MCCQE MCCQE Part 1 Exam Questions and Answers

Given the lack of prenatal care, the mother's withdrawal, and prior involvement of child protection services, a newborn drug screen is warranted to assess for possible in utero exposure. This is part of the safety assessment.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Newborn Assessment:

“Infants born to mothers with no prenatal care or prior social concerns should undergo a full newborn screening, including toxicology if indicated.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Newborn Care and Social Issues:

“Candidates must identify social risk factors and initiate appropriate newborn evaluations, including toxicology screens when substance use is suspected.”

The mother was previously immune to hepatitis B, so (A) is not immediately required. Skin-to-skin care (D) is beneficial but secondary to screening in this context. Donor milk (B) is not indicated unless breastfeeding is contraindicated.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Lithium commonly causes hypothyroidism, which can lead to fatigue, cognitive slowing, weight gain, and memory impairment. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are often elevated in such cases.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Endocrinology:

“Lithium is associated with hypothyroidism and renal impairment. Monitor TSH regularly in patients on lithium therapy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Mood Stabilizers):

“Candidates must recognize the endocrine side effects of lithium, including hypothyroidism and the importance of TSH monitoring.”

Creatinine clearance (C) may also be affected but is less directly associated with memory issues. Liver function (A), sodium (D), and PTH (E) are not typically the first abnormal values in this presentation.

====================================================

The symptoms described — haloes at night, monocular diplopia, and improved near vision (second sight) — are classic signs of nuclear sclerosis-type cataracts. On exam, the most consistent finding would be an altered red reflex due to lens opacification.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ophthalmology, Cataracts:

“Cataracts can cause glare, monocular diplopia, and improved near vision. A diminished or irregular red reflex is commonly seen on direct ophthalmoscopy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Ophthalmologic Disorders:

“The candidate must recognize symptoms and physical findings of cataracts, including changes in red reflex and visual acuity.”

Options A and B are associated with lipid deposition and Wilson’s disease, respectively. Retinal exudates (D) suggest diabetic or hypertensive retinopathy. Increased intraocular pressure (E) suggests glaucoma but is not supported by this clinical picture.

====================================================

Persistent bloody diarrhea with negative stool cultures and ova/parasite testing in an older adult suggests inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) or another colitis such as ischemic or microscopic colitis. Colonoscopy is the best next diagnostic step to evaluate for ulcerative colitis, Crohn disease, ischemic colitis, or malignancy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, "Inflammatory Bowel Disease":

“Persistent bloody diarrhea with negative infectious work-up should prompt colonoscopic evaluation to rule out IBD or other forms of colitis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Gastrointestinal > 47-1):

“Candidates must assess and investigate chronic or persistent diarrhea. In the presence of red flag features such as bleeding, weight loss, or anemia, colonoscopy is indicated.”

Antibiotics (A) are not indicated with negative stool cultures. Observation (C) and loperamide (D) risk delaying diagnosis. Steroids (E) may be required later but only after confirmation of diagnosis.

Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of chronic stridor in infants. It presents with inspiratory stridor that worsens with feeding, supine positioning, or agitation. The child remains otherwise well and meets developmental milestones.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Airway Disorders:

“Laryngomalacia presents with intermittent inspiratory stridor, typically beginning in the first few months of life. Diagnosis is clinical and prognosis is usually good.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Respiratory Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize the typical presentation of laryngomalacia and differentiate it from other causes of pediatric stridor.”

Vascular ring (A) or subglottic hemangioma (C) often present with more severe or progressive symptoms. Foreign body aspiration (D) presents acutely. TE fistula (E) usually causes feeding difficulties from birth.

The most appropriate and professional response is to focus on the current clinical situation and reassure the family that you will take responsibility for assessment and treatment. Criticizing a colleague (A, B, E) or deflecting to generalities (D) is unprofessional and unhelpful in crisis management.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Physician-Patient-Family Communication:

“In emotionally charged or crisis situations, the physician must remain focused, empathetic, and professional. Avoid blaming colleagues; instead, offer a concrete plan of care.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Ethics and Professionalism:

“Candidates must demonstrate professionalism in managing conflicts, focusing on patient care while maintaining collegial respect.”

====================================================

This infant likely has infantile colic, defined by the “rule of 3s”: crying >3 hours per day, >3 days per week, for >3 weeks, usually starting in the first few months of life. It is benign and self-limited, typically resolving by 3–4 months of age.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Common Concerns in Infancy”:

“Colic is self-limited. No routine testing is required in healthy, thriving infants. Reassurance and support for parents are key.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Behavioral Pediatrics):

“Candidates must recognize normal variations such as colic and avoid unnecessary interventions. Counseling and reassurance are essential.”

Sedatives (D) are contraindicated. Investigations (C) are unnecessary without red flags. Resolution (B) usually occurs by 3–4 months, not as late as 12 months.

Fibrocystic change is the most common benign breast condition in women of reproductive age. It typically presents with diffuse nodularity or "lumpy" areas, especially in the upper outer quadrant, and varies with the menstrual cycle. No dominant mass or systemic signs are expected.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Benign Breast Conditions”:

“Fibrocystic changes often present with bilateral or unilateral nodularity, most commonly in the upper outer quadrants, without discrete masses.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):

“Candidates must differentiate benign breast conditions from malignant ones based on presentation and physical exam findings.”

