N10-009 CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

These four terms—avoidance, acceptance, mitigation, and transfer—are strategies used in risk management.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“Risk in security refers to the potential for loss, damage, or destruction of assets or data due to a threat exploiting a vulnerability. Risk management strategies include avoidance, acceptance, mitigation, and transfer.”

To ensure voice and data traffic are properly prioritized for an IP phone, the administrator should modify (configure) QoS. In Network+ (N10-009), QoS is the primary mechanism used to prioritize latency-sensitive traffic such as VoIP. By classifying and marking voice frames/packets (often using DSCP/CoS values) and applying priority queuing, the network ensures voice traffic experiences minimal delay and jitter even when links are congested. This is essential for call quality because voice is highly sensitive to variation in delivery time and packet loss.

802.1Q tagging is important for VLAN separation (and many IP phone deployments use a voice VLAN), but VLAN tagging alone does not guarantee prioritization; it separates traffic, while QoS provides preferential treatment. Full duplex can reduce collisions on Ethernet links, but it does not implement traffic prioritization policies. Changing the native VLAN is a trunking/security configuration detail and not the correct action to prioritize voice versus data. In practice, networks often use both a voice VLAN (802.1Q) and QoS, but for the explicit requirement of prioritization, QoS is the correct answer.

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is the only dynamic routing protocol used across the internet. It's classified as an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP), responsible for routing between different autonomous systems (ASes).

A. EIGRP and D. OSPF are Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs), used within organizations.

C. RIP is an outdated IGP with limited use, unsuitable for internet-scale routing.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 3.1 – Compare and contrast various routing technologies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

A broadcast message is delivered to all nodes in a broadcast domain (e.g., ARP requests).

A. Unicast is one-to-one.

C. Multicast is one-to-many but only to subscribed members.

D. Anycast is one-to-one-of-many, sending to the nearest node.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Traffic types: unicast, multicast, broadcast, anycast.

Definition of MAC Flooding:

MAC flooding is an attack where a malicious actor sends numerous fake MAC addresses to a switch, overwhelming its CAM table. The CAM table stores MAC addresses and their associated ports for efficient traffic forwarding.

Impact of MAC Flooding:

CAM Table Overflow: When the CAM table is full, the switch cannot learn new MAC addresses and is forced to broadcast traffic to all ports, leading to a degraded network performance and potential data interception.

Switch Behavior: The switch operates in a fail-open mode, treating the network as a hub, which can be exploited for eavesdropping on traffic.

Comparison with Other Attacks:

ARP Spoofing: Involves sending false ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages to associate the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of another device.

Evil Twin: Involves creating a rogue wireless access point that mimics a legitimate one to intercept data.

DNS Poisoning: Involves corrupting the DNS cache with false information to redirect traffic to malicious sites.

Preventive Measures:

Port Security: Configure port security on switches to limit the number of MAC addresses per port, preventing CAM table overflow.

Network Segmentation: Use VLANs to segment network traffic and limit the impact of such attacks.

Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) allow automation tools and scripts to push configurations to network devices programmatically. Modern network automation platforms rely on APIs to ensure consistency and scalability.

A. RDP is remote desktop for Windows systems, not automation.

B. Telnet is insecure and manual.

C. GUI requires manual configuration, not automation.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Automation, orchestration, APIs in network management.

The correct answer is ACL (Access Control List). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, ACLs are a fundamental and cost-effective method for controlling traffic flow at routers and firewalls. An ACL allows administrators to permit or deny traffic based on source IP address, destination IP address, protocol, or port number.

In this scenario, the suspicious traffic is identified as originating from a specific unknown foreign IP address. The most direct and economical mitigation strategy is to configure an ACL rule that denies traffic from that specific IP address (or subnet) at the network perimeter. This approach leverages existing network infrastructure without requiring additional hardware or licensing costs.

An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) monitors and alerts on malicious activity but does not actively block traffic unless paired with IPS functionality, and it may involve additional cost and complexity. NAT is used for address translation and does not provide traffic filtering based on threat intelligence. DoS prevention solutions are typically more advanced, specialized, and costly, often intended for large-scale distributed denial-of-service attacks rather than blocking traffic from a single suspicious IP.

The Network+ objectives emphasize implementing layered security controls, starting with simple and effective measures. In this case, applying an ACL at the firewall or router is the most cost-efficient and immediate method to mitigate the identified threat.

The CompTIA Troubleshooting Methodology states that after testing the theory, the next step is to establish a plan of action to resolve the issue.

Troubleshooting Steps:

Identify the problem.

Establish a theory of probable cause.

Test the theory to determine the cause.

Establish a plan of action and implement the solution. ✅ (Correct step)

Verify full system functionality.

Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Verify full system functionality – Happens after implementing the solution.

B. Document the findings and outcomes – Final step, happens after resolving the issue.

C. Establish a plan of action – ✅ Correct answer. Comes immediately after confirming the cause.

D. Identify the problem – First step, already completed.

•AAAA records map domain names to IPv6 addresses, enabling proper resolution.

•PTR records (A) are for reverse DNS lookups.

•TXT records (B) store text-based information, not IP addresses.

•NS records (D) define authoritative name servers but don’t directly affect IPv6 resolution.

????Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation – DNS Configuration & IPv6.

The best answer is SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol). SNMP enables monitoring of network devices (routers, switches, firewalls, servers) and provides performance data such as CPU usage, bandwidth utilization, and interface status. In this scenario, if SNMP monitoring had been in place, administrators would have received alerts that the router was overutilized before customers noticed outages.

A. Packet capture (e.g., Wireshark) is useful for deep troubleshooting but is reactive, not proactive, and not scalable for continuous monitoring.

C. Syslog collects log messages but generally does not provide proactive resource utilization metrics. It is complementary but not the best fit for this problem.

D. SIEM aggregates logs and security events for analysis, but the primary requirement here is performance and availability monitoring.

By implementing SNMP monitoring (and potentially integrating it with a network monitoring tool such as Nagios, PRTG, or SolarWinds), the organization can track utilization trends, set thresholds, and automatically generate alerts, thereby preventing downtime from going unnoticed.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — SNMP monitoring, proactive network performance management.

SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) provides device monitoring with authentication and encryption. This enhances network visibility and security by ensuring that monitoring data is securely transmitted and access to network devices is authenticated.

Authentication: SNMPv3 includes robust mechanisms for authenticating users accessing network devices.

Encryption: It provides encryption to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the data being transmitted.

Network Management: SNMPv3 allows for detailed monitoring and management of network devices, ensuring better control and security.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers SNMP versions, their features, and security enhancements in SNMPv3.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing and securing SNMP for network management.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and security features of SNMPv3 for network monitoring.

The correct answer is Switch because the question references a new logical layout segmenting the network using tagging, which indicates VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configuration. VLAN tagging (IEEE 802.1Q) is performed on switches to logically separate broadcast domains within the same physical infrastructure.

According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching technologies, VLANs are used to improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and logically segment network traffic. When VLAN tagging is misconfigured—such as incorrect trunk ports, access port assignments, or mismatched VLAN IDs—devices may lose connectivity to required network resources.

Since the issue began after changes involving tagging, the most likely cause is an incorrect switch configuration, such as improper VLAN assignments or trunking settings.

An access point (Option A) may use VLANs for SSID segmentation, but core tagging configuration is handled at the switch. A firewall (Option B) filters traffic but does not control VLAN tagging at Layer 2 in typical deployments. A load balancer (Option D) distributes traffic among servers and is unrelated to VLAN segmentation.

Therefore, reviewing the switch configuration is the appropriate action to restore connectivity.

In a fiber patch panel, the SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector) is commonly used because of its push-pull design and reliability in enterprise environments.

Breakdown of Options:

A. F-type – Used for coaxial cables (e.g., cable TV), not fiber.

B. RJ11 – Used for telephone lines, not fiber.

C. BNC – Used for coaxial connections, not fiber.

D. SC – ✅ Correct answer. A standard fiber optic connector used in patch panels.

In a mesh topology, every node is directly connected to every other node. This provides high redundancy and reliability, as there are multiple paths for data to travel between nodes. This topology is often used in networks where high availability is crucial.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used to securely connect to a remote server/system over a network. It operates on port 22 and provides encrypted communication, unlike Telnet which operates on port 23 and is not secure. TLS is used for securing HTTP connections (HTTPS) and operates on ports like 443, while RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is used for remote desktop connections and operates on port 3389.

Understanding Tracert:

tracert (Traceroute in Windows) is a command-line tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It records the route (the specific gateways at each hop) and measures transit delays of packets across an IP network.

Output Analysis:

The output shows a series of IP addresses with corresponding round-trip times (RTTs) in milliseconds.

The asterisks (*) indicate that no response was received from those hops, which is typical for routers or firewalls that block ICMP packets used by tracert.

Comparison with Other Tools:

netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace packet routes.

tcpdump: Captures network packets for analysis, used for detailed network traffic inspection.

nmap: A network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a network, not for tracing packet routes.

Usage:

tracert helps identify the path to a destination and locate points of failure or congestion in the network.

WPA3-Enterprise provides strong security and supports authentication using domain identities through a RADIUS server and 802.1X authentication. This is the best choice for a corporate environment requiring user-based authentication.

WPA3-Enterprise Benefits:

Uses 802.1X with EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) to authenticate users via a directory service (e.g., Active Directory).

Eliminates shared passwords (PSK) for authentication.

Provides strong encryption and resistance to brute-force attacks.

Incorrect Options:

A. Enable MAC Security:

MAC filtering is not secure because MAC addresses can be spoofed.

B. Generate a PSK for Each User:

Pre-shared keys (PSK) are used in WPA-Personal, not in an enterprise setting.

Does not scale well in corporate environments.

C. Implement WPS:

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a vulnerable security method meant for home users.

Not suitable for enterprise authentication.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

A warm site is partially configured with necessary infrastructure and systems, but it requires recent backups to be restored before becoming fully operational. This provides a balance between cost and recovery time.

A. Cold site has only power and space, requiring full setup, which takes too long.

C. Active (active-active) runs simultaneously with the primary site, not only during failure.

D. Hot site is fully operational at all times and can take over immediately, but it’s more expensive.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — Disaster recovery sites (cold, warm, hot, active).

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted connection between a remote user and an internal network, ensuring secure access to internal applications.

VPNs use encryption protocols like IPSec and SSL/TLS to protect data during transmission.

They are widely used for secure remote work, accessing company resources, and bypassing geographic restrictions.

