1 million per account type per client for losses of securities, cash, and other property held by the insolvent member. The account types include RRSPs, RRIFs, TFSAs, RESPs, and non-registered accounts. Therefore, the client will be eligible for coverage of $950,000 for his RRSP account, which is the value of his securities and cash held by Tradewell Mutual Funds in his RRSP account. The client will not be eligible for any coverage for his non-registered account, as it is held in nominee name, meaning that the securities and cash are registered in the name of Tradewell Mutual Funds on behalf of the client. Nominee name accounts are not covered by the IPC, as they are not considered to be at risk in the event of insolvency. Therefore, option B is correct regarding the amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC. The other options are not correct regarding the amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC. Option A is false because the client will be eligible for some coverage, as his RRSP account is covered by the IPC. Option C is false because the client will not be eligible for coverage of $1.5 million, as his non-registered account is not covered by the IPC. Option D is false because the client will not be eligible for coverage of $550,000, as his non-registered account is not covered by the IPC. References: [IPC Coverage | IFIC], [IPC - Home], [IPC - Coverage]

An income trust is an investment trust that holds income-producing assets, such as debt instruments, royalty interests, or real properties. It can be structured as either a personal investment fund or a commercial trust with publicly traded closed-end fund shares. The main attraction of income trusts, in addition to certain tax preferences for some investors, is their stated goal of paying out consistent cash flows for investors, which is especially attractive when cash yields on bonds are low12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.3: Income Trusts3 and web search results from search_web(query="income trust")12

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

Know Your Client (KYC) requirements are ongoing obligations that advisors must fulfill to ensure that they provide suitable recommendations and services to their clients. KYC requirements include collecting and documenting information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. KYC requirements also include monitoring and updating the client’s information and investment performance on a regular basis. According to the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA), advisors must review the KYC information at least once every 36 months, or more frequently if there are any material changes in the client’s circumstances or needs1. Advisors must also monitor the investment performance of the client’s portfolio and compare it with the client’s expectations and goals. If the investment performance is not satisfactory or consistent with the client’s risk tolerance, advisors must take appropriate actions, such as rebalancing the portfolio, switching funds, or revising the investment strategy2. Therefore, Harold’s responsibility moving forward is to monitor the investment performance of Felicia’s lump sum investment and determine if it is on track to satisfy her financial needs for the next 5 years. He must also review her KYC information at least once every 36 months, or sooner if there are any changes in her situation or objectives. References:

MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Know-Your-Client and Suitability1

MFDA Bulletin #0760-P - Monitoring of Investment Performance2

According to the MFDA rules, a Member or an Approved Person cannot accept or act upon a general power of attorney or other similar authorization from a client in favour of the Member or Approved Person, unless the client is a spouse, parent, or child of the Approved Person and certain conditions are met. However, a Member or an Approved Person can accept a limited trading authorization from a client, which allows the Member or Approved Person to execute trades on behalf of the client, but not to engage in any discretionary trading. Therefore, Josephine can accept a limited POA from her brother, as long as she does not make any investment decisions without his consent.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 1: The Financial Services Industry - Section 1.3: Know Your Client (KYC)1 and web search results from search_web(query="power of attorney and mutual fund dealers association rules")23

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-1.pdf

A registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered plan that provides a stream of income in retirement. A RRIF can be created by converting an RRSP, but once the conversion is done, the plan holder can no longer make contributions to the RRSP or the RRIF. Therefore, any unused RRSP contribution room is lost after the conversion. The other statements are incorrect because:

A. There is a minimum age to be an annuitant to a RRIF, which is 71 years old. However, a plan holder can convert an RRSP to a RRIF at any age before 71.

C. Minimum withdrawals are required to start in the year following the year the RRIF was established, not in the current calendar year.

D. Investments that qualify as an eligible investment for a RRIF are the same as for an RRSP, such as mutual funds, stocks, bonds, GICs, etc. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.2: Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF), page 6-81

Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF) - Canada.ca2

According to the MFDA Rules, a Dealing Representative is required to make a suitability determination every time:

The Dealing Representative makes a recommendation to a client;

The Dealing Representative accepts a trade instruction from a client;

The Dealing Representative opens a new account for a client or changes the account type;

The Dealing Representative becomes aware of a material change in the client’s KYC information;

Securities are transferred or re-registered into the client’s account; or

There has been a change in the Approved Person responsible for the client’s account2

A suitability determination is the process of ensuring that any investment action taken for a client is suitable for the client based on their KYC information, such as investment objectives, risk tolerance, time horizon, financial situation, and investment knowledge. A suitability determination also requires putting the client’s interests first and disclosing any material factors involved in the investment action2

Therefore, Winter is required to make a suitability determination every time she makes a recommendation to a client (i) or she opens a new client account (iii). She is not required to make a suitability determination every time a client’s investment returns decline (ii) or the markets fluctuate (iv), unless these events trigger a material change in the client’s KYC information or affect the suitability of the client’s portfolio.