Paget disease (B) presents with nipple changes. Intraductal carcinoma (C) typically shows a discrete mass or suspicious features. Phyllodes tumours are usually well-circumscribed. Mastitis (E) is inflammatory and associated with erythema, fever, and tenderness.

Sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain in a postoperative patient with tachypnea and clear lung fields are classic features of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent orthopedic surgery significantly increases VTE risk. Clear lungs on auscultation support this over pneumonia or CHF.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Respiratory, “Pulmonary Embolism”:

“Presentation includes sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea. Risk factors include recent surgery and immobilization. Examination often reveals clear chest auscultation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Cardiopulmonary > 44-1):

“Candidates must recognize PE in patients with risk factors (e.g., surgery) and classic features and initiate appropriate diagnosis and management.”

Fat embolism (B) usually presents with petechiae, neurologic symptoms, and occurs within 24–72 hours post-op. Cholesterol emboli (E) are more chronic and systemic.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This is a classic presentation of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), characterized by pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips in older adults. PMR is closely associated with giant cell arteritis (GCA), which presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, visual symptoms, and scalp tenderness. Given the risk of vision loss with GCA, it's critical to screen for these symptoms in all patients with suspected PMR.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, PMR and GCA:

“Patients with PMR should be assessed for symptoms of GCA such as headache, visual changes, and jaw claudication. GCA can result in permanent vision loss if not promptly treated.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Rheumatology:

“Candidates must identify signs of GCA in patients with PMR and understand the need for prompt diagnosis and treatment.”

====================================================

This patient exhibits perfectionism, preoccupation with order and control, and reluctance to delegate — classic features of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Unlike OCD, there are no intrusive thoughts or compulsions; rather, behaviors are ego-syntonic.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Personality Disorders:

“OCPD is marked by perfectionism, rigidity, and preoccupation with productivity. It differs from OCD in lacking obsessions or compulsions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Personality Disorders:

“Candidates must distinguish OCPD by traits of excessive perfectionism, control, and inflexibility, particularly when these interfere with functioning.”

Major depression (A) is marked by pervasive low mood, which is not reported. OCD (B) involves distressing obsessions and compulsions. GAD (C) is more generalized worry without the perfectionism and rigidity.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient has tardive dyskinesia, a late-onset, often irreversible movement disorder caused by chronic dopamine receptor blockade (e.g., haloperidol). It is especially common in older adults and may not resolve after stopping the drug.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Extrapyramidal Symptoms”:

“Tardive dyskinesia is often irreversible and typically occurs after prolonged antipsychotic use. Elderly patients are at greater risk.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Side Effects of Psychotropics):

“Candidates must recognize tardive dyskinesia and understand that it can persist or worsen even after discontinuation of antipsychotics.”

Anticholinergics may worsen it (D). The condition does not reliably improve with age (C). It does not affect a majority of patients (A).

This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Oncology, “Breast Cancer Risk” Section:

“BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):

“Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines.”

Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Postmenopausal women with abdominal distension, bloating, a complex pelvic mass, and elevated CA-125 are highly suggestive of epithelial ovarian cancer, especially serous cystadenocarcinoma—the most common type.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology / Oncology:

“Serous epithelial ovarian carcinoma presents with vague abdominal symptoms, ascites, complex pelvic mass, and elevated CA-125.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-5: Ovarian Masses):

“Candidates must recognize signs and investigations of ovarian cancer, including elevated tumor markers and imaging findings.”

Ovarian hyperstimulation (A) occurs in fertility treatments. Colorectal cancer (C) may mimic these symptoms but typically causes rectal bleeding and has lower CA-125 levels. Uterine adenocarcinoma (D) usually causes bleeding. Hematosalpinx (E) presents with pelvic pain, not ascites.

Patient education is foundational in managing fibromyalgia. Understanding the chronic but non-progressive nature of the disease, reassurance, and emphasis on self-management are crucial. It helps set realistic expectations and enhances engagement in therapy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, Fibromyalgia:

“Patient education is essential. Explain the nature of fibromyalgia, emphasizing that although it is chronic, it is non-deforming and can be managed through exercise, sleep hygiene, and cognitive strategies.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry & Rheumatology > Chronic Pain Syndromes:

“Candidates must recognize the value of education and behavioral interventions in managing functional syndromes.”

SSRIs (D) may be used if depression is present. Iron/B12 (B) are not indicated without evidence of deficiency. Cannabinoids (A) lack strong evidence in fibromyalgia.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Postpartum psychosis is strongly associated with bipolar disorder and other mood disorders. A personal or family history of bipolar disorder significantly increases the risk. It typically presents within the first 2 weeks postpartum and is a psychiatric emergency.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Postpartum Psychiatric Disorders”:

“Risk factors for postpartum psychosis include personal or family history of bipolar disorder or postpartum psychosis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Mood Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize risk factors for postpartum psychiatric illness, particularly the association with bipolar spectrum disorders.”

Advanced maternal age (A), multiparity (B), and panic disorder (D) do not significantly increase the risk of postpartum psychosis.

====================================================

Postoperative fever on day 1–2 is commonly caused by atelectasis, particularly in patients who are immobile. It is considered a self-limited cause of early fever after surgery and often resolves with mobilization and pulmonary exercises.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Surgery, Postoperative Complications:

“The ‘5 W’s’ of postoperative fever: Wind (atelectasis), Water (UTI), Wound (infection), Walking (DVT), and Wonder drugs. Atelectasis typically occurs in the first 48 hours and is due to hypoventilation or pain-limited breathing.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Surgery > Postoperative Management:

“Candidates must recognize timing-specific causes of postoperative fever. Atelectasis is the most likely cause within the first 48 hours.”

