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IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The internal audit activity needs to review the information security function but does not have the IT expertise needed for the engagement. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to ensure the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a staff auditor and closely review his work and report.

B.

Assign the engagement to a senior auditor, who carefully researches and studies the company’s IT infrastructure.

C.

Contract an external service provider auditor with the experience necessary to perform the audit.

D.

Perform the audit herself and work closely with the information security function to obtain expertise in the area.

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Questions 5

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

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Questions 6

An internal auditor completed a review of expenses related to the launch of a new project. The auditor sampled 45 transactions approved by a senior project manager and identified 30 with questionable vendor documentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the auditor to include in the audit report?

Options:

A.

The organization incurred excessive cost overruns that resulted in significant financial and legal risk to the project.

B.

The organization experienced a potential conflict of interest

C.

The organization had weaknesses in its review process which allowed questionable transactions with some vendors

D.

The organization allowed the project to launch without assurance that all transactions were regularly approved

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Questions 7

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

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Questions 8

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization's strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 9

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management’s self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

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Questions 10

The objective of an upcoming engagement is to review the wind park projects and assess compliance with established project management principles. Which of the following is most likely to be the aim of the engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the application of project management guidance in the development of wind parks.

B.

Identify key risks and mitigation plans pertaining to the management of wind parks.

C.

Assess whether development of wind parks is compliant with relevant legal acts and international best practices.

D.

Review the wind park development strategy and compare its goals with operational targets and metrics.

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Questions 11

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with managements decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders.

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel.

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

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Questions 12

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, which of the following would an internal auditor use to assess and present the severity of the impact of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Kanban board

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Questions 13

An organization has identified new strategic goals, and a current objective is to determine an optimal course of action to meet those goals. Which data analytics method is used to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Diagnostic analysis

B.

Predictive analysis

C.

Network analysis

D.

Prescriptive analysis

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Questions 14

Which of the following factors would be the most critical in determining which engagements should be included in the annual internal audit plan?

Options:

A.

Whether an audit is explicitly required by the internal audit charter

B.

The extent to which the work to be performed is an assurance or consulting engagement

C.

The organization's annual risk management strategy

D.

Risks that are identified by operations staff or senior management

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Questions 15

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map

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Questions 16

Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

Options:

A.

Inquiry

B.

Analytical review

C.

Observation

D.

Inspection of documents

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Questions 17

An internal auditor is planning an audit engagement of a subsidiary organization. The auditor learns that a corporate investigator from the holding organization is investigating the subsidiary regarding a fraud case. Which of the following is true regarding the scope of the internal auditor’s engagement?

Options:

A.

As the fraud is already being investigated by the corporate investigator, it should be excluded from the scope of the audit engagement

B.

The engagement should be framed as an advisory engagement to support the corporate investigator's work

C.

The area under investigation should be excluded from the engagement scope if the auditor does not have the technical skills required to support a fraud investigation

D.

The scope should consider the nature of the fraud risk and control weaknesses identified from the fraud case

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Questions 18

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

Options:

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle's details from one of the delivery employees.

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Questions 19

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 20

'Internal policy prohibits employees from entering into contacts with financial obligations without proper approval.

A project manager signed a change to an important service agreement without obtaining the proper approval As a result the organization is receiving $5,000 per month less for its services.’’

Which of the following should be added to the observation?

Options:

A.

The reason for not following the internal policy

B.

A description of what constitutes proper approval

C.

The annual impact of the changed agreement on cash flows

D.

Details regarding when the change to the agreement was signed

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Questions 21

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 22

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls9

Options:

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities.

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements

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Questions 23

In a health care organization the internal audit activity provides overall assurance on governance, risk and control The chief audit executive advises and influences senior management, and the audit strategy leverages the organization's management of risk According to HA guidance which of the following stages of internal audit maturity best describes this organization?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure.

B.

Emerging.

C.

Managed.

D.

Initial.

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Questions 24

A bank uses customer departmentalization to categorize its departments. Which of the following groups best exemplifies this method of categorization?

Options:

A.

Community, institutional, and agricultural banking

B.

Mortgages, credit cards, and savings.

C.

South, southwest and east.

D.

Teller, manager, and IT specialist

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Questions 25

Which of the blowing is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Proving in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations

B.

Proving an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentially.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls ever the reliability of financial reporting

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Questions 26

When estimating the impact of an inherent risk, which of the following should internal auditors consider?

Options:

A.

The probability and frequency of occurrence

B.

Financial and nonfinancial factors related to the risk

C.

The number of risks identified on the heat map

D.

The residual risk following implementation of appropriate controls

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Questions 27

Besides a chief audit executive's professional experience what determines the frequency and approach to assessing residual risk?

Options:

A.

The frequency of executing the internal audit engagements

B.

The frequency of changes in the organization environment

C.

The expectations set by the board and senior management

D.

The expectations set by operating management and senior management

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Questions 28

Which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identify and manage risks in line with the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Ensure that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attain an adequate understanding of the organization's key risk mitigation strategies.

D.

Identify and ensure that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

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Questions 29

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is essential for ensuring that the internal audit activity's findings and recommendations receive adequate consideration?

Options:

A.

Reporting results of audits with recommendations to management.

B.

Providing formal follow-up procedures to ensure that management complies with an action plan or accepted risk of not taking action.

C.

Reporting quarterly to management that the audit plan is focused on higher exposures of risk.

D.

Discussing audit findings with independent auditors.

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Questions 31

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days What conditions would an auditor look for as an Indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day. total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used

B.

On a sunny day. total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

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Questions 32

An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the

bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

Options:

A.

The evidence may not be reliable.

B.

The evidence is not relevant.

C.

The evidence may not be sufficient.