 1: MSN-0069 | MFDA 2 (Know-Your-Client (KYC) and Suitability)

The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) is a federal law that imposes requirements on the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by organizations in the private sector that are subject to federal regulation, such as banks, telecommunications, transportation, and broadcasting. PIPEDA also applies to organizations that operate in provinces or territories that do not have substantially similar privacy legislation, such as Alberta, British Columbia, and Québec. PIPEDA does not apply to consumers, departments and agencies of the Government of Canada, or departments and agencies of provincial governments, as they are governed by other privacy laws or regulations12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7: The Regulatory Environment, Lesson 3: Privacy Legislation, Section 7.3.1: Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) 1; Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada website

A mutual fund trust structure allows the fund to avoid taxation by distributing its income to unitholders. The feedback from the document states:

"The most common structure for mutual funds in Canada is the open-end trust. The trust structure allows a fund itself to avoid taxation. Any interest, dividends and capital gains income, net of the fund’s fees, expenses and capital losses, if passed to its unitholders each calendar year, will allow the trust to avoid being taxed on its income."

A simplified prospectus is a legal document that provides essential information about a mutual fund, such as its investment objectives, strategies, risks, fees, performance, and distribution policy. A simplified prospectus also contains information about the fund manager, the dealer, and the rights of investors. A fund facts is a summary document that highlights the key information from the simplified prospectus in a concise and easy-to-read format. A fund facts is delivered to investors before or at the time of purchase of a mutual fund12

One of the information that can be found from a simplified prospectus instead of fund facts is the investment strategies that are being used or proposed to be used by the mutual fund. The investment strategies describe how the fund manager intends to achieve the fund’s investment objectives, such as the types of securities, markets, sectors, or styles that the fund will invest in, the asset allocation or diversification policy, the use of derivatives or leverage, or the criteria for selecting or selling securities. The investment strategies may also include any restrictions or limitations that the fund must follow, such as the minimum or maximum exposure to certain securities, markets, or sectors, or the adherence to any ethical, environmental, social, or governance (ESG) principles. The investment strategies provide investors with a detailed and comprehensive understanding of how the fund operates and what risks it may entail34

The other options are not correct, as they can be found in both the simplified prospectus and the fund facts. The costs associated with mutual fund investing include the sales charges, trailing commissions, management fees, operating expenses, and taxes that investors may have to pay when they buy, hold, or sell a mutual fund. These costs are disclosed in both documents, as they affect the returns and performance of the fund12 A summary of the top 10 investment holdings shows the largest positions that the fund holds in its portfolio, such as the names and percentages of the securities, markets, or sectors that the fund invests in. This summary gives investors a snapshot of the fund’s composition and diversification, and it is updated regularly in both documents12 Investor rights regarding cancelling an order refer to the right of withdrawal and the right of rescission that investors have when they purchase a mutual fund. The right of withdrawal allows investors to cancel their purchase within two business days of receiving the fund facts or the confirmation of purchase, and receive a refund of the purchase price or the market value of the fund, whichever is less. The right of rescission allows investors to cancel their purchase within 48 hours of receiving the confirmation of purchase, if they did not receive the fund facts before or at the time of purchase, and receive a refund of the purchase price or the market value of the fund, whichever is less. These rights are explained in both documents, as they protect the interests of investors12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 4: Mutual Fund Disclosure Documents, Section 6.4.1: Simplified Prospectus 1; Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 4: Mutual Fund Disclosure Documents, Section 6.4.2: Fund Facts 2; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.4.1 3; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.4.2 4

Jabir will be eligible to open new client accounts and sell investments only after he receives formal confirmation from the securities regulator that he is registered as a Dealing Representative. This is because registration is a legal requirement for anyone who trades securities or advises clients on securities in Canada, unless an exemption applies. Registration helps protect investors by ensuring that only qualified and competent individuals and firms can conduct securities related business. Jabir must also meet the proficiency, solvency, and suitability requirements for registration, as well as comply with the ongoing obligations of a registrant. Passing the proficiency course and being employed by the dealer are necessary but not sufficient conditions for registration. The dealer must apply for registration on behalf of Jabir and wait for the regulator’s approval.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 1, Section 1.2

The information that is typically included in the Letter of Engagement is the client’s responsibilities. A Letter of Engagement is a document that formalizes the relationship between a registered firm and its client by specifying the duties, responsibilities, and level of service that both parties agree to. It also outlines the fees and charges that apply to the client’s account, the scope and frequency of reporting and communication, and the process for resolving disputes or terminating the relationship. The client’s responsibilities may include providing accurate and complete information, reviewing statements and reports, informing of any changes in circumstances or objectives, and complying with applicable laws and regulations. Therefore, option A is correct regarding what information is typically included in the Letter of Engagement. The other options are not correct or relevant to the Letter of Engagement. Option B is false because the process for complaints is not typically included in the Letter of Engagement; rather, it is part of the Relationship Disclosure Information (RDI) that is provided to clients at account opening and updated as necessary. Option C is false because the investment objective is not typically included in the Letter of Engagement; rather, it is part of the Know Your Client (KYC) information that is collected from clients at account opening and updated as necessary. Option D is false because the payee for deposits is not typically included in the Letter of Engagement; rather, it is part of the account documentation that specifies how clients can deposit or withdraw funds from their accounts. References: [Letter of Engagement | IFIC], [Relationship Disclosure Information | IFIC], [Know Your Client (KYC) | IFIC]

The portfolio shown is heavily concentrated in Canadian equities, across growth, index, resources, and value funds. Since all investments are in equities, the primary risk is market risk (systematic risk), meaning the portfolio’s value will fluctuate with overall stock market conditions.