Option B (CDN - Content Delivery Network): Used for speeding up website content delivery, not for remote access security.

Option C (SAN - Storage Area Network): Used for high-speed storage, unrelated to remote access.

Option D (IDS - Intrusion Detection System): Monitors for malicious activities but does not provide secure access to applications.

? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide – Section: Secure Remote Access Technologies

When dealing with troubleshooting and change management, the plan of action outlines the steps, risks, and mitigation strategies. A change advisory board (CAB) uses this documented plan to decide whether to approve the change.

A. Identify the problem is the first step in troubleshooting, not decision-making for CAB.

B. Develop a theory is diagnostic work, not planning.

C. Test the theory confirms causes but doesn’t provide actionable planning information.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Change management, troubleshooting methodology, CAB processes.

GSM (Global System for Mobile communications) is the international standard that uses SIM cards to authenticate and connect phones to the cellular network. GSM allows users to place and receive calls while traveling globally, provided they have a SIM card. CDMA, on the other hand, does not use SIM cards in the same way and is primarily used in the United States. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Fundamentals)

The most likely issue is a duplex mismatch, which is a well-documented cause of collisions and poor network performance, as outlined in the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 troubleshooting objectives. A duplex mismatch occurs when one end of a network link is configured for full duplex while the other end is operating in half duplex. In half-duplex mode, devices must take turns transmitting and receiving data, which inherently allows for collisions. When paired with a full-duplex device—which expects simultaneous send and receive—collisions and retransmissions occur frequently.

The presence of collisions on a switch interface is a key diagnostic clue. Modern Ethernet switches operating correctly in full duplex should not experience collisions at all. When collisions are observed, it almost always points to a duplex configuration issue, often caused by manual speed/duplex settings on one device and auto-negotiation on the other.

A wrong speed setting may prevent link establishment entirely or cause errors, but it does not typically result in collisions. Jumbo frames can cause packet drops or fragmentation issues, not collisions. An incorrect VLAN configuration affects logical segmentation and connectivity but operates at Layer 2 and does not generate collisions.

CompTIA Network+ emphasizes duplex mismatch as a classic and frequently tested troubleshooting scenario. Correcting it—usually by enabling auto-negotiation on both ends—restores normal, collision-free communication.

Band steering is a feature in wireless networks that encourages dual-band capable devices to connect to the 5GHz band instead of the 2.4GHz band.

Why Band Steering?

The 5GHz band supports higher speeds and less interference compared to 2.4GHz.

If a device supports both bands, the access point (AP) can "steer" it to connect to 5GHz instead of 2.4GHz.

This helps ensure users always connect to the fastest available network.

Incorrect Options:

B. Disabling the 5GHz SSID: Would force devices onto 2.4GHz, which is slower and more congested.

C. Adding a Captive Portal: Used for guest authentication, not for speed optimization.

D. Configuring MAC Filtering: Used for security, not for optimizing network speed.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service. RADIUS is often used to manage access to wireless networks, enabling users to authenticate with their company credentials, ensuring secure access to the network.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials. ​

The correct answer is Test the theory, which aligns directly with the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 troubleshooting methodology. According to the official troubleshooting steps, once a problem has been identified and relevant information gathered, the next step is to establish a theory of probable cause and then test that theory to determine whether it is valid.

In this scenario, the engineer has already completed the problem identification phase by confirming that all users are experiencing latency and correlating the issue with the installation of a new switch. The engineer has also formed a theory: that a network loop caused by the lower bridge ID of the new switch may be impacting Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), resulting in congestion and latency. Because this theory has already been developed, the next logical and required step is to test the theory—for example, by reviewing STP states, temporarily disabling ports, or adjusting bridge priorities.

Implementing a solution would be premature without validating the theory, and verifying full system functionality occurs only after a fix has been applied. The Network+ objectives stress following a structured methodology to avoid unnecessary changes and minimize network disruption. Testing the theory ensures accuracy before corrective action is taken, reducing risk and downtime.

To change where the outside DNS records are hosted, the network administrator needs to update the NS (Name Server) records at the domain registrar. NS records specify the authoritative name servers for a domain, directing where DNS queries should be sent.

NS (Name Server) Records: These records indicate the servers that are authoritative for a domain. Changing the NS records at the registrar points DNS resolution to the new hosting provider.

SOA (Start of Authority): Contains administrative information about the domain, including the primary name server.

PTR (Pointer) Records: Used for reverse DNS lookups, mapping IP addresses to domain names.

CNAME (Canonical Name) Records: Used to alias one domain name to another, not relevant for changing DNS hosting.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses DNS records, their purposes, and how to manage them.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on DNS management and the role of different DNS record types.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains DNS records and their configuration for domain management.

HTTP is an application-layer protocol, so the OSI layer that manages the exchange of HTTP information is Layer 7 (Application). In the Network+ (N10-009) objectives, the OSI model is used to map common protocols to the layers where they operate. HTTP defines how web clients and servers format and exchange requests and responses (methods like GET/POST, headers, status codes, and message bodies). Those behaviors are part of the application services provided to end-user software such as web browsers, APIs, and web servers.

While HTTP relies on lower layers to function (for example, TCP at the Transport layer for reliable delivery and IP at the Network layer for addressing and routing), the protocol logic and meaning of the web transactions exist at the Application layer. The distractors do not fit: the Network layer handles IP routing, the Data Link layer handles frames and MAC addressing on local links, and the Session layer is associated with session establishment/management concepts but is not where HTTP is categorized for Network+ mapping. Therefore, Application is the correct answer.

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Border Gateway Protocol (BGP): BGP is the most commonly used routing protocol for interconnecting WANs, especially across the internet. It is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems (AS), making it the backbone protocol for large-scale WANs.

IGP (A): Interior Gateway Protocols like OSPF and EIGRP are typically used within a single AS, not between them.

EIGRP (B): While it is efficient, EIGRP is primarily used for intra-domain routing and not ideal for WAN interconnection.

OSPF (D): While OSPF can be used for WANs, it is not as common as BGP for inter-AS communication.

The ST (Straight Tip) fiber connector is round with a bayonet twist-lock mechanism. It is older but still used in some fiber installations.

B. BNC is a coaxial connector.

C. SC (Subscriber Connector) is a square push-pull fiber connector.

D. LC (Lucent Connector) is a small form-factor fiber connector.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Fiber connectors (ST, SC, LC).

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing data between different ISPs, making it essential for the functioning of the internet. Its primary use is for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems, especially different ISPs. Preventing loops within a LAN ishandled by protocols like Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), while improving reconvergence times and sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch are functions of other protocols or internal mechanisms.

Introduction to OSI Model:

The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.

Application Layer:

The application layer (Layer 7) is the topmost layer in the OSI model. It provides network services directly to end-user applications. This layer facilitates communication between software applications and lower layers of the network protocol stack.

Reliance on Other Layers:

The application layer relies on the transport layer (Layer 4) for data transfer across the network. The transport layer ensures reliable data delivery through protocols like TCP and UDP.

The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for routing packets to their destination.

The data link layer (Layer 2) handles node-to-node data transfer and error detection.

The physical layer (Layer 1) deals with the physical connection between devices.

Explanation of the Options:

A. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery: This is correct. The application layer depends on the lower layers (transport, network, data link, and physical) for the actual delivery of data packets.

B. It checks independently for packet loss: This is incorrect. Packet loss detection is typically handled by the transport layer (e.g., TCP).

C. It encrypts data in transit: This is incorrect. Encryption is typically handled by the presentation layer or at the transport layer (e.g., TLS/SSL).

D. It performs address translation: This is incorrect. Address translation is performed by the network layer (e.g., NAT).

Conclusion:

The application layer’s primary role is to interface with the end-user applications and ensure that data is correctly presented to the user. It relies on the underlying layers to manage the actual data transport and delivery processes.

Troubleshooting Methodology:

Troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to diagnosing and resolving issues. It typically includes steps such as identifying symptoms, gathering information, formulating and testing theories, and implementing solutions.

Confirming a Theory:

Duplicate the Problem: To confirm a theory, the technician should reproduce the problem in a controlled environment. This helps verify that the identified cause actually leads to the observed issue.

Verification: By duplicating the problem, the technician can observe the issue firsthand, validate the hypothesis, and rule out other potential causes.

Comparison with Other Steps:

Identify the Symptoms: Initial step to understand what the problem is, not specifically for confirming a theory.

Gather Information: Involves collecting data and details about the issue, usually done before formulating a theory.

Determine Any Changes: Involves checking for recent changes that could have caused the issue, a part of the information-gathering phase.

Implementation:

Use similar equipment or software in a test environment to recreate the issue.

Observe the results to see if they match the original problem, thereby confirming the theory.

Understanding the Requirements

Network Address: 192.168.1.0/24

The /24 notation means a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, providing 256 total addresses (192.168.1.0–192.168.1.255).

Usable hosts: 256 – 2 (network and broadcast) = 254.

Goal: Create 3 subnets, each with 30 hosts.

Each subnet needs enough addresses to accommodate 30 hosts, plus 2 reserved addresses (network and broadcast) per subnet.

Total addresses per subnet = 30 (hosts) + 2 (network/broadcast) = 32 addresses.

Subnetting Basics (Networking Fundamentals)

Subnet Mask: Determines how many bits are borrowed from the host portion to create subnets.

Original Mask: /24 (255.255.255.0) = 24 network bits, 8 host bits.

Formulae:

Number of subnets = 2^(number of borrowed bits).

Number of addresses per subnet = 2^(remaining host bits).

Usable hosts per subnet = 2^(remaining host bits) – 2.

We need:

At least 3 subnets.

At least 32 addresses per subnet (to fit 30 hosts + 2 reserved).

Step-by-Step Analysis

Determine Addresses Needed per Subnet:

32 addresses is a power of 2 (2^5 = 32).

This means each subnet requires 5 host bits (since 2^5 = 32 total addresses, and 32 – 2 = 30 usable hosts).

Calculate Remaining Bits:

Original network has 8 host bits (/24).

If 5 bits are left for hosts, we borrow: 8 – 5 = 3 bits for subnetting.

New Subnet Mask:

Original mask: /24 (24 network bits).

Borrow 3 bits: 24 + 3 = /27.

/27 = 255.255.255.224 (binary: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000).

Verify Requirements:

Number of Subnets: 2^3 = 8 subnets (meets the requirement of at least 3).