D.

The information missing is not relevant to the audit.

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Questions 33

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

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Questions 34

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

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Questions 35

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor most likely be questioned on?

Options:

A.

The auditor confirms the organization's ownership of physical equipment by verifying its presence on site visually.

B.

The auditor vouches for a sample of check copies to support voucher packages to test the checks' validity.

C.

The auditor vouches a sales invoice to a shipping document to conclude that the invoice has been issued.

D.

The auditor recalculates the allowance for doubtful accounts based on management assertions.

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Questions 36

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Questions 37

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity's (IAA's) objectives?

Options:

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization's governance structure.

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Questions 38

An internal auditor used a risk and control matrix to prepare a work program for testing a software release. During the engagement planning stage, he tested the design of

the release procedure as a key control and concluded that the control was not designed well. During the performance stage, he tested the operation of this control and

concluded that it was implemented as designed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The test of the control design should have occurred at the performance stage.

B.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control was not necessary.

C.

A risk and control matrix is not appropriate for this type of engagement.

D.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control should have occurred at the planning stage.

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Questions 39

Which of the following types of resources is the most important and challenging to identify and allocate in order to perform an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

External resources.

B.

IT resources.

C.

Human resources.

D.

Monetary budget.

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Questions 40

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with management's decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

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Questions 41

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 42

An organization's healthcare insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years. Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in healthcare costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations.

B.

Obtain the government index of healthcare costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another healthcare administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current healthcare administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred.

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Questions 43

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

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Questions 44

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

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Questions 45

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Questions 46

During an operational audit of the cash receipts process, internal auditors uncovered many red flags related to possible misappropriation of cash and other cash-flow problems indicative of potential employee fraud. Which of the following statements is true regarding the follow-up investigative audit?

Options:

A.

The audit team that conducted the operational audit must also conduct the investigative audit.

B.

The investigative audit must be conducted by an independent third-party service provider.

C.

To preserve objectivity, auditors who participated on the initial operational audit engagement team must not partake in the investigative audit.

D.

The investigative audit engagement team must include at least one auditor who possesses fraud-related skills and competencies.

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Questions 47

During a previous audit engagement, an internal auditor recommended that management implement a whistleblowing process. During follow-up, the auditor discovered that the process has been outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate response for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Insist on establishing an internal whistleblowing process, as originally recommended, because this is a key control.

B.

Review the agreement with the third-party service provider and ensure that appropriate controls are in place.

C.

Raise the issue to a higher level of management, as outsourcing the process was not previously discussed or agreed upon.

D.

Take no action, as management has accepted the risk of moving to a third party for this whistleblowing process.

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Questions 48

A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity's needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

Options:

A.

Strategic sourcing

B.

Loan staff arrangement

C.

Flat organizational structure

D.

Hierarchical organizational structure

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Questions 49

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization's policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, Internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

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Questions 50

An internal auditor is performing a review of an organization's vendor for any possible conflicts of interest. Which of the following would provide the greatest assistance to the auditor in meeting this objective?

Options:

A.

Vendor contracts.

B.

Employee master list.

C.

Payment records.

D.

Purchasing policy.

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Questions 51

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the best first step to manage risk when a third party is overseeing the organization’s network and data'?

Options:

A.

Creating a comprehensive reporting system for vendors to demonstrate their ongoing due diligence in network operations.

B.

Drafting a strong contract that requires regular vendor control reports and a right-to-audit clause

C.

Applying administrative privileges to ensure right-to-access controls are appropriate

D.

Creating a standing cybersecurity committee to identify and manage risks related to data security.

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Questions 52

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top.

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

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Questions 53

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

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Questions 54

An internal auditor at an electricity provider analyzes data sets related to customers’ household electricity usage, including payments, consumption, profiles, etc. The objective is to assess the completeness of the invoicing process. Which of the following would be the best approach to fulfill this purpose?

Options:

A.

Conduct a trend analysis of customers' payment history and flag those with the most inconsistent payments and debts

B.

Conduct a ratio analysis by calculating the relationship between sums paid in local currency and volume of electricity billed in megawatt hours

C.

Conduct an analysis of clients’ electricity consumption patterns within a specified period and identify consumption spikes

D.

Conduct a comparison to identify deviations between electricity amounts billed to customers and information regarding actual consumption

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Questions 55

An internal auditor is testing the success of the IT support department in meeting the service levels guaranteed to small, medium and large customers. The customer's size classification is based on its annual expenditures with the organization and the nature and extent of services it receives. Which of the following sampling techniques would be the most suitable to select customers for this test?

Options:

A.

Interval sampling

B.

Cluster sampling

C.

Stop-and-go sampling

D.

Stratified sampling

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Questions 56

According to IIA guidance, which of the following provides additional insight into errors, problems, missed opportunities, or noncompliance to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization's control process?

Options:

A.

Reperformance.

B.

Vouching.

C.

Independent confirmation.

D.

Root cause analysis.

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Questions 57

A senior IT auditor is performing an audit of inventory valuation. The auditor misinterprets the sampling results. Which of the following best describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Control risk.

C.

Nonsampling risk.

D.

Residual risk.

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Questions 58

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

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Questions 59

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 60

An audit reveals that a manager's spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

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Questions 61

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

Options:

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Questions 62

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether the organization's 200 employees are charging their work hours accurately to the correct project. The internal auditor selected a sample of 30 employee time reports for testing. Based on the testing, the internal auditor determined the following:

- 5 Time reports were incorrect.

- 21 Time reports were correct.

- 4 Time reports were not supported.

Options:

A.

The organization has significant flaws in its reporting of employee time, which could lead to the overstatement of project labor costs. The organization's failure to report accurate and complete employee time could lead to potential fraud and abuse.