Counterparty risk relates to derivative or trading partners.

Interest rate risk is most relevant to fixed-income securities.

Foreign exchange risk applies to foreign investments.

Thus, the correct answer is Market risk.

Beta is a relative measure that compares how an investment reacts to movements in a specific index. A beta of 1 means that the investment moves in sync with the index. A beta greater than 1 means that the investment is more volatile than the index. A beta less than 1 means that the investment is less volatile than the index.

 If Ellen receives the National Child Benefit Supplement (NCBS), Jeff may be eligible for the Canada Learning Bond (CLB). The CLB is a grant of up to $2,000 that the Government of Canada deposits into a child’s RESP to help low-income families start saving for their child’s education2. The CLB does not require any contributions from the parents. To be eligible for the CLB, the child must have been born after December 31, 2003 and the family must receive the NCBS, which is part of the Canada Child Benefit3. The other statements are false. If Jeff qualifies for additional CESG, his CESG lifetime maximum increases to $7,200, not $10,000. If Jeff decides not to pursue a post-secondary education, he cannot keep the CESG; it must be returned to the government. George may open an RESP for Jeff and it will qualify to receive CESGs, as long as George is a resident of Canada and has a valid social insurance number. References: Unit 8: Retirement, Canada Learning Bond, [Canada Education Savings Grant], [RESP Withdrawals], [RESP Providers]

This statement is correct because yield-to-maturity (YTM) is the annualized rate of return of a bond that assumes that all coupon payments are reinvested at the same rate until the bond matures. YTM takes into account the bond’s current market price, par value, coupon rate, and time to maturity, and it calculates the compound interest earned on the reinvested coupons. Therefore, YTM reflects the total return of the bond, including both the interest income and the capital gain or loss.

References = Current Yield vs. Yield to Maturity - Investopedia, Yield to Maturity (YTM) - Investopedia, Bond Current Yield Calculator

 A lifecycle fund is a type of asset-allocation fund that automatically adjusts its portfolio composition according to the investor’s age and risk tolerance. As the investor gets closer to their retirement date or target date, the fund shifts from more risky assets, such as stocks, to less risky assets, such as bonds and cash. This is done to reduce the volatility and preserve the capital of the fund as the investor approaches their withdrawal phase. Therefore, statement A is true about lifecycle funds. Statement B is false because different lifecycle funds may have different initial allocations depending on their target dates and risk profiles. Statement C is false because the asset allocation of a lifecycle fund changes over time according to a predetermined glide path that gradually reduces risk. Statement D is false because investor income is not the only basis for changing the asset allocation of a lifecycle fund; other factors, such as age, risk tolerance, investment objectives, and time horizon, are also considered. References: Life-Cycle Fund: How They Work, Examples, Lifecycle Funds | The Thrift Savings Plan (TSP), What Is a Lifecycle Fund? | The Motley Fool

The investment objective for the $10,000 currently sitting in Lucas’s RRSP is safety of principal, which means that he wants to preserve the value of his investment and avoid any loss of capital. Safety of principal is a suitable objective for Lucas because he plans to withdraw the money in two months for the LLP, which is a very short time horizon. He does not need to generate any income or growth from his investment, as he will use the money to pay for his education expenses. He also does not need to worry about tax-deferral, as the LLP allows him to withdraw money from his RRSP without paying any tax, as long as he meets the eligibility and repayment requirements1. Therefore, Lucas should invest his money in low-risk and liquid assets, such as money market securities or guaranteed investment certificates (GICs), that will protect his principal and ensure that he can access his funds when he needs them. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.4: Lifelong Learning Plan (LLP), page 6-132

Lifelong Learning Plan (LLP) - Canada.ca1

In Canada, anyone involved in securities enforcement or adjudication must be properly licensed or registered.

The unlicensed new hire erred by taking on a case (licensing violation) without being formally registered, violating regulatory requirements.

Requesting subpoenas (A) and FATF involvement (C) may show poor judgment, but the fundamental error is acting without registration.

 A life income fund (LIF) is a type of registered retirement income fund (RRIF) that can be used to hold locked-in pension funds as well as other assets for an eventual payout as retirement income. A LIF cannot be withdrawn in a lump sum and has minimum and maximum withdrawal amounts each year. A LIF can only be funded by transferring money from a locked-in retirement account (LIRA) or another LIF. Therefore, D is the correct answer. References: Life Income Fund (LIF): Definition and How Withdrawals Work - Investopedia, Retraite Québec - Characteristics of an LIF

A is correct because retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to sell the shares back to the issuer at a predetermined price and within a specified time. This feature provides the holder with more flexibility and protection against interest rate fluctuations. Participating preferred shares (B) are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the right to receive additional dividends if the issuer’s earnings exceed a certain level. Convertible preferred shares © are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to convert the shares into common shares of the issuer at a predetermined ratio and price. Redeemable preferred shares (D) are a type of preferred shares that give the issuer the option to buy back the shares from the holder at a predetermined price and within a specified time.