Addresses per Subnet: 2^5 = 32 addresses.

Usable Hosts per Subnet: 32 – 2 = 30 hosts (exactly meets the requirement).

Subnet Breakdown:

Increment: 256 – 224 = 32 (each subnet increments by 32 in the fourth octet).

Subnets:

192.168.1.0–192.168.1.31 (Network: .0, Broadcast: .31, Hosts: .1–.30)

192.168.1.32–192.168.1.63 (Network: .32, Broadcast: .63, Hosts: .33–.62)

192.168.1.64–192.168.1.95 (Network: .64, Broadcast: .95, Hosts: .65–.94)

(And 5 more subnets up to 192.168.1.255.)

Three subnets fit perfectly with 30 hosts each.

Evaluating the Options

A. 255.255.255.128 (/25):

Borrow 1 bit: 24 + 1 = /25.

Subnets: 2^1 = 2 (not enough, need 3).

Host bits: 7 (2^7 = 128 addresses, 126 hosts).

Why Not: Only 2 subnets, fails the requirement.

B. 255.255.255.192 (/26):

Borrow 2 bits: 24 + 2 = /26.

Subnets: 2^2 = 4 (meets 3).

Host bits: 6 (2^6 = 64 addresses, 62 hosts).

Why Not: 62 hosts exceeds 30, but it’s overkill; /27 is more efficient and still valid.

C. 255.255.255.224 (/27):

Borrow 3 bits: 24 + 3 = /27.

Subnets: 2^3 = 8 (meets 3).

Host bits: 5 (2^5 = 32 addresses, 30 hosts).

Why Yes: Perfectly fits 3 subnets with exactly 30 hosts each.

D. 255.255.255.240 (/28):

Borrow 4 bits: 24 + 4 = /28.

Subnets: 2^4 = 16 (meets 3).

Host bits: 4 (2^4 = 16 addresses, 14 hosts).

Why Not: Only 14 hosts per subnet, fails the 30-host requirement.

Why /27 (255.255.255.224) is Best

It provides exactly 30 usable hosts per subnet, avoiding waste while meeting the minimum requirement.

It allows 8 subnets, exceeding the need for 3, ensuring flexibility.

The study guide emphasizes efficient subnet design, and /27 balances host count and subnet availability.

CompTIA Network+ Context

Networking Fundamentals: Subnetting is a core skill, requiring understanding of CIDR, binary conversion, and address allocation.

Example from Study Guide: Similar problems calculate subnet masks for specific host counts, reinforcing /27 as a common solution for ~30 hosts.

The correct solution is NTP (Network Time Protocol). Accurate timestamps across servers, firewalls, and network devices are critical for correlating logs during incident response. NTP synchronizes device clocks to a trusted time source, ensuring consistency across the network.

A. Syslog centralizes logs but does not synchronize time.

B. SMTP is email transfer, unrelated to time.

D. SNMP monitors devices but does not correct time discrepancies.

By implementing NTP, analysts can ensure that logs from different devices are time-aligned, which is essential for reconstructing attack timelines and detecting anomalies.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Time synchronization, NTP, log correlation.

A site-to-site VPN is used to securely connect two networks over an untrusted network, most commonly the public internet. In Network+ (N10-009) objectives, VPNs are described as providing confidentiality and integrity for data in transit by creating an encrypted tunnel between sites (for example, headquarters and a branch office). This allows systems at both locations to communicate as if on the same private WAN, while preventing eavesdropping or tampering by intermediate networks. Typical implementations use IPsec tunneling and rely on negotiated encryption/authentication parameters to protect traffic end-to-end between VPN gateways.

Encrypting data at rest refers to storage encryption (disk/database), not VPN tunneling. Filtering traffic between two internal subnets is usually handled by ACLs, firewalls, or segmentation controls, not a site-to-site VPN. Hosting public-facing applications is a DMZ / reverse proxy / WAF design concern; a VPN is not the primary control for exposing public services (and generally you would not require the public to use a VPN to reach a public website). Therefore, securing site connectivity across an untrusted network is the best match.

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On Core-SW01, the ports are configured with LACP (mode active) for link aggregation. On Core-SW02, the ports are configured as independent trunks, not as part of an LACP group. Because of this mismatch, LACP cannot form the bundle, and the aggregated ports on SW01 will go into a suspended state.

A. CRC errors suggest cabling or signal integrity issues, not config mismatch.

B. Error disabled occurs when a violation (like BPDU guard or port security) disables the port, not LACP mismatch.

C. Administratively down indicates a shutdown command, not the case here.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — Port-channel/LACP configuration issues, interface states.

When traceroute shows asterisks (timeouts) instead of IP addresses or hostnames, it may indicate that intermediate routers are dropping ICMP packets. However, performing an nslookup will reveal the IP address associated with the domain name, confirming that DNS resolution is correct and helping identify the path to the target server. The document states:

“nslookup is used to query DNS servers to retrieve IP address information associated with a domain name, which helps confirm DNS resolution is working correctly even when traceroute results show timeouts.”

A subinterface is a logical interface created on a single physical router interface that allows routing between VLANs (known as Router-on-a-Stick (ROAS)). This method is commonly used when only one physical router is available, allowing inter-VLAN communication without additional hardware.

•Why not the other options?

•VXLAN (B) – This is used for extending Layer 2 networks over a Layer 3 infrastructure, primarily in data centers. It does not directly enable inter-VLAN communication.

•Layer 3 switch (C) – A Layer 3 switch can route between VLANs, but the scenario states that purchasing additional hardware is not an option.

•VIR (D) – This is not a standard networking term in the context of VLAN communication.

Unshielded cables (D) are more prone to interference and may not be suitable for certain environments, especially after a fire where interference could be heightened.

Using the wrong transceiver (E) for new terminations can lead to compatibility issues, causing network failures.

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Network Health:

WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.

Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:

WAN 1:

Uplink Speed: 10G

Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down

Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down

Loss: 2.51%

Average Latency: 24ms

Jitter: 9.5ms

WAN 2:

Uplink Speed: 1G

Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down

Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down

Loss: 0.01%

Average Latency: 11ms

Jitter: 3.9ms

For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.

Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.

Device Monitoring:

the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down. This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (paraphrased, aligned to N10-009):

A proxy server (specifically a caching HTTP/HTTPS proxy) stores frequently accessed web objects and serves them locally to clients, reducing external bandwidth consumption and improving response times.

B. Load balancer distributes traffic across servers but does not inherently cache internet content.

C. Open relay is a misconfigured mail server that permits unauthorized relaying—this is a security issue, not a caching solution.

D. Code repository (e.g., for source control) isn’t related to web content caching.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Standards, Protocols, and Implementations — Application-layer services (HTTP/HTTPS), proxies and caching behavior, performance optimization.

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Port Address Translation (PAT) allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP address by assigning each device a unique port number. This is the most common method used in environments where many systems need internet access but there are limited public IP addresses.

Least privilege network access is a principle that restricts users' access rights to only what is necessary for them to perform their job functions. In this case, the accountant's access is limited to only the financial department's shared folders, ensuring that they cannot access other parts of the network unnecessarily. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access and potential data breaches. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is the best choice for secure communication over the internet, as it provides encryption, authentication, and data integrity. It is widely used in VPNs and site-to-site secure tunnels.

Breakdown of Options:

A. DCI (Data Center Interconnect) – A general term for linking data centers, but it doesn’t specify a secure tunneling protocol.

B. GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) – Encapsulates traffic but lacks encryption, making it less secure than IPSec.

C. VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) – Used for Layer 2 network overlays, not for securing communication over the internet.

D. IPSec – ✅ Correct answer. Provides encryption, authentication, and integrity for data over the internet.

The correct answer is Platform as a Service (PaaS). PaaS provides developers with a ready-to-use platform that includes runtime environments, developer tools, middleware, and database services. Developers can focus on writing code while the provider handles security patches, updates, and infrastructure management.

A. CaaS (Containers as a Service) focuses on deploying and managing containerized applications, not providing full developer platforms.

B. IaaS delivers virtual machines, storage, and networking, but administrators must install and maintain the OS, middleware, and updates.

D. SaaS provides end-user applications (e.g., email, CRM), not platforms for development.

By using PaaS, the developers can build applications quickly and cost-effectively without worrying about underlying infrastructure or system maintenance.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, CaaS).

The correct answer is SaaS (Software as a Service). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, SaaS is the most cost-efficient cloud model for hosting common business applications such as email, collaboration tools, and productivity suites. With SaaS, the cloud provider manages all infrastructure, operating systems, application software, security updates, and maintenance, significantly reducing administrative overhead and operational costs.

Email services are a prime example of workloads that benefit from SaaS solutions such as Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace. Organizations pay a subscription-based fee, typically per user, and avoid expenses related to server hardware, licensing, patching, backups, redundancy, and disaster recovery. This makes SaaS far more economical than deploying and maintaining email servers internally or in lower-level cloud models.

IaaS requires the organization to manage virtual machines, operating systems, email server software, and security configurations, which increases both cost and complexity. PaaS simplifies application development but is not designed for hosting ready-made services like email platforms. A VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) is a networking construct, not a service model, and does not inherently provide email hosting functionality.

The Network+ objectives emphasize selecting cloud service models based on cost, management responsibility, and operational efficiency. For standardized services like email, SaaS offers the lowest total cost of ownership and the least administrative burden, making it the best and most cost-effective choice.

The server’s subnet mask is 255.255.255.224 (/27), which covers IPs from 192.168.100.224 to 192.168.100.255. However, the router only recognizes 192.168.100.0/24, indicating a mismatch between the server’s subnet and the router's network.

Correct mask for the /24 network is 255.255.255.0, allowing 256 IPs from 192.168.100.0 to 192.168.100.255.

This mismatch would result in routing issues, especially with the gateway outside of the subnet range.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 5.2 – Given a scenario, troubleshoot common wired connectivity issues.

The correct answer is 25, which is the default port used by SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) for communication between mail servers. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under common port numbers and protocols, SMTP operates over TCP port 25 for server-to-server email transmission.

When an email is sent from one domain to another, the sending mail server queries DNS for the recipient domain’s MX (Mail Exchange) record and then establishes an SMTP session over TCP port 25 to deliver the message. This port is specifically designated for mail relay between mail transfer agents (MTAs).

Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System), and 69 is used for TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol). None of these are responsible for transferring email between mail servers.

While SMTP can also use ports 587 (submission) and 465 (SMTPS) for client-to-server communication, port 25 remains the standard for mail server-to-mail server communication.