B.

The organization needs to ensure that all reporting of employee time is accurate and complete for each of its projects By dang so the organization can minimize potential issues related to overstating employee tames and labor project costs.

C.

The organization overstated project costs due to inaccurate and incomplete reporting of employee time charged to the affected accounts As a result the organization cannot ensure at protects costs are accurately reported to stakeholders

D.

The organization generally ensured that employee hours charged to each project were accurate and complete. However, there were instances of employee time reports that were incorrect or not supported to justify the multiple project labor coats

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Questions 63

A technology firm's internal audit function is slated to perform a series of engagements assessing the security of its software development processes. To successfully perform these engagements, which competency should the internal audit function possess?

Options:

A.

Expertise in IT general controls

B.

Understanding of change management processes

C.

Proficiency in using design software

D.

Fluency in multiple programming languages

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Questions 64

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

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Questions 65

With regard to project management, which of the following statements about project crashing is true?

Options:

A.

It leads to an increase in risk and often results in rework.

B.

It is an optimization technique where activities are performed in parallel rather than sequentially

C.

It involves a revaluation of project requirements and/or scope.

D.

It is a compression technique in which resources are added to the project

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Questions 66

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

Options:

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

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Questions 67

In the following risk control map risks have been categorized based on the level of significance and the associated level of control. Which of the following statements is true regarding Risk C?

IIA-CIA-Part2 Question 67

Options:

A.

The level of control is appropriate given the level of risk

B.

The level of control is excessive given the level of risk

C.

The level of control is inadequate given the level of risk

D.

There is not enough of information to determine whether the controls are appropriate or not

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Questions 68

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

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Questions 69

Which of the following is a justifiable reason for omitting advance client notice when planning an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Advance notice may result in management making corrections to reduce the number of potential deficiencies.

B.

Previous management action plans addressing prior internal audit recommendations remain incomplete.

C.

The engagement includes audit assurance procedures such as sensitive or restricted asset verifications.

D.

The audit engagement has already been communicated and approved through the annual audit plan.

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Questions 70

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

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Questions 71

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

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Questions 72

An internal audit manager assigns an audit team to test purchase transactions by selecting a sample from transactions processed by each of the three procurement officers.

Which of the following techniques will help the audit team achieve this sampling objective?

Options:

A.

Systematic sampling.

B.

Stratified sampling.

C.

Stop-or-go sampling

D.

Discovery sampling.

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Questions 73

An internal auditor conducted interviews with several employees, documented the interviews analyzed the summaries, and drew a number of conclusions. What sort of audit evidence has the internal auditor primarily obtained?

Options:

A.

Documentary evidence

B.

Testimonial evidence

C.

Analytical evidence

D.

Physical evidence

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Questions 74

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting

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Questions 75

A manager has allowed a subordinate employee to have greater control and responsibility over the tasks that he performs This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Job enlargement

B.

Job enrichment

C.

Horizontal loading of the job.

D.

Job rotation.

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Questions 76

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditors professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization's policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures

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Questions 77

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 78

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

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Questions 79

Which of the following would be most useful for an internal auditor to obtain during the preliminary survey of an engagement on internal controls over user access management?

Options:

A.

The policy for granting, modifying, and deleting user access to ensure processing requirements are clearly articulated.

B.

A sample of change request forms to verify whether the forms bear the required approval for the user access change.

C.

User access reports that were reviewed by management to ensure that access rights are appropriate for employee roles.

D.

A current listing of system users and an employee listing to determine whether system users are active employees of the organization.

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Questions 80

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control self-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers.

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit hours.

D.

internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only if the other assurance providers report directly to the board

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Questions 81

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by, or in conjunction with, the engagement client.

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment.

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Questions 82

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders' expectations.

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Questions 83

An organization must maintain a current ratio of at least 1.2 to comply with debt covenants. Its current ratio is now 0.9. Which year-end transaction can increase the current ratio?

Options:

A.

Paying off an overdraft debt using funds from another bank current account.

B.

Purchasing inventory using funds from long-term bank loans.

C.

Acquiring a new car through leasing.

D.

Factoring short-term accounts receivable in exchange for cash.

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Questions 84

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive.

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies.

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Questions 85

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

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Questions 86

After completing an assurance engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) concludes that management has accepted a level of risk that may be unacceptable to the

organization. What is the most appropriate first step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Discuss the issue with senior management.

B.

Discuss the issue only with the CEO.

C.

Inform the board.

D.

Discuss the issue with the members of management responsible for the risk area.

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Questions 87

A multinational organization has asked the internal audit activity to assist in setting up the organization's risk management system The chief audit executive (CAE) agrees to take on the engagement as a consultant. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the CAE to undertake?

Options:

A.

Coordinate and facilitate risk workshops for management to attend

B.

Establish the degree of risk appetite for management to accept.

C.

Set risk Indicators and mitigation plans for management to Implement.

D.

Determine the number of significant risks for management to report to the board

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Questions 88

The chief audit executive was asked to define me internal audit activity s key performance indicators (KPIs) tor the upcoming year. The KPIs must measure efficiency and effectiveness. Which of the following is an example of a KPI that measures effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports are consistently submitted prior to the audit report deadline

B.

Post engagement surveys completed by management indicate a "meets or exceeds expectations" idling

C.

There is a significant reduction of travel costs per project over the next fiscal year

D.

Internal auditors identify a minimum number of issues and provide recommendations to address them for each audit

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Questions 89

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

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Questions 90

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

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Questions 91

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 92

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

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Questions 93

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 94

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

Options:

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Questions 95

Which of the following technologies will best reduce human processing errors and enable seamless exchange of business transactions among business partners?