Sector rotation is an investment philosophy that prioritizes weighting industries based on their expected performance during different economic cycles, placing less emphasis on individual security selection. The feedback from the document states:

"Sector rotation is a portfolio manager’s attempt to profit through timing. It is based on the belief that different industries will perform well during certain stages of the economic cycle. Industries expected to outperform would be overweighted. More emphasis is placed on industry weighting than on security selection."

By ignoring sales quotas and prioritizing client needs, the representative adheres to the standard of putting the client’s interests first. The feedback from the document states:

"Priority of Client’s Interest: The client’s interest must be the foremost consideration in all business dealings. In situations where you may have an interest that competes with that of the client, the client’s interest must be given priority."

Promising that a mutual fund’s NAVPU will increase by a certain amount is an illegal and unacceptable selling practice, as it implies guaranteed future performance. The feedback from the document states:

"There are a number of sales practices that are clearly illegal or otherwise unacceptable to securities regulators. A dealing representative may not make promises that the NAVPS or NAVPU of a fund will achieve a certain level or increase by any amount."

Old Age Security (OAS) requires Canadian residency for eligibility. A pensioner must typically have resided in Canada for at least 10 years after age 18 to qualify.

CPP (C) is contributory and based on employment earnings, not residency.

RPP (B) is an employer-sponsored pension, not linked to residency.

GIS (D) is a supplement to OAS and also requires residency but is dependent on OAS eligibility.

Withdrawals under a ratio withdrawal plan are based on the current portfolio value, ensuring the fund is never fully depleted unless a 100% payout ratio is used. The feedback from the document states:

"Under a ratio withdrawal plan, the ratio is always based on the current portfolio value. Technically, this means that clients will never fully exhaust their mutual fund investment under this type of plan. Only in the unrealistic situation of a 100% payout ratio would the fund be completely paid out."

The value of John’s investment on December 31 of this year can be calculated by multiplying the number of units he holds by the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) on that date. Since John invested $500 on January 3 and $500 on July 1, he holds a total of 125.6 units (62.8 units from the first investment and 62.8 units from the second investment). Therefore, the value of his investment on December 31 will be 125.6 units x $9.55 NAVPU = $1,256.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2: Mutual Funds1

A long margin purchase means buying securities partly with borrowed funds from the dealer .

The investor pays part of the purchase price (the margin), while the dealer lends the balance .

This differs from:

A (cash purchase): uses only own funds.

B (limit order): unrelated, based on price conditions.

D (short sale): selling borrowed shares, not buying.

Correct action = buying shares on borrowed funds at market price.

A T3 or T5 slip reporting a capital gain is issued when an investor sells their mutual fund units at a profit, not when the fund itself realizes gains. The feedback from the document states:

"In the normal course of portfolio management, shares are bought and sold either at a gain or at a loss for the fund. By the end of the year, many funds will have generated net capital gains on their portfolio transactions. The capital gains are distributed in the form of a capital gains dividend reported on a T5 or T3." However, for the investor, the correct answer is A, as clarified by standard tax rules: capital gains are realized by the investor upon selling units at a price higher than their average cost.

If Helen believes in the Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH), she accepts that markets fully reflect available information and that it is nearly impossible to consistently beat the market.

The recommended action is passive investing, e.g., buying an index-tracking ETF.

B (market timing) and D (security selection) contradict EMH.

A custodian in mutual fund is a trust company, bank, or similar financial institution that is responsible for holding and safeguarding the securities owned within a mutual fund. The custodian also records and reports all transactions to the fund manager. The custodian does not oversee the general administration, construct and manage the portfolio, or calculate the NAVPU of the mutual fund. These are the roles of other entities such as the fund administrator, the fund manager, and the fund accountant.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.2: Mutual Funds1 and web search results from search_web(query="role of a custodian in mutual funds")23

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

Inflation is the general increase in the prices of goods and services over time. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning that a dollar can buy less than it used to. Inflation also erodes the real value of investment income, such as interest, dividends, and capital gains. Therefore, an increase in the inflation rate could mean that investors have less money to invest, as their income and savings lose value.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 1: Economic Factors and Financial Markets, Section 5.1.2: Inflation1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.1.2 2

A Registered Education Savings Plan (RESP) is a tax-advantaged savings plan that helps parents and family members save for a child’s post-secondary education. The government also contributes to the plan through the Canada Education Savings Grant (CESG) and the Canada Learning Bond (CLB), depending on the family income and the amount of contributions. However, there are some rules and limits that apply to RESP contributions and government grants. One of them is the lifetime contribution limit, which is the maximum amount that can be contributed to an RESP for a beneficiary from all sources. The lifetime contribution limit is $50,000 per beneficiary, regardless of how many RESPs are opened for them or who contributes to them. Therefore, statement A is correct. Justin and Yvonne may contribute a combined lifetime maximum of $50,000 for Grace to their RESP.