PE (B) can cause fever but is less likely without respiratory compromise. Wound infection (C) and bowel trauma (D) typically present later or with more specific symptoms. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (A) usually presents later and with more systemic signs.

====================================================

The key public health message from a physician’s perspective is the evidence-based health risks and adverse effects associated with nonprescribed stimulant use (e.g., insomnia, anxiety, cardiovascular events, and dependency). This is central to a harm-reduction approach.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health & Psychiatry, Substance Use:

“Misuse of prescription stimulants is common among university students. Education campaigns should emphasize medical risks including cardiovascular complications, addiction potential, and psychiatric disturbances.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Health Promotion:

“Candidates should identify core messages in public education campaigns, prioritizing evidence-based risks and harm reduction.”

Legal and ethical issues (B, C) are important but secondary to the health implications. Prevalence data (D) informs the campaign design, but is not the message itself. Study habits (A) are relevant for academic counseling, not medical messaging.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Epidural analgesia is associated with increased maternal intrapartum fever due to non-infectious(neurogenic) thermoregulation impairment. This is a well-known phenomenon in laboring women.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics / Anesthesia:

“Epidural analgesia increases risk of intrapartum fever by up to 20% via non-infectious mechanisms.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-5: Intrapartum Care):

“Candidates must recognize risk factors for intrapartum complications, including effects of epidural use.”

Multiparity (A), precipitous labor (B), and maternal age (C) are not established risk factors for intrapartum fever.

Physicians in Canada may charge patients for uninsured services (e.g., completion of forms, cosmetic procedures, some travel-related vaccines), but they may not charge extra for insured services or preferential access. Doing so violates the Canada Health Act, which mandates accessibility and universality of insured services.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Health Care System:

“Physicians may charge for uninsured services but may not charge block fees for insured services, nor can they charge for expedited access to insured services.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – ELOM > Health Policy and System:

“Candidates must recognize practices that violate the principles of publicly funded health care, including charging for insured services or access premiums.”

Option A is not permitted under law. Options B, D, and E involve insured services (e.g., home visits, after-hours care) and cannot be billed directly to patients.

====================================================

Accurate dating is critical in pregnancies at high risk for preeclampsia and intrauterine growthrestriction. First-trimester ultrasound is used to establish gestational age, which guides monitoring and interventions.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, High-Risk Pregnancy:

“In women with a history of preeclampsia, early and accurate dating allows for appropriate fetal surveillance and timely delivery.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics > Prenatal Care:

“Candidates should recognize the importance of accurate pregnancy dating in high-risk pregnancies.”

Prophylactic labetalol (E) is not indicated in normotensive patients. Genetic testing (A, B) is not appropriate unless additional risk factors are present. Bed rest (D) is not evidence-based for preeclampsia prevention.

====================================================

This patient has secondary amenorrhea, infertility, and a history of multiple uterine curettages, which strongly points toward Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or synechiae). The hysterosalpingogram shows an obliterated uterine cavity and no tubal dye spill—classic for intrauterine synechiae. Her midluteal progesterone level is normal, indicating ovulation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Infertility” section:

“Asherman syndrome results from intrauterine adhesions due to curettage, leading to amenorrhea and infertility. HSG shows an obliterated or irregular uterine cavity.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):

“Candidates should evaluate secondary amenorrhea and interpret imaging such as hysterosalpingogram in the diagnosis of intrauterine abnormalities.”

Other options are ruled out by the presence of normal ovulation (rules out hypothalamic and PCOS) and by imaging (not suggestive of fibroids or perimenopause).

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

For small renal masses (<4 cm), partial nephrectomy (nephron-sparing surgery) is the standard of care in patients who are surgical candidates. It preserves renal function and provides oncologic control.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Urology / Oncology:

“Small renal tumors <4 cm should be treated with partial nephrectomy. Active surveillance or ablation may be alternatives in poor surgical candidates.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Urology > 59-2: Renal Masses):

“Candidates must manage small renal tumors with nephron-sparing surgery when feasible.”

MRI (A) is unnecessary after CT confirmation. Radiation (B) is not first-line. Surveillance (D) may be appropriate for elderly or frail patients, not this one. Ablation (E) is for high-risk surgical patients.

—

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Transient synovitis is the most common cause of hip pain and limp in children aged 3–10 years. It is often preceded by a viral infection. Patients appear well, can often bear weight, and have only mild to moderate elevation in inflammatory markers. Radiographs are normal.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Limping Child”:

“Transient synovitis is benign and self-limiting. Presentation includes mild limp, low-grade fever, normal or slightly elevated CRP/ESR, and ability to bear weight.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):

“Candidates must distinguish between transient synovitis and more serious causes of limping, such as septic arthritis.”

Septic arthritis (A) usually causes inability to bear weight and more significant fever and CRP elevation. Osteomyelitis (B) typically presents with localized tenderness and systemic signs. Bursitis (D) is rare in young children. JIA (E) is chronic.