Options:

A.

Enterprise resource planning

B.

Material requirements planning

C.

Electronic data interchange

D.

Customer relationship management

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Questions 96

Which of the following is applicable to both a job order cost system and a process cost system'?

Options:

A.

Total manufacturing costs are determined at the end of each period.

B.

Costs are summarized in a production cost report for each department

C.

Three manufacturing cost elements are tracked: direct materials, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead.

D.

The unit cost can be calculated by dividing the total manufacturing costs for the period by the units produced during the period.

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Questions 97

Which phase of an audit engagement is typically the most effective time for an internal auditor to develop a risk and control matrix?

Options:

A.

When preparing to recap audit test results.

B.

At sample selection, to determine sampling methodology.

C.

At the start of fieldwork, as part of developing the annual audit plan.

D.

At planning, to assist in developing the engagement work program.

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Questions 98

An internal auditor wants to determine whether employees are complying with the information security policy, which prohibits leaving sensitive information on employee desks overnight. The auditor checked a sample of 90 desks and found eight that contained sensitive information. How should this observation be reported, if the organization tolerates 4 percent noncompliance?

Options:

A.

The matter does not need to be reported, because the noncompliant findings fall within the acceptable tolerance limit.

B.

The deviations are within the acceptable tolerance limit, so the matter only needs to be reported to the information security manager.

C.

The incidents of noncompliance fall outside the acceptable tolerance limit and require immediate corrective action, as opposed to reporting.

D.

The incidents of noncompliance exceed the tolerance level and should be included in the final engagement report.

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Questions 99

How do internal auditors generally determine the priority of the areas within the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

By calculating the period of time when the area was last audited try internal auditors

B.

By totaling the monetary value of the processes within the organization in the scope of the engagement

C.

By counting the number of red flags indicating the potential fraudulent activities within the area.

D.

By estimating the likelihood of a risks occurring and the potential impact of that risk on the organization

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Questions 100

Which of the following should be described in the recognition element of a typical internal audit repot?

Options:

A.

Positive aspects of the process or area under review

B.

A brief synopsis of the process of area under review

C.

Outcomes and ratings of the process or area under review

D.

Report issuance and the communication process of the engagement.

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Questions 101

Which of the following is required to classify, label, organize, and search big data stored and used in an organization?

Options:

A.

Metadata

B.

Data security

C.

A business application

D.

Data owner

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Questions 102

Internal control questionnaires are used to achieve which of the following objectives?

Options:

A.

To ascertain the operating effectiveness of a procedure

B.

To verify the accuracy of Information in a report

C.

To assess the controls mitigating major risks

D.

To determine whether specified contra procedures are in place

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Questions 103

Which of the following is the most appropriate objective for establishing a professional development plan for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A plan that focuses on furthering the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

A plan that ensures internal auditors collectively possess expertise in various fields to avoid outsourcing.

C.

A plan based on individual preferences and proposals, which helps internal auditors achieve greater success.

D.

A plan that focuses on filling gaps in the current skills needed to complete audit objectives.

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Questions 104

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

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Questions 105

Which of the following situations would justify the removal of a finding from the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Management disagrees with the report findings and conclusions in their responses.

B.

Management has already satisfactorily completed the recommended corrective action.

C.

Management has provided additional information that contradicts the findings.

D.

Management believes that the finding is insignificant and unfairly included in the report.

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Questions 106

An internal audit engagement supervisor approved the engagement work program submitted by an internal auditor and concluded that it satisfied engagement objectives. At the end of the engagement, the engagement supervisor reviewed the completed work program and found numerous deficiencies and inconsistencies in the engagement workpapers. Which of the following should be improved in the process of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

The supervisor should regularly review the engagement team's workpapers throughout the engagement, including raising questions and providing guidance.

B.

The supervisor should evaluate whether the engagement work program includes audit procedures relevant to engagement objectives.

C.

The supervisor should thoroughly document all concerns prior to signing off the completed workpapers and finalizing the work program.

D.

The supervisor should issue a satisfaction questionnaire to management of the activity that was under review to understand the root causes of deficient performances.

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Questions 107

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

Options:

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

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Questions 108

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor's suspicion?

Options:

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

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Questions 109

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

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Questions 110

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring.

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process.

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Questions 111

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor's inclusion of management's satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

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Questions 112

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 113

Which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of tangible and intangible assets?

Options:

A.

For plant assets, cost includes the purchase price and the cost of design and construction

B.

For intangible assets, cost includes the purchase price and development costs.

C.

Due to their indefinite nature, intangible assets are not subject to amortization.

D.

The organization must expense any cost incurred in developing a plant asset

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Questions 114

Flowcharts are useful during audit planning because they contain information that may help internal auditors with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Understanding management's risk tolerance.

B.

Understanding business processes.

C.

Determining the size of the audit team needed to perform the review.

D.

Understanding organizational objectives.

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Questions 115

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

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Questions 116

Applying ISO 31000; which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment.

D.

The method of determining the risk level

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Questions 117

During a review of the treasury function an internal auditor identified a risk that all bank accounts may net to include in the daily reconciliation process.

Which of the following responses would be most effective to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

The treasury supervisor establishes a threshold for amounts on bank statements to be reconciled against data in the system

B.

The treasury analyst performs a daily reconciliation of al bank statements obtained via email against data in the system

C.

The treasury analyst reviews a daily report automatically generated by the treasury system, which shows bank statements that have not been uploaded into the accounting system.

D.

The treasury supervisor seeks an annual confirmation from the bank regarding the bank statements processed within a year

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Questions 118

Which of the following is an advantage of nonstatistical sampling over statistical sampling?

Options:

A.