The other statements are incorrect for the following reasons:

Statement B: RESPs are not tax-free investment plans. They are tax-deferred plans, meaning that the contributions are made with after-tax dollars and the investment income earned in the plan is not taxed until it is withdrawn as an educational assistance payment (EAP) for the beneficiary. The EAPs are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary, who usually has little or no income and pays little or no tax.

Statement C: There is no annual contribution limit for RESP contributions. However, there is an annual limit for the CESG, which is 20% of the first $2,500 contributed per beneficiary per year, up to a maximum of $500 per year. The CESG also has a lifetime limit of $7,200 per beneficiary.

Statement D: Contributions made to an RESP are not eligible for a tax deduction in the year they are contributed. They are made with after-tax dollars and do not reduce the contributor’s taxable income.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 9, Section 9.1

Strategic asset allocation involves selecting a long-term asset mix, monitoring it, and rebalancing as needed to maintain the desired allocation. The feedback from the document states:

"When a portfolio manager develops a strategy to maximize portfolio returns, he or she does so with a particular asset mix or allocation in mind… This base policy mix is called the strategic asset allocation. This is the long-term mix that will be adhered to by monitoring and, when necessary, rebalancing."

In a mutual fund dealer, the chief compliance officer (CCO) is the person responsible for establishing and maintaining compliance policies and procedures as well as monitoring and assessing compliance by the dealer and its representatives. The CCO must report to the board of directors or senior management of the dealer and must meet certain proficiency requirements, such as passing the Mutual Fund Dealers Compliance Exam. The CCO is also accountable to the securities regulators and self-regulatory organizations for any compliance issues or breaches. References: Guide to Broker-Dealer Registration

Structural unemployment results from economic changes, such as technological advancements that reduce the demand for certain types of labor. The feedback from the document states:

"Structural unemployment results from changes in the economy, such as technological advances that reduce the need for human labour."

Whether the couple saves on income tax will be dependent on Minu’s marginal tax rate. Pension income splitting is a tax planning strategy that allows a spouse or common-law partner who receives eligible pension income to allocate up to 50% of that income to their spouse or common-law partner1. This may result in tax savings if the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner1. The tax savings depend on the difference between the marginal tax rates of the spouses or common-law partners1. The other statements are incorrect. Minu will not be exposed to a pension adjustment (PA) if she receives income from Saheed’s pension. A PA is a measure of the value of benefits accrued in a registered pension plan or deferred profit sharing plan during a calendar year2. It reduces the RRSP contribution room of the plan member, not the spouse or common-law partner who receives part of their pension income2. Pension income splitting is not a form of tax evasion and is not illegal based on income tax legislation. It is a legitimate way to reduce taxable income and taxes payable by shifting income from a higher-income spouse or common-law partner to a lower-income spouse or common-law partner1. Pension income splitting may change the total amount of income taxes paid by the couple, depending on their marginal tax rates. If the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner, pension income splitting may lower their combined taxes payable1. However, if they are in the same tax bracket, pension income splitting may not have any effect on their taxes payable1. References: Pension income splitting, Pension adjustment

 An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a type of pooled investment security that operates much like a mutual fund. Typically, ETFs will track a particular index, sector, commodity, or other assets, but unlike mutual funds, ETFs can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange the same way that a regular stock can. ETFs have lower management expense ratios (MERs) compared to mutual funds because they are passively managed and do not incur high costs for research, analysis, and portfolio rebalancing. Therefore, this statement is true about ETFs. References: Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) Explanation With Pros and Cons - Investopedia, The Best ETFs - Exchange Traded Funds Rankings | US News Investing

 According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, different types of investment income are taxed differently in Canada. Interest income is fully taxed at the marginal rate, while dividend income is favourably taxed with a dividend tax credit. Capital gains are taxed on 50% of the gain at the marginal rate, and foreign income is subject to withholding tax. Therefore, a tax-efficient strategy is to include interest paying investments, such as bonds or GICs, in the registered plan, where they can grow tax-deferred until withdrawal. Dividend paying investments, such as Canadian stocks or ETFs, should be included in the non-registered plan, where they can benefit from the lower tax rate and the dividend tax credit. Foreign income should also be avoided in the non-registered plan, unless it is held in a U.S. dollar account or a foreign currency hedged ETF, to reduce the impact of withholding tax and currency fluctuations.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Eligible dividends from a publicly-listed Canadian corporation would provide the most favourable tax treatment for Bernadette, who is in the top tax bracket. Eligible dividends are subject to a lower tax rate than other types of income because they qualify for the enhanced dividend tax credit. This credit is intended to reduce the double taxation of corporate income, which occurs when a corporation pays tax on its earnings and then distributes those earnings to its shareholders, who also pay tax on them. Dividends received from a large foreign corporation do not qualify for the dividend tax credit and are taxed at the same rate as interest income. Coupon payments from Government of Canada bonds are also fully taxable as interest income. Capital gains from a large Canadian corporation are taxed at a lower rate than interest income, but higher than eligible dividends, because only 50% of the gain is included in taxable income. References: Capital gains, interest and dividends: How they’re taxed in Canada, How Are Dividends Taxed in Canada?