Therefore, TCP port 25 is the correct answer.

When a user connects to a VPN and experiences connectivity issues to an external server, the problem is often related to routing or network path issues.

E. tracert:

Traces the path packets take from the user's device to the destination server.

Helps determine if the traffic is being blocked or misrouted.

F. route print:

Displays the device's routing table.

Helps diagnose whether traffic is being sent to the VPN tunnel instead of the correct external server.

Incorrect Options:

A. nslookup: Used for resolving domain names to IPs (DNS troubleshooting), but this issue is likely routing-related.

B. tcpdump: Captures packets for deep packet analysis, not typically the first step in diagnosing a VPN-related access issue.

C. arp: Used for resolving local network MAC addresses, not relevant for external VPN issues.

D. dig: Like nslookup, used for DNS queries, but not useful for routing problems.

Availability refers to ensuring that data is accessible when needed. If a customer's data is accidentally deleted, it impacts availability, as the data can no longer be accessed.

=================

A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.

RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective, which defines the maximum acceptable amount of time that a system, application, or function can be down after a failure or disaster. It helps prioritize which systems need to be recovered first based on their importance to business operations.

SLA (Service Level Agreement) refers to an agreement between a service provider and a customer regarding expected performance and availability, but it does not dictate recovery order.

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is a measure of reliability and time between hardware or system failures.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a centralized tool for logging and alerting but not relevant to DR recovery prioritization.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.4 – Summarize business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

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The key difference is that an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is installed in line with network traffic, allowing it to actively block threats. In contrast, an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) only monitors and alerts without actively blocking traffic.

Breakdown of Options:

A. An IPS needs to be installed in line with traffic and an IDS does not. ✅ Correct answer. IPS actively prevents threats, while IDS only detects them.

B. An IPS is signature-based and an IDS is not. – False, both can use signature-based detection.

C. An IPS is less susceptible to false positives than an IDS. – False, both can produce false positives, depending on configurations.

D. An IPS requires less administrative overhead than an IDS. – False, IPS requires more administrative effort due to real-time blocking decisions.

Tailgating is a physical security breach where someone follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper credentials. Once inside, the attacker can install rogue devices like unauthorized APs.

A. Evil twin is a wireless attack where an attacker sets up a fake AP.

B. Honeytrap is used to attract attackers for analysis.

C. Wardriving involves scanning for unsecured Wi-Fi networks while driving, not physical intrusion.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.2 – Identify common security threats and vulnerabilities.

Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):

ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality.

ESP Functionality:

ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.

ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).

Comparison with Other Protocols:

AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload.

GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL.

Use Cases:

ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.

Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):

ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite designed to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data by encrypting the payload and optional ESP trailer.

Ensuring Confidentiality:

Encryption: ESP encrypts the payload, ensuring that the data remains confidential during transmission. Only authorized parties with the correct decryption keys can access the data.

Modes of Operation: ESP can operate in transport mode (encrypts only the payload) or tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet), both providing strong encryption to secure data between sites.

Comparison with Other Protocols:

GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption or security features.

IKE (Internet Key Exchange): A protocol used to set up a secure, authenticated communications channel, but it does not encrypt the data itself.

AH (Authentication Header): Provides integrity and authentication for IP packets but does not encrypt the payload.

Implementation:

Use ESP as part of an IPsec VPN configuration to encrypt and secure communication between two sites. This involves setting up IPsec policies and ensuring both endpoints are configured to use ESP for data encryption.

To support about 800 workstations with minimal IP waste, you choose the smallest subnet that provides at least 800 usable host addresses. In IPv4, usable hosts per subnet are calculated as 2^(host bits) − 2 (subtracting network and broadcast addresses). A /22 leaves 10 host bits (32 − 22 = 10), providing 2^10 − 2 = 1024 − 2 = 1022 usable addresses—enough for 800 devices with relatively low waste.

Check the other options: /23 leaves 9 host bits, giving 2^9 − 2 = 512 − 2 = 510 usable addresses, which is not enough. A /21 provides 2^11 − 2 = 2048 − 2 = 2046 usable addresses—enough, but wastes more than /22. A /20 provides 2^12 − 2 = 4096 − 2 = 4094 usable addresses—much more waste.

Therefore, 10.0.100.0/22 is the best choice that meets the workstation requirement while minimizing unused addresses.

When working with fiber optic cables, one common issue is that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers might be reversed. The first step in troubleshooting should be to reverse the fibers at one end to ensure they are correctly aligned (TX to RX and RX to TX). This is a simple and quick step to rule out a common issue before moving on to more complex troubleshooting.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Port 587 is the standard default port for sending email (SMTP) with TLS encryption, which is used to secure email transmissions between mail servers or between clients and mail servers. Allowing traffic over port 587 enables secure email sending while maintaining standard protocol usage. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Ports and Protocols)

The most probable issue is with thetransceiver model. Not all transceivers are compatible with multimode fiber, and the specific type (e.g., SFP, SFP+) and its wavelength must match the fiber cable type. If a port works on one switch but not the other with the same cable, this is a strong indicator of incompatible or faulty transceiver hardware.

Clientless VPNs allow users to access network resources through a secure web portal using a browser, with no VPN software needed. This is ideal for occasional access to internal resources via HTTPS.

A. Proxy is a gateway for accessing web content, not a VPN.

C. Site-to-site VPN connects entire networks, not individual users.

D. Direct Connect usually refers to dedicated cloud connections, not VPNs.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 3.3 – Given a scenario, configure and deploy common VPN technologies.

Definition of GDPR:

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.

Scope and Objectives:

GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.

It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.

Comparison with Other Options:

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.

Key Provisions:

GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.

TCP port 443 is reserved for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which uses TLS encryption to secure web traffic. It is the standard port for encrypted web communications.

A. Telnet uses TCP port 23.

B. SMTP commonly uses TCP ports 25, 465, or 587.

D. SNMP typically uses UDP ports 161 (queries) and 162 (traps).

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Standards, Protocols, and Implementations — Common ports and services.

Installing server equipment in a rack increases compute density by allowing multiple servers to be organized efficiently in a vertical configuration, saving space while housing more devices in a smaller footprint. This is critical for data centers and businesses with high hardware demands.

Simplified troubleshooting process (A): While racks can aid in organizing equipment, this is a secondary benefit, not the primary purpose.

Decreased power consumption (B): Rack installation does not directly reduce power usage; equipment power consumption remains the same.

Improved network performance (C): Racking servers does not inherently improve network performance; that depends on network configurations.

Band steering allows wireless access points to automatically direct capable devices to the 5GHz band, which typically has higher throughput and less interference than the 2.4GHz band, improving performance. The document confirms:

“Band steering helps balance wireless client loads by steering dual-band capable devices to the 5GHz band, which offers higher speeds and less channel congestion than 2.4GHz.”

To increase overall security after a recent breach, implementing least privilege network access and central policy management are effective strategies.

Least Privilege Network Access: This principle ensures that users and devices are granted only the access necessary to perform their functions, minimizing the potential for unauthorized access or breaches. By limiting permissions, the risk of an attacker gaining access to critical parts of the network is reduced.

Central Policy Management: Centralized management of security policies allows for consistent and streamlined implementation of security measures across the entire network. This helps in quickly responding to security incidents, ensuring compliance with security protocols, and reducing the chances of misconfigurations.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses network security principles, including least privilege and policy management.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing security policies and access controls.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers strategies for enhancing network security and managing policies effectively.

The correct answer is PAT (Port Address Translation). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, PAT is a form of Network Address Translation (NAT) that allows multiple internal hosts—or services—to be mapped to a single public IP address using different port numbers. PAT can also translate destination port numbers, which is exactly what is occurring in this scenario.

In this case, the firewall receives incoming traffic on port 80 (commonly used for HTTP) and forwards it to an internal server listening on port 88. This process is often referred to as port forwarding, which is a practical implementation of PAT. The firewall rewrites the destination port and potentially the destination IP address so that external clients can access internal services without exposing internal addressing schemes.

The other options do not apply. TLS and SSL are encryption protocols used to secure data in transit; they do not perform port translation. FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol), such as HSRP or VRRP, provides gateway redundancy and high availability, not traffic forwarding or port remapping.

The Network+ objectives emphasize understanding how firewalls and NAT technologies manipulate IP addresses and ports to enable secure access to internal resources. PAT is the technology that enables this functionality, making it the correct answer.

An access point (AP) provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).

Router: Typically used to connect different networks, not specifically for extending wireless coverage.

Switch: Used to connect devices within a wired network, not for providing wireless access.

Access Point (AP): Extends wireless network coverage, allowing multiple wireless devices to connect to the network.

Firewall: Primarily used for network security, controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, not for providing wireless connectivity.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Explains the roles and functions of network appliances, including access points.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on deploying and managing wireless networks with access points.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers network devices and their roles in creating and managing networks.

Increasing the MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) size allows larger frames to be transmitted, reducing overhead and improving throughput — especially for large file transfers like backups.

A. QoS prioritizes traffic but doesn’t reduce backup times directly.

B. SDN is a network management model, not a parameter change.

D. VXLAN encapsulates VLANs, not relevant to backup speeds.

E. TTL is for packet lifetime, not throughput.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — MTU, jumbo frames, performance tuning.

IPv4 addresses are divided into classes:

Class A: Supports 16,777,214 hosts (large enterprises).

Class B: Supports 65,534 hosts (medium to large networks).

Class C: Supports 254 hosts (small to medium networks).

Class D: Used for multicast, not for assigning IPs to hosts.

Step-by-step Calculation:

The network will have 150 users initially, with a projected growth of 10 users, totaling 160 users.

Each user has two devices, so 160 × 2 = 320 IP addresses needed.

A Class C subnet has 254 usable IPs by default, which is not sufficient.

A Class B subnet can support thousands of hosts, making it the most appropriate option.

Incorrect Options:

A. Class D: Reserved for multicast, not for host assignments.

C. Class A: Overkill for a network of this size.

D. Class C: Cannot support 320 hosts without subnetting, making Class B the best choice.

The correct answer is Load balancer because it is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple backend servers that provide the same application or service. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network infrastructure, load balancing improves performance, scalability, and high availability by preventing any single server from becoming overwhelmed.

A load balancer can operate at Layer 4 (transport layer, based on IP address and port) or Layer 7 (application layer, based on content such as HTTP headers or URLs). It uses various algorithms such as round-robin, least connections, or weighted distribution to efficiently allocate client requests among servers. If one server fails, the load balancer can redirect traffic to healthy servers, ensuring service continuity.