—

A varicocele is a dilatation of the pampiniform plexus that presents with a “bag of worms” appearance, worsens with standing, and improves when lying down. It is most common on the left side due to anatomical drainage differences.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Urology, Scrotal Disorders:

“Varicoceles often present with a dull, aching pain and scrotal swelling that worsens when upright and disappears when supine.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Urology:

“Candidates must recognize and diagnose varicocele by physical exam findings and typical symptom history.”

Cryptorchidism (A) refers to undescended testes. Torsion (B) presents acutely with severe pain. Hydrocele (C) transilluminates and is not posture-dependent. "Spermatocyte" (D) is not a clinical diagnosis.

====================================================

In a euthyroid patient with an asymptomatic goiter or thyroid enlargement, the next step is a thyroid ultrasound to evaluate nodule size, composition, and features suggestive of malignancy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, Thyroid Nodules and Goiter:

“TSH should be obtained first. If normal and there is a palpable mass or enlargement, ultrasound is indicated to evaluate for nodules and guide further testing (e.g., FNA).”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:

“Candidates must use thyroid ultrasound as the initial imaging study in the evaluation of thyroid enlargement or palpable nodules.”

T3/T4 (A) are not needed with normal TSH. FNA (D) is done if nodules are identified. CT (C) is used for retrosternal goiters or compressive symptoms. Calcium (E) is irrelevant here.

====================================================

A mood journal is a structured tool that allows the patient to record mood fluctuations, triggers, and timing. It is particularly helpful in identifying mood disorders such as premenstrual dysphoric disorder, bipolar disorder, or cyclothymia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Mood Disorders:

“Mood diaries are useful in identifying temporal patterns, such as menstrual cycle–linked mood changes, and in distinguishing between affective disorders.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Diagnostic Evaluation:

“Candidates should use clinical tools such as symptom diaries to assist in establishing the pattern and nature of psychiatric symptoms.”

Personality testing (A) is not first-line. Urine drug screen (B) is only indicated with suspicion of substance use. Lorazepam (D) treats symptoms, not diagnosis. Interviewing the boyfriend (E) may help, but only as a supplement to direct observation and self-report.

====================================================

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia, especially in patients with impaired renal function. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly wide complex tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology and Nephrology, “Hyperkalemia” Section:

“Patients with CKD are at increased risk for hyperkalemia, particularly when taking potassium-sparing medications such as spironolactone. Severe hyperkalemia may cause bradycardia or wide-complex tachyarrhythmias.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-2: Electrolyte Abnormalities):

“Candidates must recognize drug-induced hyperkalemia as a cause of cardiac arrhythmias, especially in patients with renal dysfunction.”

Hydrochlorothiazide (B) can cause hypokalemia. Metoprolol (C) and diltiazem (E) are rate-controlling agents but do not typically cause wide complex tachycardia. Clopidogrel (D) has no effect on cardiac conduction.

====================================================

The patient demonstrates signs of asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL). In Weber test, sound localizes to the better ear in SNHL. Air conduction > bone conduction on Rinne test bilaterally supports SNHL. Audiometry is the best next diagnostic step to quantify and characterize the hearing loss.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ENT, "Hearing Loss":

“Audiometry is the first-line investigation to distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing loss and to assess severity and frequency involvement.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > ENT > 20-1):

“Candidates must know the approach to hearing loss and interpret Weber and Rinne tests to guide investigations such as audiometry.”

Imaging (A, C) is reserved for red flags such as unilateral persistent SNHL, which may later prompt MRI to rule out acoustic neuroma. Wax removal (D) is for conductive loss. Hearing aids (E) are management, not diagnostic, and come after audiologic evaluation.

====================================================

Early identification of sensorineural hearing loss through universal newborn screening enables early intervention (e.g., cochlear implants, speech therapy), which can result in near-normal language development.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Hearing Loss:

“Children diagnosed early with bilateral hearing loss and provided with appropriate intervention (e.g., amplification or implants) can achieve normal speech and language milestones.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Development & Communication Disorders:

“Candidates must understand the importance of early detection and intervention in congenital hearing loss and its impact on speech and literacy outcomes.”

Other options (A–C, E) are outdated or overly pessimistic. Current evidence supports favorable outcomes with early diagnosis and management.

Anaphylaxis requires immediate administration of epinephrine via the intramuscular (IM) route, typically in the lateral thigh. This route provides the fastest and most reliable absorption for emergency treatment.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Anaphylaxis:

“Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IM is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. The intramuscular route provides the most rapid and safe absorption in emergencies.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Allergy and Immunology:

“Candidates must know the emergency management of anaphylaxis, including proper dosage and intramuscular administration of epinephrine.”

IV administration (A) is reserved for critical care settings. Subcutaneous (C) and intranasal/inhaled routes (D, E) are ineffective in anaphylaxis.

====================================================

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis caused by HSV-1 is common in toddlers. It presents with high fever, irritability, drooling, refusal to eat, and painful oral ulcers on the lips, gums, and tongue. Cervical lymphadenopathy is common.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Infectious Conditions in Children”:

“Primary HSV-1 infection in children presents with high fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and painful oral ulcers (gingivostomatitis).”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 75-2: Infectious Diseases):

“Candidates must recognize viral exanthems and enanthems, including herpetic gingivostomatitis, based on clinical findings.”

Kawasaki (A) includes conjunctivitis, strawberry tongue, and extremity changes. Epiglottitis (B) presents with drooling but without oral ulcers. Mono (C) lacks the ulcerative pattern. Hand-foot-mouth (D) affects palms and soles, not inner lips and gums predominantly.