 A registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) is a retirement savings and investing vehicle for employees and the self-employed in Canada. Contributions to an RRSP are tax-deductible and grow tax-deferred until withdrawal. However, RRSPs have a maturity date of December 31st of the year in which the holder turns 71. By then, the holder must convert the RRSP to a registered retirement income fund (RRIF), purchase an annuity, or withdraw the funds in cash (subject to tax). Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP): Definition and Types, Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP) - Canada.ca

The statement that is correct about Maalik’s identification requirements is option A. According to Section 7 of the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA), registered firms and individuals must report any suspicious transactions or attempted transactions to FINTRAC, which is Canada’s financial intelligence unit that collects, analyzes, and discloses information related to money laundering and terrorist financing activities. A suspicious transaction or attempted transaction is one that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that it is related to a money laundering or terrorist financing offence. Therefore, if Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he must report the matter to his dealer, who must report it to FINTRAC within 30 days of making the determination. The other statements are not correct about Maalik’s identification requirements. Option B is false because Maalik does not need to report John as a PEFP to his dealer; rather, he must take reasonable measures to determine whether John is a PEFP or a family member or close associate of a PEFP, and if so, he must obtain senior management approval before opening an account for John, take enhanced measures to verify John’s identity, and conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of John’s account activity. Option C is false because Maalik does not need to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer if John wants to make a large cash deposit; rather, he must verify John’s identity using an original, valid, and current document or information from a reliable source, keep a record of John’s name and address and the date and amount of the deposit, and report any large cash transactions of $10,000 or more in Canadian currency or its equivalent to FINTRAC within 15 days of receiving the cash. Option D is false because Maalik does not need to report the attempt to his dealer if John attempts to make a suspicious deposit; rather, he must report the attempt directly to FINTRAC within 30 days of detecting the suspicion, regardless of whether the transaction was completed or not. References: [FINTRAC - Home], [FINTRAC - Reporting], [FINTRAC - Guideline 2: Suspicious Transactions], [FINTRAC - Guideline 6A: Record Keeping and Client Identification for Financial Entities]

The standard of integrity requires dealing honestly, fairly, and with good faith in all personal and professional interactions with clients, including personal financial dealings.

Compliance (B) ensures adherence to laws, regulations, and firm policies.

Professionalism (C) relates to competence and ethical conduct.

Confidentiality (D) relates to safeguarding client information.

Retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred stock that lets the issuer force the redemption of the shares at a set price and time. The issuer can pay cash or common shares to the retractable preferred shareholders.

References = Retractable Preferred Shares: What it is, How it Works, Example, What are Retractable Preferred Shares? Definition, And How Does it Work? - CFAJournal, Retractable Preferred Shares | Example | Feature - Accountinguide

The Montreal Exchange (also referred to as Bourse de Montreal) is the only Canadian exchange specializing exclusively in financial and equity futures and options. The feedback from the document confirms:

"The Montreal Exchange (Bourse de Montreal) is the only exchange in Canada that deals exclusively with financial and equity futures and options."

Eligible Canadian dividends are grossed up by 38% and then receive a federal dividend tax credit of 15.02% of the taxable amount.

For Nancy’s $160 dividend:

Grossed-up amount = $160 × 1.38 = $220.80

Federal dividend tax credit = 15.02% × $220.80 = $33.15

Thus, Nancy will receive a dividend tax credit of approximately $33.

The marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax that an individual pays on the last dollar of income earned in a given year. It is also the tax rate that applies to any additional income earned in that year. The marginal tax rate varies depending on the individual’s income level and tax bracket. For example, if an individual’s taxable income for the year is $50,000 and the tax rate for that income bracket is 20%, then the marginal tax rate is 20%. This means that the individual pays 20% tax on the last dollar of income earned, as well as on any additional income earned above $50,000.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 6: Taxation, Section 5.6.1: Income Tax 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.6.1 2

Sales communication is any written or electronic communication that is intended to promote the sale of a mutual fund, or to influence a person to buy or sell a mutual fund. Sales communication includes any advertisement, brochure, report, newsletter, or other material that is distributed to existing or potential clients. A marketing brochure is an example of sales communication, as it is designed to inform and persuade clients about the features and benefits of a mutual fund. A prospectus, a fund facts, and an annual information form are not considered sales communication, as they are legal documents that provide essential information about a mutual fund, such as its investment objectives, strategies, risks, fees, and performance. These documents are required by securities regulators and must be delivered to investors before or after they purchase a mutual fund.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7: The Regulatory Environment, Lesson 2: Sales Communication, Section 7.2.1: Definition and Scope of Sales Communication1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 7: The Regulatory Environment, Question 7.2.1 2

 C is correct because bond funds receive fixed interest payments from most of their investments, as they invest mainly in bonds and other fixed-income securities that pay a regular coupon rate. Dividend funds receive variable dividend payments from most of their investments, as they invest mainly in stocks and other equity securities that pay dividends based on the company’s earnings and policies. The return of dividend funds does not rely only on interest rates (A), but also on other factors such as stock prices, earnings growth, dividend yield, and dividend payout ratio. The return of bond funds also depends on interest rates, as well as other factors such as credit quality, maturity, duration, and yield curve. When interest rates rise, the NAVPU of both bond funds and dividend funds decreases (B), not rises, as it lowers the present value of their future cash flows. Bond fund distributions do not receive more favorable tax treatment than that of dividend funds (D), but rather less favorable, as interest income is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate while eligible dividends receive a dividend tax credit that reduces their taxable amount.