A router (Option A) forwards packets between different networks but does not distribute traffic among servers running the same application. A switch (Option B) forwards frames within a local network based on MAC addresses. A firewall (Option C) filters traffic based on security rules but does not perform traffic distribution for load-sharing purposes.

Therefore, a load balancer is the correct solution for redistributing traffic among multiple servers.

BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policies define rules for using personal devices on the company network. Since the new employee is using a personal laptop, this policy applies.

Breakdown of Options:

A. IAM (Identity and Access Management) – Governs user permissions, not device policies.

B. BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) – ✅ Correct answer. Covers using personal devices for work.

C. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) – Focuses on preventing sensitive data leaks, not device usage policies.

D. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy) – Covers internet and system usage, but not personal device rules.

Understanding the 169.254.x.x Address:

An IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.x.x is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable.

DHCP Server Offline:

APIPA Assignment: When a device cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA address to enable local network communication. This allows communication with other devices on the same local subnet but not with external networks.

Resolution: Ensure the DHCP server is operational. Check for connectivity issues between the virtual machine and the DHCP server, and verify the DHCP server settings.

Comparison with Other Options:

The subnet mask is incorrect: The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is appropriate for the 169.254.x.x range and does not prevent external access by itself.

The IP address is an RFC1918 private address: RFC1918 addresses are private IP ranges (10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, 192.168.x.x) but 169.254.x.x is not one of them.

The DNS server is unreachable: While this could affect name resolution, it would not prevent the assignment of a non-APIPA address or local network communication.

Troubleshooting Steps:

Verify the DHCP server’s status and connectivity.

Restart the DHCP service if necessary.

Renew the IP lease on the virtual machine using commands such as ipconfig /renew (Windows) or dhclient (Linux).

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides scalable compute power, storage, and networking resources on demand. It is the best choice for a company that needs to customize its cloud solution based on size, compute capacity, and storage needs.

IaaS Benefits:

Provides virtual machines, storage, and networking resources.

Scalable based on company needs.

Reduces the need for physical infrastructure.

Incorrect Options:

A. SaaS (Software as a Service): Delivers software applications (e.g., Google Docs, Microsoft 365) but does not provide compute/storage infrastructure.

B. PaaS (Platform as a Service): Provides a development environment for application deployment but not full infrastructure control.

D. IaC (Infrastructure as Code): A methodology for automating infrastructure, not a cloud deployment model.

A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional addresses.

The correct answer is Integrity because a hashing algorithm ensures that data has not been altered. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) security objectives, hashing is a cryptographic process that takes input data of any size and produces a fixed-length output known as a hash value or digest. If even a single bit of the original data changes, the resulting hash value will be significantly different.

Hashing is commonly used to verify file integrity, validate message authenticity, and securely store passwords. For example, when downloading software, the vendor may publish a hash value so users can calculate the hash of the downloaded file and confirm it matches, ensuring the file was not tampered with.

Non-repudiation (Option A) typically requires digital signatures that combine hashing with asymmetric encryption to verify the sender’s identity. Confidentiality (Option C) is achieved through encryption, which protects data from unauthorized access. Availability (Option D) refers to ensuring systems and data are accessible when needed and is not related to hashing functions.

Therefore, hashing primarily provides data integrity verification.

Content filtering blocks access to restricted or malicious websites. When a user attempts to visit a site that violates company policies, they are redirected to a restriction page.

This is a common security measure to prevent employees from accessing phishing or malware-infected sites.

Content filters work by scanning URLs, keywords, or categories and blocking inappropriate or harmful content.

Option A (DLP - Data Loss Prevention): Focuses on preventing sensitive data leaks rather than blocking web access.

Option B (Captive portal): Used mainly in public Wi-Fi to authenticate users before granting access, not to restrict sites.

Option D (DNS sinkholing): Redirects malicious domain requests to a safe address but is not responsible for policy-based restrictions on general content.

? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide – Section: Security Solutions

A Content Delivery Network (CDN) caches website content across multiple geographically distributed servers to reduce latency and improve load times for users worldwide.

Breakdown of Options:

A. VPN – Encrypts network connections, does not distribute website content.

B. CDN – ✅ Correct answer. A network of caching servers that delivers web content faster.

C. SAN – Storage Area Network, not related to web content distribution.

D. SDN – Software-defined networking, which controls network flows but does not stage website content.

LDAP over SSL (LDAPS) uses port 636 to provide secure, encrypted authentication for directory services.

Breakdown of Options:

A. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) – Uses port 25, not 636.

B. Syslog – Uses port 514 (UDP), not 636.

C. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) – Uses port 69 (UDP), not 636.

D. LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure) – ✅ Correct answer. Uses port 636 for secure directory authentication.

If a SQL server is allowing FTP access to all users, the most direct and best practice action is to disable unused services/ports on the server itself. Network+ (N10-009) security objectives emphasize host hardening and the principle of least functionality: only required services should be running and listening. If FTP is not required for the SQL server’s role, stopping and disabling the FTP service (and closing the associated ports on the host firewall) reduces the attack surface regardless of network firewall rules. This approach ensures the server cannot be reached via FTP even if it is placed on a different network segment or if upstream controls are misconfigured later.

Changing default passwords is important, but it does not address the unnecessary exposure of an unneeded service. Deleting NGFW rules that allow all FTP traffic could help at the perimeter, but it may unintentionally break legitimate FTP usage elsewhere and still doesn’t guarantee the server isn’t reachable from internal networks. Switch ACLs along SQL traffic paths are indirect and easy to misapply; they also add operational complexity and may not cover all access paths. The best “only required services are allowed” control is to disable the unused service/ports on the server.

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VLAN hopping occurs when an attacker tricks a switch into believing the host is another switch by generating tagged frames or exploiting trunk negotiation (DTP). This allows the attacker to access traffic from multiple VLANs, potentially stealing sensitive data.

B. Evil twin is a rogue wireless AP attack, unrelated to switch impersonation.

C. DNS poisoning corrupts name resolution, not VLAN access.

D. ARP spoofing is a Layer 2 on-path attack, not masquerading as a switch.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — VLAN hopping attacks, switch spoofing techniques.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

802.1X provides port-based Network Access Control (NAC), requiring authentication (often through RADIUS) before granting access. This is the standard for enterprise authentication on both wired and wireless networks.

A. 802.1Q defines VLAN trunking.

C. 802.3bt defines higher-power PoE.

D. 802.11h deals with spectrum management in wireless.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — NAC, 802.1X authentication.

An on-path attack (formerly known as a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack) involves intercepting and potentially altering communications between two parties without their knowledge. This can be done via techniques like ARP poisoning, rogue access points, or SSL stripping.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Self-signed certificate – These are untrusted SSL certificates but do not intercept traffic.

B. VLAN hopping – VLAN hopping exploits VLAN misconfigurations but does not necessarily intercept communications.

C. On-path attack – Correct answer. This intercepts and modifies traffic between two endpoints.

D. Phishing – Phishing tricks users into revealing credentials rather than intercepting network traffic.

After implementing a solution and putting preventive measures in place, the next step is to verify that the system is functioning correctly. This ensures that the issue has been fully resolved.

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A split-tunnel VPN allows some traffic to be routed through the VPN while other traffic goes directly to the internet. This setup offers several advantages, with a primary one being cost-effectiveness due to cloud-based traffic not consuming company bandwidth.

Bandwidth Utilization: Split-tunnel VPNs reduce the amount of traffic passing through the company's network, freeing up bandwidth for other uses.

Performance: By allowing internet-bound traffic to bypass the VPN, it can reduce latency and improve the performance for users accessing cloud services directly.

Cost Savings: Reduced load on the company's VPN infrastructure can lead to lower costs in terms of both hardware and bandwidth.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers VPN types, including split-tunnel configurations and their advantages.

Cisco Networking Academy: Discusses VPN technologies and the benefits of split-tunneling.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Provides detailed information on VPN setups, including the cost-effectiveness of split-tunnel VPNs.

By allowing cloud-based traffic to flow outside the company’s network, a split-tunnel VPN optimizes resource usage and enhances the overall network performance without incurring extra costs for bandwidth.

An API (Application Programming Interface) is the best choice when a development team needs to integrate a device’s reporting data directly into custom software. In Network+ (N10-009) objectives, network operations commonly include device management, monitoring, and automation, and APIs are a key method for programmatic access to operational data (often via REST/HTTPS with structured formats like JSON). This enables the internal support application to pull dashboards, health metrics, events, configuration details, and reporting outputs in a controlled, developer-friendly way.

SNMPv2c is primarily used for network monitoring and polling counters/alerts, but it is less secure (community strings) and is not as flexible for modern application integration as an API. A MIB is not a data-access “feature” by itself; it’s the schema/definitions SNMP uses to describe managed objects. A SIEM is a separate security analytics platform that collects and correlates logs/events—useful for security operations, but not the direct interface a custom support tool would typically call to retrieve device reporting data.

URL filtering can block access to websites based on their domain or country code TLDs (e.g., .cn, .ru). This is the correct method to block by location identifiers in URLs.

B. Content filtering blocks based on keywords or categories within websites, not country code.

C. DNS poisoning is an attack, not a control mechanism.

D. MAC filtering restricts devices, not websites.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Filtering technologies, URL vs content filtering.

The MPO (Multi-fiber Push On) connector is designed to handle multiple fiber strands in a single connector, and it is commonly used with high-density transceivers like QSFP (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable).

QSFP can support up to four channels (hence "quad"), and MPO connectors can interface multiple fibers (e.g., 8, 12, 24), making them ideal for 40Gbps or 100Gbps deployments.

RJ45 (A) is used for Ethernet over copper.

ST (B) and LC (C) are single-fiber connectors — they don't support the multi-fiber needs of QSFP setups.

✅ Therefore, MPO is the correct connector type for this use case.

If the user cannot communicate with 192.168.10.1, they might be on a different subnet. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 ensures the user and the file server are in the same subnet.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Changing the IPv4 address to 192.168.10.1 – This would conflict with the server's IP.

B. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 – ✅ Correct answer. Ensures both the user and the server are on the same subnet.

C. Changing the DNS servers – DNS does not affect local network connectivity.

D. Changing the physical address – The MAC address does not impact subnet communication.

Understanding ACLs:

Access Control Lists (ACLs): A set of rules used to control network traffic and restrict access to network resources by filtering packets based on IP addresses, protocols, or ports.