====================================================

It is essential to balance medical guidelines with trauma-informed, patient-centered care. This includes offering future discussion while respecting boundaries. Acknowledging distress and offering to explore more in the future (B) preserves trust and autonomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM and LGBTQ2S+ Health Section:

“For transgender individuals, screening decisions should be personalized. Trauma-informed care includes validating distress and deferring invasive exams when not urgent.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety):

“Candidates must prioritize patient-centered communication and consent, particularly when distress or marginalization may influence healthcare interactions.”

Option A is coercive. Option C is documentation only and lacks engagement or exploration.

The presentation is consistent with cervical spondylosis — a degenerative condition. In the absence of neurologic findings, further imaging beyond plain radiography is not warranted. Management includes conservative measures such as physiotherapy and analgesia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, Cervical Spondylosis:

“Patients with typical cervical spondylosis and no red flags (e.g., neurologic deficits) do not require MRI. Treatment is conservative. Radiographs showing disc space narrowing and osteophytes confirm diagnosis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Musculoskeletal Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize typical degenerative spine disorders and avoid unnecessary investigations when clinical findings are straightforward.”

MRI (B) is useful if myelopathy or radiculopathy is suspected. CT (A), EMG (C), and LP (D) are not indicated here.

====================================================

For pregnant patients with opioid use disorder, opioid agonist therapy with methadone or buprenorphine is the standard of care. Detoxification is not recommended in pregnancy due to increased risk of fetal distress, preterm labor, and relapse. Methadone reduces illicit opioid use and stabilizes both mother and fetus.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Addiction Medicine / Obstetrics:

“Methadone maintenance therapy is the treatment of choice for pregnant patients with opioid use disorder. Detoxification is not advised during pregnancy due to relapse risk and potential harm to the fetus.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Substance Use in Pregnancy):

“Candidates must manage opioid use disorder in pregnancy with evidence-based therapies, including referral for methadone or buprenorphine.”

Counselling alone (D) is insufficient as first-line therapy. Home detox (C) is unsafe. Inpatient detox (A) is not recommended in pregnancy.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Patients undergoing splenectomy are at lifelong risk for overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), particularly from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis is recommended at least 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology / Surgery:

“Patients undergoing elective splenectomy should receive vaccines against pneumococcus, H. influenzae type b, and meningococcus at least 2 weeks before surgery.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Hematology > 38-2: Thrombocytopenia and Splenectomy):

“Candidates must ensure vaccination prior to splenectomy to prevent postsplenectomy sepsis.”

Calcium (B) may be considered in chronic steroid users but is not the priority. Azithromycin (C) is not indicated. D is unsafe without tapering. E is only for acute bleeding or extremely low platelets.

—

Fibroadenomas can grow slightly or fluctuate in size. A minimal increase (from 1.5 cm to 1.7 cm) over six months is clinically insignificant. No malignant features are reported, and the previous biopsy confirmed benign nature. Annual follow-up is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics and Gynecology, “Breast Disorders” Section:

“Fibroadenomas are benign breast masses that may slightly enlarge. Routine imaging follow-up at 6 to 12 months is appropriate for lesions with benign imaging and histology.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-3: Breast Mass):

“Candidates must distinguish between benign and suspicious masses and determine appropriate intervals for follow-up imaging.”

Repeat biopsy (A) or surgery (B) is unwarranted without suspicious change. MRI (C) is not needed in stable, benign lesions. Tamoxifen (D) is not used for fibroadenomas.

====================================================

A history of previous alcohol withdrawal seizures is the single greatest predictor of future withdrawal seizures. This establishes a sensitization response within the central nervous system.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Addiction Medicine:

“A prior history of alcohol withdrawal seizures is the most important risk factor for recurrent seizures during future withdrawal episodes.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Substance Use > 58-3):

“Candidates must identify individuals at high risk for severe alcohol withdrawal based on past withdrawal history, including seizures and delirium tremens.”

Although quantity, duration, and comorbidities contribute to risk, a prior withdrawal seizure most strongly predicts recurrence.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient demonstrates excellent exercise tolerance (17 METs) and no ischemic changes or exertional symptoms, which makes cardiac ischemia unlikely. However, the hypertensive response to exercise (BP >190 systolic) indicates masked or latent hypertension. This should be managed proactively, typically starting with a thiazide.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology:

“An exaggerated hypertensive response during exercise is predictive of future hypertension. Treatment with antihypertensive agents such as thiazides may be warranted.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 31-1: Hypertension and Risk Management):

“Candidates must identify abnormal BP responses to exercise and initiate appropriate treatment.”

Reassurance alone (A) ignores the hypertensive response. Catheterization (C) and beta-blockers (D) are unnecessary without ischemia. Advising against exercise (B) is counterproductive in a young, otherwise healthy patient.

—

Valproic acid is well known to cause thrombocytopenia, especially at higher serum concentrations or in patients over 60. Bruising with platelet count <100 × 10⁹/L is a classic manifestation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Mood Disorders & Pharmacology Section:

“Valproic acid is associated with hematologic side effects including thrombocytopenia. Platelet counts should be monitored regularly.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Pharmacotherapy:

“The candidate must recognize adverse effects of mood stabilizers including hematologic complications of valproic acid.”

Other listed medications (A–D) have no common or direct link with thrombocytopenia in this context.