Nonstatistical sampling provides more objective recommendations for management.

B.

Nonstatistical sampling provides an opportunity to select the minimum sample size required to satisfy the objectives of the audit tests.

C.

Nonstatistical sampling provides for the use of subjective judgment in determining the sample size.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling permits the auditor to specify a level of reliability and the desired degree of precision.

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Questions 119

Which of the following statements is true regarding a drawback of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

When internal auditors need to cover many control procedures using ICQs is generally less efficient than conducting observations and inspections

B.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors lo compile appropriate ICQs for business activities that are governed by standardized operating procedures

C.

ICQs are inadequate to provide effective assurance on how organizational processes are executed in practice.

D.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors to process completed questionnaires, because ICQs frequently elicit detailed comments and long answers from management

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Questions 120

Upon concluding the engagement fieldwork an internal auditor discusses the audit findings with operational management There is a greater likelihood that the auditor will obtain a responsive action plan from management when both parties agree on which of the following attributes of the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Cause

D.

Effect

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Questions 121

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a small organization is developing a resource management plan Which of the following approaches would be most beneficial to help the CAE obtain details of the Internal audit activity's collective knowledge skills, and other competencies?

Options:

A.

Review or establish a documented skills assessment of the internal audit staff and gather information from post-audit surveys

B.

Obtain from the human resources department the job descriptions and position requirements for all internal audit staff

C.

Conduct an objective written test of the internal audit staff to assess their knowledge and skills related to core internal audit competencies

D.

Request the internal audit staff to submit a document that summarizes their most recent performance appraisals and post audit reviews

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Questions 122

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a characteristic of sufficient and reliable information?

Options:

A.

The establishment of an audit approach and documentation system

B.

The standardization of workpaper terminology and notations

C.

The ability to reach consistent audit conclusions regardless of who performs the audit

D.

The application of documentation standards m an appropriate and consistent manner

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Questions 123

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

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Questions 124

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization's system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives

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Questions 125

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

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Questions 126

Which of the following statements concerning workpapers is the most accurate?

Options:

A.

The organization and the format of workpapers is the same for all engagements

B.

The extent of what is included in workpapers is a matter of professional judgment

C.

Workpapers should be complete so that every conceivable question that can be raised should be answered

D.

Copies of operational managements records should not be included, but referenced so that they can be located

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Questions 127

An organization's health-care insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in health-care costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations

B.

Obtain the government index of health-care costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another health-care administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current health-care administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred

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Questions 128

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

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Questions 129

An internal auditor wants to test the processing logic of a computer application during a specific period to ensure consistent processing of transactions. Which of the following is the best approach to achieve the objective of the test?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Integrated test facility

C.

Parallel simulation

D.

Generalized audit software

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Questions 130

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

Options:

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

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Questions 131

Which of the following statements generally true regarding audit engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The best source tor detailed process information is senior management

B.

Audit objectives should be general and do not change.

C.

Computer-assisted audit techniques are typically not useful during engagement planning

D.

Internal auditors should prepare a dented audit program for testing controls

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Questions 132

Two internal auditors are conducting an audit engagement concerning derivatives. The auditors meet with the organization's head of accounting. The head of accounting later complains to the chief audit executive (CAE) that it took hours for the auditors to understand basic derivatives concepts and how derivatives are typically recorded in bookkeeping. What should the CAE have considered more thoroughly?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives.

B.

The head of accounting’s schedule availability.

C.

The auditors' qualifications.

D.

The details of the audit test plan.

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Questions 133

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit acth/lty's reporting

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Questions 134

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is based on the results of a preliminary assessment of risks relevant to the area under review?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Audit resources

C.

Audit objectives

D.

Audit plan

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Questions 135

An internal auditor developed a list of internal and external risk considerations across the organization's processes, developed a scale to assess each risk and allocated the relative importance of each risk. When of the following approaches did the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Top-down approach

B.

Process-Metrix approach

C.

Risk-factor approach

D.

Bottom up approach

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Questions 136

A senior internal auditor is hired within the internal audit activity for a period of two years before advancing to an operations manager role within the business operations team. When staffing arrangement is being used in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Comer of competence

B.

Career model

C.

Rotational model

D.

Cosourcing agreement

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Questions 137

Which of the following is the best option for the chief audit executive to consider for effective coordination of assurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Create an assurance map to illustrate each provider's level of assurance and planned activities for each area of the organization

B.

LIMIT© ricks inventory to identify the risks and controls in place and the relevant control owners.

C.

Rely on the risk and control and management testing information maintained for compliance with the regulatory framework

D.

Prepare a risk likelihood and impact heal map to prioritize assurance coverage coordination.

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Questions 138

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short-term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Current ratio

D.

Times interest earned

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Questions 139

During the review of an organization's retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

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Questions 140

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Questions 141

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 142

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

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Questions 143

Organizations that adopt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience which of the following?

Options:

A.

A slight increase in carrying costs.

B.

A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive

C.

A greater need for linkage with a vendors computerized order entry system.

D.

An Increase in the number of suitable suppliers

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Questions 144

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days. What conditions would an auditor look for as an indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day, total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

B.

On a sunny day, total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

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Questions 145

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Questions 146

An internal auditor is performing an assessment in a vehicle brake manufacturing company. The auditor learned that the product quality test conditions are aligned with the company’s written test procedures. However, the test conditions are not similar to conditions experienced by vehicles in the real world. Documentation shows that a significant percentage of products fail the quality tests. Products that fail the tests are discarded. Which perspective is appropriate?

Options:

A.

The tests are acceptable since they are good enough to detect quality problems and failure products are not sent to the market.

B.