Implementing Security Zones:

Defining Zones: ACLs can be used to create security zones by applying specific rules to different departments, ensuring that only authorized traffic is allowed between these zones.

Control Traffic: ACLs control inbound and outbound traffic at network boundaries, enforcing security policies and preventing unauthorized access.

Comparison with Other Options:

Port Security: Limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port, preventing MAC address flooding attacks, but not used for defining security zones.

Content Filtering: Blocks or allows access to specific content based on predefined policies, typically used for web filtering rather than network segmentation.

NAC (Network Access Control): Controls access to the network based on the security posture of devices but does not define security zones.

Implementation Steps:

Define ACL rules based on the requirements of each department.

Apply these rules to the appropriate network interfaces or firewall policies to segment the network into security zones.

Understanding the Vulnerability:

Vulnerabilities in the router CPU can be exploited to cause performance degradation, unauthorized access, or other security issues.

Firmware Update:

Firmware Role: The firmware is low-level software that controls the hardware of a device. Updating the firmware can address vulnerabilities by providing patches and enhancements from the manufacturer.

Procedure: Download the latest firmware from the vendor’s website, follow the manufacturer's instructions to apply the update, and verify that the update resolves the vulnerability.

Comparison with Other Options:

Replace the System Board: This is a costly and often unnecessary step if the issue can be resolved with a firmware update.

Patch the OS: Patching the OS is relevant for devices with a full operating system but not directly applicable to addressing a CPU vulnerability on a router.

Isolate the System: Temporarily isolating the system can mitigate immediate risk but does not resolve the underlying vulnerability.

Best Practice:

Regularly check for and apply firmware updates to ensure that network devices are protected against known vulnerabilities.

Definition of Jumbo Frames:

Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames.

Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames:

Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in high-performance networks and data centers.

Incompatibility of Other Devices:

Access Point: Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames.

Bridge: Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame sizes.

Hub: A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames.

Practical Application:

Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments.

MIBs (Management Information Bases) define the variables and objects that SNMP can query on a device. If the monitoring server authenticates but cannot interpret the data, it likely lacks the correct MIB for that vendor or model. Importing the proper MIB allows the monitoring server to correctly display device status and metrics.

A. Using a public community string is insecure and not related to missing MIBs.

C. Switchport analyzer (SPAN) captures traffic for packet analysis, not SNMP monitoring.

D. SNMPv3 privacy adds encryption but doesn’t fix missing MIB interpretation.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — SNMP, MIBs, network monitoring systems.

Troubleshooting poor performance of a newly installed access point involves multiple steps. Checking for network bottlenecks and ensuring the device firmware is up to date are crucial first steps. The document confirms:“Network bottlenecks can severely limit the performance of even the fastest wireless access points, so it’s essential to verify that no other devices are causing a slowdown. In addition, keeping firmware updated ensures optimal performance and security.”

A captive portal is designed to present terms, conditions, or usage rules to users and require them to acknowledge/accept those rules before granting network or internet access. In Network+ (N10-009) security and access control concepts, captive portals are commonly associated with guest wireless or public access scenarios, where users are redirected to a web page that displays acceptable-use language and requires a click-through acceptance (and sometimes authentication). This provides a technical enforcement point: users must actively accept the rules to proceed, which supports organizational policy compliance and creates a recordable control in many implementations.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is the document that defines the rules, but by itself it does not technically force a user to acknowledge them at the time of access. NAC controls who/what can connect and can enforce posture and segmentation, but it does not inherently ensure users “accept” usage rules unless paired with a portal workflow. DNS filtering blocks or allows domain access categories (malware, adult content, etc.), which enforces browsing restrictions but does not guarantee user acceptance of rules. Therefore, the best answer to ensure users accept the rules is captive portal.

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The correct answer is SSO (Single Sign-On) because it enables a user to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems or resources without being prompted to log in again. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) security objectives, SSO improves usability and productivity while maintaining centralized authentication control. After the initial authentication, a trust relationship between systems allows the user to access additional applications seamlessly.

MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) enhances security by requiring two or more authentication factors (something you know, have, or are), but it does not inherently provide access to multiple systems without repeated authentication events.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an authentication and authorization protocol commonly used to implement SSO in web-based environments. While SAML supports SSO functionality, it is the underlying protocol rather than the access method itself.

RADIUS is a centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) protocol used for network access control but does not specifically provide seamless multi-resource authentication without additional logins.

Therefore, SSO best describes authentication to multiple resources without requiring additional passwords.

The correct answer is public cloud. In public cloud models, a provider (such as AWS, Azure, or Google Cloud) hosts infrastructure and services that are shared across multiple customers, known as multitenancy. Each tenant is logically isolated, but physical infrastructure is shared, allowing providers to achieve economies of scale.

A. Private cloud is dedicated to one organization, not multitenant.

B. Community cloud is shared among organizations with common interests, but it’s less common than public multitenancy.

D. Hybrid cloud combines private and public but does not define tenancy alone.

Public cloud services are the most cost-effective and scalable because they spread costs across many customers, but they require strong security and isolation to protect tenants.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Cloud models, multitenancy, public vs private.

When signal strength is poor, mobile devices constantly boost their transmission power in an attempt to maintain a stable connection. This results in dropped calls/data and rapid battery drain. Since a repeater was installed, misalignment or misconfiguration could be degrading the signal strength.

A. WPS applies to Wi-Fi, not cellular repeaters.

C. Channel frequency might matter for interference, but signal strength is the most direct cause of the described symptoms.

D. Power budget applies to PoE and wired devices, not mobile phones.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — Wireless/cellular troubleshooting, signal strength impact, user symptoms (battery drain, poor connectivity).

The most likely reason an insurance brokerage would enforce VPN usage is to encrypt sensitive data in transit. VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) create a secure tunnel between the user's device and the corporate network, ensuring that data is encrypted and protected from interception.

Encryption: VPNs encrypt data, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring data privacy during transmission over public or unsecured networks.

Data Protection: Essential for industries handling sensitive information, such as insurance brokerages, to protect customer data and comply with regulatory requirements.

Security: Enhances overall network security by providing secure remote access for employees.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses the role of VPNs in securing data in transit.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on VPN technologies and their importance in data security.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains VPN usage and its benefits in protecting sensitive information.

The correct answer is Identify the problem, which is always the first step in the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 troubleshooting methodology. Before forming theories, creating action plans, or documenting outcomes, technicians must clearly understand what is happening, who is affected, and what symptoms are present.

In this scenario, the symptoms—inaccessible files and a changed wallpaper—are serious and potentially indicative of a security incident such as ransomware. However, at this stage, there is disagreement between the network administrator and the security analyst regarding the nature of the issue. That reinforces the need to begin with problem identification, which includes gathering information, determining the scope of impact, identifying recent changes, and assessing whether the incident is isolated or widespread.

Establishing a theory comes after the problem has been clearly defined. Creating a plan of action and documenting findings occur later in the process, once the issue has been confirmed and remediation steps are determined. Jumping ahead without properly identifying the problem could result in delayed containment or an incorrect response—especially critical in potential security incidents.

The Network+ objectives emphasize following the structured troubleshooting process precisely to reduce risk, prevent escalation, and ensure accurate resolution—particularly when malware or ransomware may be involved.

When the hosts file is altered, local name resolution is compromised, and domain queries are redirected to malicious IP addresses. This is a form of DNS spoofing/poisoning, where false mappings trick users into visiting fraudulent websites.

B. Phishing typically uses emails or messages to trick users, not local file modification.

C. VLAN hopping is a Layer 2 attack to gain unauthorized network access, unrelated to DNS.

D. ARP poisoning manipulates ARP tables on a LAN to reroute traffic, not name resolution.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — DNS poisoning/spoofing, host file manipulation, endpoint attacks.

Enterprise authentication (such as WPA2-Enterprise) utilizes unique credentials for each user, typically integrating with an authentication server like RADIUS. This allows for tracking and logging user activity, ensuring that all connections can be traced back to individual users. PSKs (Pre-Shared Keys) are shared among users and do not provide individual accountability. Captive portals can identify users but are less secure than enterprise authentication, and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is outdated and not recommended for security purposes.

The user’s inability to access the marketing department’s shared drives, despite having internet access, suggests a network segmentation issue. The most likely cause is an incorrect VLAN assignment. The computer is physically located on the accounting department floor, and the switchport is likely configured for the accounting VLAN, not the marketing VLAN. VLANs segment network traffic, and if the computer is in the wrong VLAN, it cannot communicate with the marketing department’s resources.

Why not Mismatched switchport duplex? Duplex mismatches cause performance issues (e.g., packet loss) but not specific access denials to shared drives.

Why not Misconfigured gateway settings? Incorrect gateway settings would prevent internet access, which the user has.

Why not SVI is assigned to the wrong IP address? A Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) with an incorrect IP address affects inter-VLAN routing, but this would likely impact multiple users, not just one.

The correct answer is EOL discontinues the product but may offer support. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives related to lifecycle management and vendor support policies, End of Life (EOL) indicates that a product is no longer being manufactured or sold by the vendor. However, after EOL is declared, the vendor may continue to provide limited support, updates, or warranty services for a defined period.

In contrast, End of Support (EOS) means the vendor has stopped providing technical assistance, patches, firmware updates, and security fixes for the product. Once a product reaches EOS, organizations are responsible for maintaining it without vendor assistance, which can introduce operational and security risks.

Option B is incorrect because EOS does not typically convert support into a subscription model—it signifies the termination of support. Option C is incorrect because EOS applies to both hardware and software products. Option D is incorrect because warranty terms depend on vendor policy and are not guaranteed after EOL status.

Therefore, the key distinction is that EOL ends product sales, while EOS ends vendor support.

Site-to-Site VPN: A site-to-site VPN is used to securely connect two networks, such as a company's headquarters and a branch location, over the internet. This type of VPN creates a secure tunnel for data transmission, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.

Split-tunnel VPN (A): Allows some traffic to bypass the VPN tunnel, which may not secure all communications.

Clientless VPN (B): Used for individual users to access the network without VPN client software.

Full-tunnel VPN (C): Typically used for individual user traffic rather than connecting two networks.

Understanding Subnetting:

Original Network: 192.168.1.0/24 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for 256 IP addresses (including network and broadcast addresses).

Objective: Divide this network into two equal subnets.