The patient presents with an acutely inflamed joint and fever, raising concern for septic arthritis. A history of gout does not exclude infection. The first and most urgent step in any monoarthritis with systemic signs (fever) is joint aspiration to assess for crystals, white cells, and organisms.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Rheumatology, “Monoarthritis”:

“Always rule out septic arthritis in a hot, swollen joint, especially when fever is present. Joint aspiration is essential to differentiate infection from crystal arthropathy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Rheumatology > 49-1):

“Candidates must identify red flags for septic arthritis and understand that arthrocentesis is the first step in diagnosis and management.”

Initiating NSAIDs or acetaminophen without diagnosis (C, D) can delay appropriate care. Radiographs (B) do not help differentiate gout from infection acutely. Blood cultures (E) may help, but aspiration is more diagnostic.

====================================================

The patient is alert and capable of making his own decisions. The most ethical and respectful approach is to ensure he understands the risks and accept his choice. Holding his bed maintains continuity of care. Forcing him to stay (C) or discharging him AMA (A) is inappropriate if he intends to return.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Consent and Autonomy:

“Capable patients have the right to refuse or leave treatment. Physicians must ensure informed decision-making and maintain therapeutic rapport.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – ELOM > Capacity and Patient Autonomy:

“Candidates must respect a capable patient’s right to leave care after informed discussion of risks and alternatives.”

Offering to enter his apartment (E) is inappropriate and unethical. Oral antibiotics (B) may not be clinically appropriate given hypotension.

====================================================

Medical record retention is governed by laws and policies established by the provincial or territorial medical regulatory authorities (e.g., College of Physicians and Surgeons of Ontario).These bodies set requirements for how long patient records must be maintained and how to handle former patients’ data.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Health Systems:

“Retention of medical records is regulated by provincial/territorial colleges, which outline minimum retention periods and storage responsibilities.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Legal Requirements > Professional Responsibilities):

“The candidate must be able to identify the legal responsibilities of physicians regarding record-keeping, as guided by regulatory authorities.”

National organizations such as Health Canada, CFPC, CMA, and MCC do not set these rules for individual practice management.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient presents with the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): gait disturbance (often wide-based and magnetic), cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence. The combination, especially with the gait being most prominent, is highly suggestive.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics / Neurology:

“NPH presents with gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence. Gait is typically broad-based and magnetic. Imaging shows ventriculomegaly without elevated pressure.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):

“Candidates must identify NPH and distinguish it from other dementias based on clinical triad and gait features.”

Alzheimer’s (B) primarily presents with memory loss. Parkinson’s (A) has bradykinesia and rigidity. Lewy body dementia (C) includes visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition. FTD (E) has personality and behavioral changes.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

A localized mass with tenderness at a recent surgical site, intact skin, low-grade temperature, and normal white count is most consistent with a wound hematoma. This is a common complication at saphenous vein graft harvest sites post-CABG.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Surgery / Cardiac:

“Wound hematoma presents as localized swelling and tenderness near recent surgical sites. Abscess is suggested by erythema, warmth, and systemic signs.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-2: Postoperative Complications):

“Candidates must identify and differentiate wound complications, including hematoma, seroma, and abscess.”

Abscess (E) would show redness, fluctuance, and fever. Aneurysm (B) is rare and pulsatile. Bleeding (A) would not form a stable mass 2 weeks post-op. Thrombophlebitis (C) usually involves superficial veins and erythema.

—

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The child’s presentation (weight gain, short stature, truncal obesity, facial swelling, hypertrichosis) is classic for Cushing syndrome. One of the hallmark findings on physical examination in pediatric Cushing syndrome is hypertension, due to increased cortisol-mediated mineralocorticoid receptor activation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics / Endocrinology:

“Cushing syndrome in children presents with growth failure, weight gain, moon facies, truncal obesity, and hypertension.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-2: Endocrine Disorders in Children):

“Candidates must identify clinical signs of hypercortisolism and evaluate for associated findings such as elevated blood pressure.”

Café-au-lait spots (A) suggest neurofibromatosis. Goiter (C) is more related to thyroid dysfunction. Hepatomegaly (D) and acanthosis (E) are more commonly seen in metabolic syndrome or insulin resistance.

—

Refusing care based on sexual orientation constitutes discrimination under the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms and violates professional standards. Physicians must not deny care based on personal bias or prejudice.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, Equity in Care and Professionalism:

“Denying care based on sexual orientation violates both human rights legislation and professional obligations. Physicians must ensure equitable access for all patients.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – ELOM > Professionalism and Patient Rights:

“Candidates must act in accordance with patients’ rights to equitable, non-discriminatory access to care regardless of race, gender, or sexual orientation.”

Referral (Option B) does not excuse discriminatory refusal. Personal discomfort or inexperience (Options D and E) do not justify discrimination.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Physicians must avoid conflicts of interest and maintain professional boundaries with patients and their families. Accepting a personal financial gift, regardless of intent, is inappropriate and unethical.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Professionalism:

“Personal gifts of significant value from patients or families should be declined to avoid real or perceived conflicts of interest.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-3: Professionalism and Boundaries):

“Candidates must maintain ethical boundaries and refuse financial incentives that could compromise or appear to compromise clinical judgment.”

Other options (A, B, E) still involve a conflict. D is helpful, but the ethical obligation is to decline the cheque directly.