Despite a significant rejection percentage, the test conditions are not useful because they are not similar to real world conditions. The significance of the finding is reduced because tests are performed in accordance with written procedures.

C.

The quality tests must be run in similar conditions as vehicles experience in the real world. This is a major finding since there is a risk to life considering the type of product being evaluated.

D.

Despite the risk of an accident, the severity of the finding can be reduced because the company discards the failed products. Due to this, the likelihood of occurrence is low.

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Questions 147

Options:

A.

Review the organizational structure, management roles and responsibilities, and operating procedures.

B.

Evaluate management's risk assessment and the internal audit activity's risk assessment.

C.

Assess process flow and control documents used to meet regulatory requirements.

D.

Review meeting notes from discussions involving management of the area to be reviewed.

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Questions 148

Which of the following is a true statement regarding whistleblowing?

Options:

A.

Whistleblowing is one of several possible ethical structures an organization can undertake to encourage ethical behavior.

B.

Whistleblowing programs help employees deal with ethical questions and instill ethical values into everyday behavior

C.

Whistleblowers are current or former employees who are disgruntled and looking to retaliate.

D.

Whistleblowers should inform the organization about actual criminal circumstances, not assumed allegations.

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Questions 149

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Questions 150

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Questions 151

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

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Questions 152

Which of the following statements is true regarding the chief audit executive's (CAT$) responsibilities after completing an assurance or consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

The CAE must establish a follow-up process tor both assurance and consulting engagements to monitor that management actions have been effectively implemented to address observations

B.

The CAE must communicate the results of assurance and consulting engagements lo whoever can ensure that the results are given due consideration.

C.

The CAE must acknowledge satisfactory performance when communicating the results of assurance and consulting engagements

D.

The CAE may delegate the responsibility for communicating the results of consulting engagements although this responsibility cannot be delegated for assurance engagements

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Questions 153

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

Options:

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

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Questions 154

Which of the following is true about surveys?

Options:

A.

A survey with open-ended questions is weaker than a structured interview

B.

A survey with closed-ended questions can produce quantifiable evidence

C.

A survey's participants are likely to volunteer information that was not specifically requested

D.

A survey, like inspections and confirmations are best used to test the operating effectiveness of controls

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Questions 155

During the planning process for a human resources audit, an internal auditor obtains an organizational chart. The auditor observes a flat organizational structure. Which of the below risks should the auditor consider for this engagement?

Options:

A.

Transactions and decision-making require multiple approvals, resulting in processing delays.

B.

Career and promotion paths are not easily visible and defined.

C.

Communication is likely to be top-down, with little feedback from lower-level employees.

D.

Employees have little autonomy, which may result in employee turnover or low morale.

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Questions 156

When me internal audit activity does not have sufficient time to complete its usual root cause analysis which c4 the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive may recommend that management conduct further work to identify the root cause and address the issue

B.

Internal auditors should finish the engagement without conducting the root cause analysis and draft the audit report, though the report would not be considered complete until the analysis is concluded

C.

internal auditors must adjust their future engagement schedule to ensure that the root cause analysis is always performed before the engagement is concluded

D.

Internal auditors should Instead perform a Pareto rule analysis

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Questions 157

During an audit of the accounts payable process, an internal auditor was assigned to confirm the quantity of goods received on receiving documents to invoices for those goods and subsequent postings in the accounting system. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate for this test?

Options:

A.

Independent confirmation

B.

Tracing

C.

Vouching

D.

Reperformance

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Questions 158

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Questions 159

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor's conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

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Questions 160

New environmental regulations require the board to certify that the organization's reported pollutant emissions data is accurate. The chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an audit to provide assurance over the organization's compliance with the environmental regulations. Which of the following groups or individuals is most important for the CAE to consult to determine the scope of the audit?

Options:

A.

The audit committee of the board.

B.

The environmental, health, and safety manager.

C.

The organization's external environmental lawyers.

D.

The organization's insurance department.

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Questions 161

In order to obtain background information on an assigned audit of data center operations an internal auditor administers control questionnaires to select individuals who have primary responsibilities within the process. Which of the following is a drawback of this approach?

Options:

A.

It will be difficult to quantify the information obtained through this approach

B.

This approach does not help the auditor learn about the existence of controls

C.

It takes the auditor a long time to assess the relevant controls using this approach

D.

Information on control functionality is limited

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Questions 162

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Questions 164

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

Options:

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization's corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization's department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time

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Questions 165

Acceding to MA guidance, when of the Mowing strategies would like provide the most assurance to the chief audit executive (CAE) that the internal audit activity's recommendations are being acted upon?

Options:

A.

The CAF obtains a formal response from senior management regarding the corrective actions they plan to take w address the recommendations.

B.

The CAE develops a tracking system to monitor the stains of engagement recommendations reported to management for action

C.

The CAE communicates with impacted department managers to determine whether corrective actions have addressed engagement recommendations

D.

The CAE works with the engagement supervisor to monitor the recommendations issued to management for corrective action

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Questions 166

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources.

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement.

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required.

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Questions 167

An internal audit activity plans its engagements based on an organization-wide risk assessment. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the required frequency of the risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment must be performed at least quarterly.

B.

The risk assessment must be performed at least annually.

C.

The risk assessment must be performed at least once every five years, in alignment with the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program.

D.

There is no specific requirement; a risk assessment should be performed as needed to account for changes in the business environment.

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Questions 168

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

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Questions 169

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

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Questions 170

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether company vehicles were being used for personal purposes She extracted a report that listed company vehicle numbers business units to which the vehicles are allocated travel dates, travel duration and mileage She then filtered the data for weekend dates Which of the following additional information would the auditor need?

Options:

A.

Names and work titles of employees

B.