Calculating Subnet Mask:

New Subnet Mask: To divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves, we need to borrow one bit from the host portion of the address, changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.128 (/25).

Subnet Breakdown:

First Subnet: 192.168.1.0/25 (192.168.1.0 - 192.168.1.127)

Second Subnet: 192.168.1.128/25 (192.168.1.128 - 192.168.1.255)

Verification:

Each subnet now has 128 IP addresses (126 usable IP addresses, excluding the network and broadcast addresses).

Comparison with Other Options:

255.255.0.0 (/16): Provides a much larger network, not dividing the original /24 network.

255.255.254.0 (/23): Also creates a larger subnet, encompassing more than the original /24 network.

255.255.255.0 (/24): Maintains the original subnet size, not dividing it.

EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary advanced distance-vector routing protocol. While it operates within an Autonomous System (AS), it requires the AS number to be configured for routers to recognize each other as EIGRP neighbors.

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) uses areas and routers must be in the same area to form adjacencies, but it doesn't require AS numbers in the same way.

FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol) is not a routing protocol but a group of protocols (e.g., HSRP, VRRP) to ensure high availability at the default gateway level.

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) does not use autonomous system numbers.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 3.1 – Compare and contrast various routing technologies.

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Devices in both buildings should be able to access the Internet.

Security insists that all Internet traffic be inspected before entering the network.

Desktops should not see traffic destined for other devices.

Here is the corrected layout with explanation:

Building A:

Switch: Correctly placed to connect all desktops.

Firewall: Correctly placed to inspect all incoming and outgoing traffic.

Building B:

Switch: Not needed. Instead, place a Wireless Access Point (WAP) to provide wireless connectivity for laptops and mobile devices.

Between Buildings:

Wireless Range Extender: Correctly placed to provide connectivity between the buildings wirelessly.

Connection to the Internet:

Router: Correctly placed to connect to the Internet and route traffic between the buildings and the Internet.

Firewall: The firewall should be placed between the router and the internal network to inspect all traffic before it enters the network.

Corrected Setup:

Top-left (Building A): Switch

Bottom-left (Building A): Firewall (inspect traffic before it enters the network)

Top-middle (Internet connection): Router

Bottom-middle (between buildings): Wireless Range Extender

Top-right (Building B): Wireless Access Point (WAP)

In this corrected setup, the WAP in Building B will connect wirelessly to the Wireless Range Extender, which is connected to the Router. The Router is connected to the Firewall to ensure all traffic is inspected before it enters the network.

Configuration for Wireless Range Extender:

SSID: CORP

Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise

Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase]

Mode: [Set based on your network plan]

Channel: [Set based on your network plan]

Speed: Auto

Duplex: Auto

With these settings, both buildings will have secure access to the Internet, and all traffic will be inspected by the firewall before entering the network. Desktops and other devices will not see traffic intended for others, maintaining the required security and privacy.

To configure the wireless range extender for security, follow these steps:

SSID (Service Set Identifier):

Ensure the SSID is set to "CORP" as shown in the exhibit.

Security Settings:

WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise: Choose one of these options for stronger security. WPA2-Enterprise provides more robust security with centralized authentication, which is ideal for a corporate environment.

Key or Passphrase:

If you select WPA2, enter a strong passphrase in the "Key or Passphrase" field.

If you select WPA2 - Enterprise, you will need to configure additional settings for authentication servers, such as RADIUS, which is not shown in the exhibit.

Wireless Mode and Channel:

Set the appropriate mode and channel based on your network design and the environment to avoid interference. These settings are not specified in the exhibit, so set them according to your network plan.

Wired Speed and Duplex:

Set the speed to "Auto" unless you have specific requirements for 100 or 1000 Mbps.

Set the duplex to "Auto" unless you need to specify half or full duplex based on your network equipment.

Save Configuration:

After making the necessary changes, click the "Save" button to apply the settings.

Here is how the configuration should look after adjustments:

SSID: CORP

Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise

Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase]

Mode: [Set based on your network plan]

Channel: [Set based on your network plan]

Speed: Auto

Duplex: Auto

Once these settings are configured, your wireless range extender will provide secure connectivity for devices in both buildings.

Firewall setting to to ensure complete compliance with the requirements and best security practices, consider the following adjustments and additions:

DNS Rule: This rule allows DNS traffic from the internal network to any destination, which is fine.

HTTPS Outbound: This rule allows HTTPS traffic from the internal network (assuming 192.169.0.1/24 is a typo and should be 192.168.0.1/24) to any destination, which is also good for secure web browsing.

Management: This rule allows SSH access to the firewall for management purposes, which is necessary for administrative tasks.

HTTPS Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTPS traffic to the internal network, which is good unless you have a web server that needs to be accessible from the internet.

HTTP Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTP traffic to the internal network, which is correct for security purposes.

Suggested Additional Settings:

Permit General Outbound Traffic: Allow general outbound traffic for web access, email, etc.

Block All Other Traffic: Ensure that all other traffic is blocked to prevent unauthorized access.

Firewall Configuration Adjustments:

Correct the Network Typo:

Ensure that the subnet 192.169.0.1/24 is corrected to 192.168.0.1/24.

Permit General Outbound Traffic:

Rule Name: General Outbound

Source: 192.168.0.1/24

Destination: ANY

Service: ANY

Action: PERMIT

Deny All Other Traffic:

Rule Name: Block All

Source: ANY

Destination: ANY

Service: ANY

Action: DENY

Here is how your updated firewall settings should look:

Rule Name

Source

Destination

Service

Action

DNS Rule

192.168.0.1/24

ANY

DNS

PERMIT

HTTPS Outbound

192.168.0.1/24

ANY

HTTPS

PERMIT

Management

ANY

192.168.0.1/24

SSH

PERMIT

HTTPS Inbound

ANY

192.168.0.1/24

HTTPS

DENY

HTTP Inbound

ANY

192.168.0.1/24

HTTP

DENY

General Outbound

192.168.0.1/24

ANY

ANY

PERMIT

Block All

ANY

ANY

ANY

DENY

These settings ensure that:

Internal devices can access DNS and HTTPS services externally.

Management access via SSH is permitted.

Inbound HTTP and HTTPS traffic is denied unless otherwise specified.

General outbound traffic is allowed.

All other traffic is blocked by default, ensuring a secure environment.

Make sure to save the settings after making these adjustments.

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a network protocol used for discovering devices and their capabilities on a local area network, primarily at the data link layer (Layer 2). It helps in identifying the connected switch and the specific port to which a device is connected. When troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, the technician can use LLDP to determine the exact switch and port where the handset is connected. This protocol is widely used in network management to facilitate the discovery of network topology and simplify troubleshooting.

Other options such as IKE (Internet Key Exchange), VLAN (Virtual LAN), and netstat (network statistics) are not suitable for identifying the switch and port information. IKE is used in setting up secure IPsec connections, VLAN is used for segmenting networks, and netstat provides information about active connections and listening ports on a host but not for discovering switch port details.

The correct answer is OSPF (Open Shortest Path First). OSPF is a link-state routing protocol known for its fast convergence and use of the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest loop-free path. It efficiently scales to large enterprise networks and avoids routing loops by maintaining a complete topology map.

A. BGP is primarily an external routing protocol used between ISPs, not internal.

B. STP is not a routing protocol; it prevents loops at Layer 2.

D. RIP is an older distance-vector protocol with slower convergence and a maximum hop limit of 15.

OSPF’s design makes it the preferred internal gateway protocol (IGP) for medium-to-large organizations requiring speed and loop-free reliability.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — IGPs, OSPF, routing protocols.

Quality of Service (QoS) prioritizes delay-sensitive traffic such as VoIP by assigning higher priority in queues, reducing jitter, latency, and packet loss. Implementing QoS policies ensures stable and clear voice communication.

B. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) prevents switching loops, but it does not address jitter or real-time traffic performance.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — QoS, traffic shaping, prioritization of voice/video.

NAT (Network Address Translation) helps hide internal IP addresses from external networks, adding a layer of security by preventing direct access to internal systems from the outside.

The correct answer is D: Increase the scope to 10.8.100.50 – 10.8.100.175. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, proper DHCP scope configuration is essential to ensure all hosts can obtain valid IP addresses and communicate beyond their local segment.

In this scenario, the DHCP scope is configured for 10.8.100.50 through 10.8.100.150, while a reservation range exists from 10.8.100.151 through 10.8.100.175. The network scan shows that IP addresses up to 10.8.100.175 are already in use. This indicates that some devices are either statically assigned addresses outside the active scope or are failing to receive valid DHCP leases, causing the new laptops to communicate only with each other—often a sign of APIPA or improper addressing.

To ensure full connectivity, the DHCP scope must be expanded to include the entire range of addresses that are actively in use, including the reserved addresses. Option D correctly extends the scope to 10.8.100.175 without overlapping lower addresses that may be statically assigned or intentionally excluded.

The Network+ objectives emphasize avoiding address conflicts and ensuring DHCP scopes align with real-world network usage. Expanding the scope to include all valid addresses ensures that all laptops can obtain proper IP configuration, default gateway information, and full network connectivity.

The channel width (20 MHz vs. 40 MHz vs. 80 MHz) directly impacts Wi-Fi throughput. If the AP is configured with a narrow channel width (e.g., 20 MHz), maximum data rates will be significantly lower than other APs using wider channels (e.g., 80 MHz). This matches the scenario where one AP achieves only ~75 Mbps, while others reach 500 Mbps.

B. DNS issues affect name resolution, not raw throughput.

C. Authentication failure would prevent connection, not reduce throughput.

D. DHCP issues would prevent obtaining an IP, not cause slower speeds.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — Wireless throughput issues, channel width configuration.

The most likely cause is that the switch ports were previously configured for a different VLAN than the one the users’ computers are on. If the native VLAN on the port doesn’t match the end device’s VLAN, communication fails.

A. Ports are error-disabled: Would result in no link at all, not common across multiple ports unless a violation occurred.

C. MDIX issue: Auto-MDIX eliminates most crossover problems on modern switches.

D. Ports are trunk ports: While possible, typical user devices should be on access ports, but if the port is incorrectly trunked, it can cause similar issues. However, “incorrect VLAN” is more precise here.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 2.3 – Given a scenario, configure and verify VLANs.

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Nmap (Network Mapper) is a powerful network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a computer network. It can be used to identify which ports are open on a remote server, which can help diagnose access issues to services like a remote file server.