Specialty funds are narrowly focused and often risky on their own. However, when combined with other asset classes, they can add diversification benefits, especially if their returns have a low correlation with other portfolio holdings .

Holding high beta securities increases risk.

Using derivatives may increase returns but not reduce risk.

Fewer sectors = higher concentration risk.

Therefore, risk mitigation comes from low-correlation diversification.

The S&P 500 is the appropriate benchmark for researching the largest listed public companies in the US market. The feedback from the document provides:

"Index: S&P 500, Description: The 500 largest publicly held companies that trade on U.S. markets, Performance uses: U.S. equity funds."

Given Jeff’s low wealth level and strong emotional biases, the advisor should moderate and adapt to these emotional biases to ensure suitable investment recommendations. The feedback from the document states:

"Jeff has a relatively low level of wealth and strong emotional biases; that’s why the advisor should moderate and adapt to Jeff’s emotional biases."

An annuity provides a steady income stream until the client’s death, suitable for someone with uncertain income sources and no interest in leaving a legacy. The feedback from the document states:

"The client needs a steady source of income from his investment. This rules out a ratio withdrawal plan and a life withdrawal plan. With a fixed-dollar withdrawal plan his capital could be exhausted before he dies. He should choose an annuity that will pay a fixed amount every year until his death. If he lives beyond the guaranteed term, the annuity will cease with his death, but this fact is not important as he does not wish to leave a legacy."

Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are traded on exchanges, offering flexibility and lower costs compared to index mutual funds, making them ideal for tracking the energy sector. The feedback from the document states:

"Like stocks, and unlike index mutual funds, ETFs are traded on an exchange and can be bought and sold throughout the trading day. In this way, ETFs provide investors with a flexible way to participate in the performance of the underlying assets without having to acquire the assets directly, incurring high transaction costs. MERs on ETFs also tend to be lower than on other index and actively managed products."

Unused RRSP contribution room is the amount of RRSP contributions that you did not deduct in previous years and are available to deduct in the current year. Unused RRSP contribution room can be carried forward to future years indefinitely, until you use it up or reach the age of 71. You can find your unused RRSP contribution room on your notice of assessment or by logging into your Canada Revenue Agency account. References: What to do with unused RRSP, PRPP or SPP contributions

Rights of survivorship means that if one account holder dies, their share of the assets automatically transfers to the surviving holder(s).

This feature is available in joint non-registered accounts.

Registered accounts (A) (e.g., RRSP, TFSA) are individual accounts and cannot be opened jointly with rights of survivorship.

Trust accounts (B) follow trust law, not survivorship rules.

Corporate accounts (D) belong to the company, not individuals.

 Underwriting is the process through which an individual or institution takes on financial risk for a fee. This risk most typically involves loans, insurance, or investments. In the case of securities, underwriting involves conducting research and assessing the degree of risk each applicant or entity brings to the table before assuming that risk. During the underwriting process, investment bankers raise investment capital from investors on behalf of corporations and governments issuing securities. They also help determine the company’s underlying value compared to the risk of funding its IPO. References: Underwriting: Definition and How the Various Types Work - Investopedia, The future of insurance underwriting | Deloitte Insights

A Canadian equity index fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in stocks that track a Canadian equity market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index or the S&P/TSX 60 Index. These indices measure the performance of the largest and most liquid companies listed on the Toronto Stock Exchange (TSX). A Canadian equity index fund aims to replicate the returns of the index it follows, before fees and expenses. Therefore, this type of fund would be best for Karen, who has a long time horizon, is comfortable with risk and volatility, and is primarily interested in growth. She also wants a mutual fund that will closely match what she sees on the TSX. References: CIBC Canadian Equity Index ETF, Top Canadian Index Funds of 2023 | The Motley Fool Canada

A conflict of interest is a situation in which a person’s personal interests conflict with their professional duties or responsibilities. A conflict of interest should be avoided or disclosed to prevent harm to the client or the registrant. In this case, Arilla’s client, Gwen, wants to co-invest with Arilla in units of a real estate limited partnership. This is a conflict of interest because Arilla may have a personal interest in the investment that could influence her advice to Gwen or affect her ability to act in Gwen’s best interest. For example, Arilla may benefit from the investment at Gwen’s expense, or she may have access to information that Gwen does not have. Therefore, this is a conflict of interest that should be avoided by Arilla. She should decline Gwen’s offer and explain that it would compromise her professional obligations and fiduciary duty to Gwen.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 2, Section 2.3