Description of responsibilities of business units.

C.

Average fuel consumption data of vehicles

D.

Location and route data of vehicles

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Questions 171

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is most likely to become part of the engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Information obtained from historic audits and memos.

B.

Risk and control registers or matrices.

C.

Resource deployment plans and sampling methodologies.

D.

Prior findings and management responses.

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Questions 172

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

Options:

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

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Questions 173

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

IIA-CIA-Part2 Question 173

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

Options:

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

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Questions 174

Prior to performing testing an internal auditor has determined that a primary process control failed due to design weakness. Which of the following actions should the auditor perform next?

Options:

A.

Determine whether there are any compensating controls in place to reduce the nsk to an acceptable level, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

B.

Test the control anyway to determine the likelihood that the control was not performed property, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

C.

Conclude that the process control environment is weak, issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

D.

Confer with a second internal auditor to determine whether the control failure is legitimate issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

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Questions 175

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management's response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

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Questions 176

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.

B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.

C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.

D.

To link a financial institution's business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.

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Questions 177

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) to propose interm changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following Is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval.

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval.

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

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Questions 178

Which of the following is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Providing in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations.

B.

Providing an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentiality.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization.

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls over the reliability of financial reporting.

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Questions 179

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization's code of ethics to all employees

D.

Conduct an organization wide employee survey on ethical practices.

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Questions 180

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

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Questions 181

A new internal auditor is overwhelmed by the number of tasks they need to complete at the engagement planning stage. Which of the following could support the auditor’s organization and delivery of planned work?

Options:

A.

Review the auditor's job description

B.

Create a checklist

C.

Develop a control questionnaire

D.

Prepare a fishbone diagram

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Questions 182

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

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Questions 183

The internal audit activity has adopted the balanced scorecard approach to assess its performance According to MA guidance which of the following is a key performance indicator relevant to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Percentage of recommendations implemented by corrective action date

B.

Staff experience

C.

Percentage of planned audits completed

D.

Conformance with the International Professional Practices Framework

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Questions 184

The objective of an internal audit engagement is to evaluate the organization's ethics program. Which of the following should be included in the scope of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategic plan

B.

Established investigation protocols

C.

Operational budget of the organization

D.

Remuneration of ethics officers

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Questions 185

In preparing the engagement work program, which of the following is generally true with respect to secondary controls?

Options:

A.

A separate engagement work program should be created for secondary controls

B.

Secondary controls do not necessarily need to be tested for effectiveness

C.

Any documented secondary controls are deemed essential to the adequacy of control design

D.

Secondary controls should be held to the same requirements as key controls

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Questions 186

Which of the following is the next step in understanding a business process once an internal auditor has identified the process?

Options:

A.

Determine process outputs

B.

Determine process inputs.

C.

Determine process activities.

D.

Determine process goals

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Questions 187

An organization's chief audit executive is developing an integrated audit approach to provide value-added services that can help the organization meet its strategic objectives and goals. Which of the following is an advantage of using an integrated audit approach that assists the organization?

Options:

A.

It allows the internal audit function to provide more subjective conclusions that would help the organization meet its goals and objectives.

B.

It allows the internal audit function to perform the appropriate engagements that minimize audit fatigue within the organization.

C.

It allows the internal audit function to focus more attention on ensuring that solutions and risks adhere to defined regulations.

D.

It allows the internal audit function to obtain more resources to perform more engagements of departments within the organization.

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Questions 188

The internal audit activity has become aware of public complaints regarding the sales practices of telephone marketing personnel in a large organization. The internal auditors decide to review a sample of all complaints within the last three months to ensure they are reflective of current marketing practices. Which of the following best describes this sampling technique?

Options:

A.

Judgmental sampling

B.

Random sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Statistical sampling

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Questions 189

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

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Questions 190

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 191

The internal auditor and her supervisor are in dispute about a risk that was not tested during an audit of the procurement function. Which of the following tools would best support the auditor's decision not to test the risk?

Options:

A.

A spaghetti map

B.

A heat map.

C.

A process map

D.

An assurance map

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Questions 192

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

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Questions 193

Which of the following would most likely be found in an organization that uses a decentralized organizational structure?

Options:

A.

There is a higher reliance on organizational culture

B.

There are clear expectations set for employees.

C.

There are electronic monitoring techniques employed

D.

There is a defined code for employee behavior

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Questions 194

To compete in the global market, an organization is restructuring and consolidating many of its divisions. Prior to the consolidation, senior management requested assistance from tie internal audit activity. Which of the following consulting services would be most appropriate in this situation?

Options:

A.

Assess controls for potential compliance issues that may affect me consolidation

B.

Brief vendors on the potential risks that will occur without continued business

C.

Advise division managers on how to streamline operations for better efficiency

D.

Determine whether the organization’s controls are effective in meeting business objectives

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Questions 195

A multinational organization has multiple divisions that sell their products internally to other divisions When selling internally, which of the following transfer prices would lead to the best decisions for the organization?

Options:

A.

Full cost

B.

Full cost plus a markup.

C.

Market price of the product.

D.

Variable cost plus a markup.

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Questions 196

An electric utility provider measures working time spent on processing grid connection applications, response time for electricity outages, and the call center queuing time. Which of the following criteria would better suit a customer-oriented provider for measurement?

Options:

A.

Past performance

B.

Legal obligations

C.

Board-approved budget

D.

Stakeholder expectations

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Questions 197

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

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Questions 198

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

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Questions 199

The audit committee has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to conduct an ad hoc forensic investigation of the purchasing department within a month due to the significance and urgency of a recently discovered risk The internal audit activity currently has no available staff with relevant experience or qualifications Which of the following is the CAE's best option for fulfilling the internal audit activity's responsibilities in this case?