—

Visible rectal bleeding, even in the absence of systemic symptoms, warrants diagnostic colonoscopy to rule out colorectal cancer, polyps, or IBD—especially in adults over 40. FIT is for asymptomatic screening only.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, “Approach to Lower GI Bleeding”:

“In patients with overt rectal bleeding, colonoscopy is the investigation of choice regardless of age or FIT status.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology > 47-1):

“Candidates must evaluate rectal bleeding with colonoscopy, even in the presence of minor findings on physical exam (e.g., skin tag).”

FIT (A) is not appropriate for symptomatic patients. CEA (D) is a tumor marker for surveillance, not diagnosis. CT colonography (C) is less sensitive for lesions than colonoscopy.

In cases of blunt testicular trauma with inability to palpate the testicle due to hematoma, scrotal ultrasonography is the first-line investigation to assess for testicular rupture or other injury.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Urology, “Testicular Trauma”:

“Scrotal ultrasound is the investigation of choice to assess for testicular rupture, hematoma, or torsion. Early imaging is critical if testis is non-palpable or if hematoma is significant.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Genitourinary Trauma):

“Candidates must investigate testicular trauma using ultrasound to rule out rupture or torsion.”

Exploration (B) is done if ultrasound confirms rupture. Observation or discharge (A, E) without imaging risks missing serious injury.

====================================================

This patient presents with signs of acute compartment syndrome (pain out of proportion, paresthesia, pallor, swelling, decreased pulses, and dark urine indicating rhabdomyolysis). Measuring compartment pressures is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the diagnosis and guide urgent surgical fasciotomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Orthopedics:

“Acute compartment syndrome should be suspected in any patient with severe extremity pain, swelling, sensory deficits, and tense compartments. Confirm with compartment pressure measurements. Fasciotomy is indicated if pressure is >30 mmHg or within 30 mmHg of diastolic pressure.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Limb Trauma):

“Candidates must diagnose acute compartment syndrome and initiate appropriate surgical referral after confirming with pressure measurements.”

Angiography and Doppler studies assess vascular compromise but are not the first step in suspected compartment syndrome. Fixing the hip (C) and testing myoglobin (E) are not diagnostic steps.

====================================================

Elevated hemoglobin in the absence of polycythemia vera can be due to secondary causes such as chronic hypoxia. Central sleep apnea, often associated with diabetes or neurologic conditions, leads to intermittent hypoxia and compensatory erythropoiesis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Hematology and Respiratory Medicine, “Polycythemia” Section:

“Secondary erythrocytosis may result from hypoxic conditions including sleep apnea, COPD, or high altitude. Assess for sleep-disordered breathing in patients with elevated hemoglobin and no myeloproliferative features.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Abnormalities):

“Candidates must investigate secondary causes of elevated hemoglobin, including hypoxia-related conditions.”

Hypertension (A), hypothyroidism (C), and cirrhosis (D) do not cause polycythemia. Alcohol (B) typically causes macrocytosis and anemia.

TENS has been shown to be effective for managing primary dysmenorrhea when pharmacological options are contraindicated or refused. It works by interfering with pain signal transmission and increasing endorphin levels.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, Dysmenorrhea:

“High-frequency TENS is effective in managing primary dysmenorrhea and can be considered when NSAIDs or hormonal therapies are not acceptable to the patient.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Gynecology > Menstrual Disorders:

“Candidates must be aware of non-pharmacological interventions for dysmenorrhea, including TENS and heat therapy.”

Options D and E involve hormonal or surgical intervention. Spinal manipulation and massage (B and C) lack consistent evidence for dysmenorrhea relief.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Pulsatile tinnitus synchronous with the pulse may be vascular in origin. The association with headaches and elevated BMI (a risk factor for idiopathic intracranial hypertension, IIH) warrants neuroimaging to assess for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, vascular malformations, or raised intracranial pressure.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology / ENT:

“Pulsatile tinnitus requires investigation for vascular causes including idiopathic intracranial hypertension. MRI or MRV is the next step.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 35-1: Headache and Tinnitus):

“Candidates must investigate pulsatile tinnitus with neuroimaging when vascular causes are suspected.”

Audiogram (A) is for hearing loss. EEG (C) is not useful for tinnitus. CRP (D) is irrelevant.

====================================================

The findings of exophthalmos (bulging eyes), conjunctival inflammation, and periorbital swelling are hallmark features of Graves ophthalmopathy, a manifestation of autoimmune hyperthyroidism.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, “Thyroid Disorders”:

“Graves ophthalmopathy: proptosis, periorbital edema, conjunctivitis, and diplopia due to extraocular muscle involvement. Often independent of thyroid levels.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 36-1: Thyroid Disease):

“Candidates must recognize and manage Graves disease and its ocular manifestations.”

Myasthenia gravis may cause diplopia but not proptosis or swelling. Pseudotumor and cellulitis are painful and acute. Allergic conjunctivitis is itchy but lacks proptosis.

Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:

Confusion

Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)

Ataxia

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology and Psychiatry, “Wernicke Encephalopathy” Section:

“Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):

“Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement.”

Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.

====================================================

ACE inhibitors such as ramipril are first-line for CHF with reduced ejection fraction, but a common adverse effect is a dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) offer the same hemodynamic and survival benefits without causing cough.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology, “Heart Failure” Section:

“In patients intolerant to ACE inhibitors due to cough, an ARB (e.g., losartan, valsartan) is the recommended substitute. ARBs also reduce mortality and hospitalizations in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-3: Congestive Heart Failure):

“Candidates should recognize ARBs as an alternative to ACE inhibitors in patients who develop adverse effects such as cough, while maintaining the mortality benefit.”