The element of the Know Your Client (KYC) information that Malik has been able to learn is Charlotte’s risk preference. KYC information is a collection of personal and financial information that registered firms and individuals must obtain from their clients before providing any investment advice or services. KYC information helps registered firms and individuals understand their clients’ needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances, as well as comply with regulatory obligations such as suitability, disclosure, and reporting. One of the components of KYC information is risk preference, which is a measure of how much risk an investor is willing to take on in their portfolio. It reflects the investor’s attitude, personality, and emotional factors that influence their investment decisions. Risk preference can be classified into three categories: risk-seeking, risk-averse, or risk-neutral. Based on Charlotte’s statement that she does not know much about trading ETFs, but she wants to invest in ETFs, and that she feels fortunate to have this money and that she’s not worried about losing it because she never planned on having any of it, Malik can infer that Charlotte has a high-risk preference or a risk-seeking attitude. This means that Charlotte is willing to take on more risk in exchange for higher potential returns, even if it means losing some or all of her money. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what element of KYC information Malik has been able to learn. The other options are not correct regarding what element of KYC information Malik has been able to learn. Option A is false because risk profile is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is an outcome of KYC information that summarizes the investor’s overall suitability for different types of investments based on their KYC information. Option B is false because risk capacity is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is a measure of how much risk an investor can afford to take on in their portfolio based on their financial situation and goals. Option D is false because risk tolerance is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is a measure of how much risk an investor can handle in their portfolio without losing sleep or changing their plans. References: [Know Your Client (KYC) | IFIC], [Know Your Client (KYC) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Preference | Investopedia]

Your client, James, would like to work beyond the normal retirement age. He comes to you for advice on his registered retirement savings plan (RRSP). What are the rules regarding terminating an RRSP?

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 65.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 67.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 70.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 71.

Answer: D

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, an RRSP is a retirement savings plan that allows individuals to defer taxes on their contributions and investment income until they withdraw the funds. However, an RRSP cannot be held indefinitely and must be terminated by the end of the year the annuitant turns 71. At that point, the annuitant has three options to withdraw the funds from the RRSP:

Make a lump-sum withdrawal, which is subject to withholding tax and income tax.

Convert the RRSP to a registered retirement income fund (RRIF), which provides a steady stream of income with a minimum amount that must be withdrawn each year.

Purchase an annuity, which offers a guaranteed income for life or for a specified period.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

The Client Relationship Model (CRM) and Client Focused Reforms (CFR) are regulatory initiatives that aim to enhance the relationship between registered firms and their clients by imposing higher standards of conduct and disclosure. One of the obligations under CRM and CFR is to provide clients with information about the costs, expenses, and ongoing fees associated with an investment prior to executing a trade. This includes disclosing the management expense ratio (MER), sales charges, deferred sales charges (DSC), switch fees, short-term trading fees, and trailer fees of a mutual fund. This information helps clients understand the impact of fees on their returns and compare different investment options. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what Portia must do in order to satisfy her obligations under CRM and CFR. The other options are not correct. Option A is false because Portia does not need to calculate the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) and report it to Clive in the trade confirmation; rather, the NAVPU is determined by the mutual fund manager and reported by the mutual fund dealer in the trade confirmation. Option B is false because Portia must not mark the trade as unsolicited if Clive wants to proceed with the trade and it is not suitable for him; rather, Portia must act in Clive’s best interest and advise him against making an unsuitable trade or decline to execute it. Option D is false because Portia does not need to provide Clive with the pre-trade disclosure to address any material conflicts of interest with the trade; rather, Portia must disclose any material conflicts of interest with the client relationship as part of the relationship disclosure information (RDI) that is provided at account opening and updated as necessary. References: [Client Relationship Model - Phase 2 (CRM2) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Client Focused Reforms | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Client Focused Reforms - FAQs | IFIC]

Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that offer its shareholders the opportunity to receive additional dividends if the company’s profit exceeds a stated level. These dividends are paid in addition to the fixed dividends that are normally paid to preferred shareholders. Participating preferred shares allow shareholders to benefit from both fixed and variable income streams, depending on the company’s performance. References: Participating Preferred Stock Definition - Investopedia, Preferred Shares Explained | TD Direct Investing

D is correct because a passive portfolio management strategy is based on the assumption that the markets are efficient and that it is impossible or very difficult to consistently find mis-priced securities that can generate abnormal returns. A passive portfolio manager aims to replicate the performance of a market index or benchmark by holding a diversified portfolio of securities that mirrors the index or benchmark. A passive portfolio manager does not believe in using active strategies such as market timing, security selection, or sector rotation. The manager does not need to use benchmarks (A), as they are essential for measuring and evaluating the performance of a passive portfolio. The manager does not wish to create capital gains in the mutual fund by frequently buying and selling stocks (B), as this would incur higher transaction costs and taxes, and deviate from the index or benchmark. The manager does not believe he or she can outperform the market with his or her stock picking skills ©, as this would imply an active portfolio management strategy. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

The inflation rate is calculated by subtracting the previous year’s CPI from the current year’s CPI, dividing by the previous year’s CPI, and multiplying by 100. In this case:

(146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6 = 6.3 / 140.6 ≈ 0.0448 or 4.48%.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"To calculate the rate of inflation over a period of time one must subtract the CPI at the beginning of the period from the CPI at the end of the period and then divide the result by the CPI at the beginning of the period. In this example, the solution can be derived as follows: (146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6."