Options:

A.

Outsource the investigation to independent professional consultants

B.

Select certain internal auditors and remove them from their current assignments so that they can begin a forensic investigation course

C.

Recruit additional internal auditors possessing relevant qualification and experience

D.

Decline the engagement at this time

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Questions 200

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

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Questions 201

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

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Questions 202

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate response for an internal auditor to take when a significant risk is identified during a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Report the risk identified from the consulting engagement to senior management.

B.

Do not include the risk in the assessment of risk management processes, as that is management's responsibility.

C.

Do not report the risk, as it is out of scope for the consulting engagement.

D.

Include the risk identified from the consulting engagement in the next annual risk assessment only if it is part of the consulting engagement objectives.

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Questions 203

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity’s budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational management's view of risk objectives.

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence.

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Questions 204

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

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Questions 205

Which of the following statements about assurance maps is correct?

Options:

A.

An assurance map is used by the chief audit executive to coordinate assurance activities with other internal and external assurance providers

B.

An assurance map is a picture of all assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity across the organization

C.

An assurance map is used by the engagement supervisor to coordinate the roles of various internal audit team members assigned to assurance engagements

D.

An assurance map lists the procedures and testing activities performed by an internal audit team during an assurance engagement

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Questions 206

Which of the following approaches would best help an internal auditor determine whether a retailer database of 100,000 customers has nay duplicate accounts?

Options:

A.

Stratifying the customer information

B.

Extracting the customer information

C.

Filtering the customer information

D.

Sorting the customer information

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Questions 207

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization's suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs

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Questions 208

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager's decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

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Questions 209

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA’s mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The board seeks senior managements recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit act/vity.

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

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Questions 210

The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization has completed this year’s risk-based audit plan and realized that current staff resources are insufficient to meet the needs of the plan. What course of action should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Amend the audit plan so that available audit resources are adequate to meet the plan’s requirements.

B.

Inform the board and senior management of the resources needed, as well as the associated risks.

C.

Communicate early to those unit managers whose areas would most likely not be able to get reviewed.

D.

Get approval from human resources regarding overtime payment to be made in an effort to complete the audit plan.

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Questions 211

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

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Questions 212

Which of the following attribute sampling methods would be most appropriate to use to measure the total misstatement posted to an accounts payable ledger?

Options:

A.

Stop-or-go sampling

B.

Probability to proportional size sampling

C.

Classical variable sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

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Questions 213

An internal auditor is assessing whether a vendor onboarding procedure is being followed in all business units. The procedure has been centrally designed and depicts activities and validations that must be performed at every step. Which of the following is the most suitable way to compile an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

Develop statements that are based on the procedure requirements and ask respondents to select yes or no responses

B.

Develop open questions that inquire about the appropriateness and efficacy of the procedure

C.

Develop closed questions asking managers to describe the onboarding process in detail

D.

Develop multiple response questions where a respondent has to identify one correct answer out of four

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Questions 214

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner's approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

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Questions 215

Which of the following sources of testimonial evidence would be considered the most reliable regarding whether a process is effectively performed according to its design?

Options:

A.

The person responsible for performing the task

B.

Two or more people that work in the area

C.

The supervisor in charge of the process

D.

The manager that wrote the steps to be followed

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Questions 216

Which of the following best exemplifies having effective risk management and internal control processes?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk indicators and mitigation plans are in place

B.

All risks are identified and assessed

C.

Business profitability is likely to be achieved

D.

Risk information is communicated to customers and suppliers

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Questions 217

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan''

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval.

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO tor approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval.

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Questions 218

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

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Questions 219

Which of the following should be included in a company's year-end inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

Company goods that were sold during the year, free on board shipping point, that have been shipped but not yet received by the customer

B.

Goods purchased by the company, free on board destination, that have not yet been received.

C.

Goods on consignment, which the company is trying to sell for its customers.

D.

Company goods for sale on consignment at a consignment shop

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Questions 220

Which of the following constitutes supervisory activity undertaken during the planning phase of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the process owner with the engagement objectives

B.

Reviewing engagement draft reports

C.

Ensuring workpapers support audit findings

D.

Approving audit work programs

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Questions 221

An internal auditor is starting the fieldwork of an assurance engagement. The auditor will conduct a walkthrough of selected controls with control owners. What should be the primary objective of this walkthrough?

Options:

A.

Collect the policies and procedures relevant to the audited area

B.

Understand the financial results published for the period under review

C.

Assess the design of the internal controls in place

D.

Define the objectives of the assurance engagement

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Questions 222

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources. Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls.

C.

Detective key controls.

D.

Preventive key controls

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Questions 223

How should an internal auditor approach preparing a detailed risk assessment during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

Complete the risk assessment independently to prevent conflicts of interest with the function being reviewed.

B.

Work with external auditors to ensure that the risk assessment includes items reflected on the independent auditor's report.

C.

Work with management of the function being reviewed, as management would be most familiar with the business objectives and related risks.

D.

Consult with the compliance department, which typically has a more comprehensive view of the organization.

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Questions 224

An internal auditor wants to identity potential ghost employees in the organization's payroll system The auditor extracts the following data

- Human resources data with employees' names addresses employment conditions and identification codes

- Payroll data

- Logs from entrance systems

With this data, which of the following types of ghost employees will the auditor be able to identify?

Options:

A.

Employees who are being paid more than then approved wages

B.

Employees who get paid although their employment has expired

C.

Employees who are related to one of the subcontractors

D.

Employees who are physically present at the workplace but who do not perform the specified job duties

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Practice of Internal Auditing
Last Update: Nov 21, 2025
Questions: 747

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