Other options (B–E) do not offer mortality benefits in CHF and may worsen the condition (e.g., CCBs, alpha-blockers, NSAIDs like COX-2 inhibitors).

====================================================

The highest priority is the immediate safety of the patient and her child. In the presence of domestic violence, risk assessment for harm or neglect must be conducted urgently, particularly since a child may be at risk. Safety trumps psychiatric or social evaluations in triage.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Crisis and Risk Assessment” Section:

“When intimate partner violence (IPV) is disclosed, it is critical to assess immediate safety and consider mandatory reporting, especially when children are involved.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-6: Violence and Abuse):

“Candidates must assess for and respond to risk of harm in situations of domestic violence, especially when dependents are involved. This includes ensuring immediate safety and following legal obligations for child protection.”

Although the other concerns (e.g., gambling, depression, substance use, financial need) are valid, the presence of violence makes D the first and most urgent priority.

====================================================

In postmenopausal women with severe vasomotor symptoms, hormone therapy (estrogen with progesterone in women with an intact uterus) is the most effective treatment. It improves hot flashes, sleep, and mood symptoms.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, Menopause Management:

“Combination hormone therapy is first-line for moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. Non-hormonal agents may be considered if contraindications exist.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Gynecology > Menopause:

“Candidates must recognize the indication and benefits of hormone therapy for vasomotor symptoms in appropriate patients.”

Lifestyle changes (A) are supportive but insufficient. Primrose oil (C) lacks robust evidence. SSRIs (D) and clonidine (E) are second-line.

Chronic mesenteric ischemia (also known as “intestinal angina”) presents as postprandial abdominal pain, leading to food avoidance and significant weight loss. GI exams may be normal. Imaging (e.g., angiography or CT angio) confirms the diagnosis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, “Chronic Mesenteric Ischemia”:

“Classic triad: postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and food aversion. Physical exam and GI series may be normal.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-1: Abdominal Pain):

“Candidates must suspect mesenteric ischemia in older adults with risk factors and postprandial pain leading to weight loss.”

PUD (A) usually causes epigastric pain relieved by food. Cholelithiasis (B) causes RUQ pain. Colon cancer (D) presents with altered bowel habits or bleeding. Mesenteric adenitis (C) occurs in younger patients, often with infection.

====================================================

This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry:

“Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions.”

Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.

=============================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Sexual dysfunction, including anorgasmia, is a common side effect of SSRIs like escitalopram. Bupropion, a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor, has minimal sexual side effects and can be safely added to mitigate this issue while preserving the antidepressant effect.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Pharmacology:

“SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction can be managed by dose reduction, switching agents, or adding bupropion.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Depressive Disorders):

“Candidates should be able to address side effects of antidepressants, including sexual dysfunction, and adjust therapy appropriately.”

Increasing the dose (A) may worsen sexual dysfunction. Venlafaxine (B), an SNRI, also has sexual side effects. D (no change) does not address the patient's concern.

—

The patient has clinical evidence of genital warts (condyloma acuminata), which are caused by low-risk HPV types. Even though she is not currently sexually active and has visible warts, HPV vaccination is still beneficial for protection against other oncogenic strains (especially types 16 and 18). Vaccination is safe and recommended up to age 45.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, "STIs and HPV":

“Vaccination is recommended up to age 45, regardless of prior exposure or visible warts. It may prevent reinfection with or acquisition of high-risk HPV strains.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 83-3: STIs and HPV):

“Candidates must counsel patients appropriately on prevention, including the role of HPV vaccination, even after exposure or infection.”

Pap testing (B) is routine screening, not management of visible warts. Cryotherapy (D) is optional if the patient desires removal, but she declined treatment. Biopsy (A) is reserved for atypical lesions. Contact tracing (E) is not typically required for HPV warts.

====================================================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Mid-cycle acute onset pelvic pain with localized adnexal tenderness in a reproductive-age woman suggests a hemorrhagic ovarian cyst, particularly a ruptured one. The hemodynamic parameters are stable, but elevated HR supports acute pain and possible blood loss.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology / Acute Pelvic Pain:

“Hemorrhagic ovarian cysts present with sudden unilateral pelvic pain, mid-cycle, with guarding and rebound tenderness. Ultrasound is key.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-4: Acute Pelvic Pain):

“Candidates must recognize common causes of acute pelvic pain, including ovarian cysts.”

Diverticulitis (A) is rare in young women and usually LLQ. Appendicitis (B) is more likely RLQ. Adenomyosis (C) and endometriosis (D) cause chronic cyclical pain, not acute tenderness.

—

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

While borderline personality disorder is challenging, symptoms (particularly impulsivity and suicidal behaviors) often attenuate with age and appropriate therapy (e.g., dialectical behavior therapy). Providing hope and clinical context to staff improves care and reduces stigma.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Personality Disorders”:

“BPD is associated with emotional dysregulation and impulsivity. Long-term prognosis is better than once believed, with many patients showing symptom remission over time.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-4: Personality Disorders):

“Candidates must provide appropriate education to patients and staff regarding prognosis and treatment of BPD.”

Statements A–D are false, stigmatizing, or dangerous.