Port Scanning: Nmap can perform comprehensive port scans to determine which ports are open and what services are running on those ports.

Network Discovery: It provides detailed information about the host’s operating system, service versions, and network configuration.

Security Audits: Besides troubleshooting, Nmap is also used for security auditing and identifying potential vulnerabilities.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers network scanning tools and their uses.

Nmap Documentation: Official documentation provides extensive details on how to use Nmap for port scanning and network diagnostics.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Discusses various network utilities, including Nmap, and their applications in network troubleshooting.

Temperature and humidity controlis the best way to reduce the risk of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Dry environments significantly increase the likelihood of static buildup, which can discharge and damage sensitive components. By controlling humidity, the environment becomes less prone to static electricity.

The netstat output shows that multiple ports are open, including Telnet (23), FTP (20), and TFTP (69), which are potential security risks. Disabling unused ports minimizes the attack surface, reducing security vulnerabilities.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Disable the unused ports – Correct answer. Unused ports should be closed to prevent unauthorized access.

B. Enforce access control lists – ACLs help control access but do not disable unnecessary services.

C. Perform content filtering – Content filtering controls web traffic, not port security.

D. Set up a screened subnet – A DMZ (screened subnet) improves security but does not address open ports.

If the company’s SSID is not visible in some areas while other networks are still visible, the most likely cause is insufficient wireless coverage. The wireless signal does not reach those areas, meaning additional access points or signal boosters may be required.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Interference or channel overlap – Would cause slow or unstable connections, but the SSID should still be visible.

B. Insufficient wireless coverage – ✅ Correct answer. If the SSID is not appearing, the signal is too weak in that area.

C. Roaming misconfiguration – Would cause devices to stay on weaker APs instead of switching, but the SSID should still be visible.

D. Client disassociation issues – This would disconnect users, but they should still see the network.

Understanding Link Aggregation:

Definition: Link aggregation combines multiple network connections into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and provide redundancy.

Usage in High-Bandwidth Scenarios:

Combining Links: By aggregating multiple 1Gbps connections, the facility can utilize the full 2.5Gbps bandwidth provided by the ISP.

Benefits: Enhanced throughput, load balancing, and redundancy, ensuring better utilization of available bandwidth.

Comparison with Other Options:

802.1Q Tagging: Used for VLAN tagging, which does not affect the physical bandwidth utilization.

Network Address Translation (NAT): Used for IP address translation, not related to link speed or bandwidth aggregation.

Port Duplex: Refers to the mode of communication (full or half duplex) on a port, not the aggregation of bandwidth.

Implementation:

Configure link aggregation (often referred to as LACP - Link Aggregation Control Protocol) on network devices to combine multiple physical links into one logical link.

NetFlow (and similar flow technologies like IPFIX/sFlow in concept) is used to collect traffic-flow metadata such as source/destination IPs, ports, protocols, interfaces, and byte/packet counts over time. In Network+ (N10-009) operations and monitoring objectives, flow data is ideal for identifying top talkers and top destinations across the network on a given day because it provides summarized, queryable information at scale without capturing every packet payload. An administrator can review reports to determine which destination IPs/hosts consumed the most bandwidth, which applications were most active, and what time ranges saw spikes—perfect for historical analysis.

SNMP is great for polling device counters (interface utilization, errors, CPU) but it does not natively tell you the “top destination” by conversation/flow without additional flow awareness. Packet capture can reveal exact conversations and payloads, but it is heavy, localized, and not efficient for infrastructure-wide daily top-destination reporting. traceroute maps the path to a destination and helps isolate routing/path issues; it does not provide usage statistics. Therefore, NetFlow is the best fit.

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NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes clocks across network devices, ensuring accurate timestamps in logs. This is critical for correlating events across different systems during investigations.

A. Syslog collects logs but relies on accurate timestamps already present.

B. SMTP is an email protocol, unrelated to time synchronization.

C. SNMP is for monitoring and management, not time.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Time synchronization (NTP), log correlation, security operations.

The correct answer is Question the user because the first step in the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) troubleshooting methodology is to identify the problem. Identifying the problem involves gathering information, asking clarifying questions, determining if anything has changed, and establishing the scope of the issue.

Even though the user states they have “checked everything,” the administrator should not assume that all relevant troubleshooting steps were properly performed. The technician must ask specific questions such as: Are other users affected? Is the issue limited to certain websites? Are there any error messages? When did the issue start? Were there recent updates or configuration changes?

Only after gathering sufficient information should the administrator move to the next steps, such as establishing a theory of probable cause (Option B) or using divide-and-conquer methods (Option A). Documentation (Option D) occurs after resolving and verifying the issue.

Therefore, questioning the user to clearly define and scope the problem is the correct first action according to the structured troubleshooting process.

When deploying multiple Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices, the switch’s power budget can be exhausted. If the available wattage on the switch cannot supply the additional AP, it will fail to power on. This is the most likely cause when previous APs worked fine but a new one does not.

A. Signal strength affects wireless connectivity, not whether the AP powers up.

B. Duplex mismatch causes poor throughput, not power failure.

D. CRC errors point to cabling issues but do not prevent booting if no power is available.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — PoE power budget considerations, device startup issues.

When multiple redundant links exist between switches, Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is required to prevent switching loops. STP blocks redundant paths but can allow aggregation if configured with protocols like LACP.

B. SVIs provide Layer 3 interfaces, not loop prevention.

C. Native VLAN defines the untagged VLAN but does not manage loops.

D. FHRP (VRRP, HSRP, GLBP) provides gateway redundancy, not switch uplink management.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — STP, redundancy, loop prevention.

When a network administrator installs a new Network Interface Card (NIC) and users are unable to reach the server, one of the common issues is the use of an incorrect cable type. Network cables must match the specifications required by the NIC and the network infrastructure (e.g., Cat5e, Cat6 for Ethernet).

NIC Compatibility: The new NIC might require a specific type of cable to function properly. Using a cable not rated for the NIC's required speeds or capabilities can result in connectivity issues.

Cable Standards: Different NICs and network devices might need different cabling standards (straight-through vs. crossover cables, or specific fiber optic types).

Connection Types: Ensuring that the cable connectors are appropriate for the NIC ports (e.g., RJ45 for Ethernet, LC connectors for fiber optics).

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses network cabling standards and NIC specifications.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights into cabling and NIC configurations for optimal network performance.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Offers comprehensive details on troubleshooting network connectivity issues, including cabling problems.

Understanding End-of-Support:

End-of-Support Status: When a vendor declares a device as end-of-support, it means the device will no longer receive updates, patches, or technical support. This poses a security risk as new vulnerabilities will not be addressed.

Risks of Keeping an End-of-Support Device:

Security Vulnerabilities: Without updates, the switch becomes susceptible to new security threats.

Compliance Issues: Many regulatory frameworks require that critical infrastructure be maintained with supported and secure hardware.

Best Next Step - Replacement:

Decommission and Replace: The most secure approach is to replace the end-of-support switch with a new, supported model. This ensures the infrastructure remains secure and compliant with current standards.

Planning and Execution: Plan for the replacement by evaluating the network's needs, selecting a suitable replacement switch, and scheduling downtime for the hardware swap.

Comparison with Other Options:

Apply the Latest Patches: While helpful, this does not address future vulnerabilities since no further patches will be provided.

Ensure the Current Firmware Has No Issues: This is only a temporary measure and does not mitigate future risks.

Isolate the Switch from the Network: Isolating the switch may disrupt network operations and is not a viable long-term solution.

A hot site is a fully operational backup facility with hardware, network, and data synchronization already in place. It allows for immediate failover in the event of a disaster, minimizing downtime.

B. DCI (Data Center Interconnect) connects data centers but doesn’t guarantee availability unless built redundantly.

C. Direct Connect refers to a private link to cloud providers, not disaster recovery.

D. Active-passive can help with failover but may involve delay unless combined with hot site principles.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.4 – Summarize business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

To verify ownership of a domain, providers commonly require adding a TXT record to DNS containing a specific validation token (a name/value pair). A TXT (text) record is designed to store arbitrary text data associated with a domain or hostname, which makes it ideal for domain verification workflows used by certificate authorities, email security (SPF/DKIM/DMARC-related entries), and third-party services that need proof of administrative control over DNS. This fits Network+ DNS objectives that cover common record types and their practical purposes in real deployments.

An A record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address and is used for name-to-address resolution, not ownership verification. A PTR record provides reverse DNS mapping (IP address to hostname) and is stored in reverse lookup zones, not typically used for validating web domain ownership. A CNAME record creates an alias from one hostname to another canonical hostname; while sometimes used in service integrations, the classic “record name + token value” ownership verification is most directly and universally satisfied by a TXT record. Therefore, TXT is the correct choice given the requirement and the provided record name and value.

DNS filtering blocks access to known malicious websites by comparing domain requests against a list of allowed or blocked URLs. It is an effective defense against phishing and other web-based attacks.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“URL filtering restricts access to specific websites or web content by comparing URLs against a predefined list of allowed or blocked sites…commonly used to prevent users from accessing malicious sites.”

To enable communication between VLANs, the technician must configure inter-VLAN routing. On a Layer 3 switch, this is commonly done by creating an SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) for each VLAN. An SVI provides a virtual Layer 3 interface with an IP address that acts as the default gateway for hosts in that VLAN. Once SVIs exist and routing is enabled, the switch can route traffic between VLAN subnets internally, allowing clients in different VLANs to communicate (subject to any security controls). This aligns with Network+ (N10-009) infrastructure objectives covering VLANs, Layer 2/Layer 3 switching, and the requirement for routing to cross broadcast domains.

ACLs can permit or deny inter-VLAN traffic, but they do not create the routing function by themselves. VXLAN is an overlay tunneling technology used mainly in data centers to extend Layer 2 networks over Layer 3 fabrics, not the standard solution for basic VLAN-to-VLAN connectivity on a switch. VPC is not the required configuration element for inter-VLAN routing in this context. Therefore, configuring SVIs is the correct and most direct answer.

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When a network interface's indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch, it suggests a physical layer issue. Here is the detailed reasoning:

Ethernet Properly Connected: The Ethernet cable is correctly connected, eliminating issues related to a loose or faulty cable.

No Indicator Lights: The absence of blinking indicator lights on both the computer and the switch typically points to the port being administratively shut down.

Switch Port Shut Down: In networking, a switch port can be administratively shut down, disabling it from passing any traffic. This state is configured by network administrators and can be verified and changed using the command-line interface (CLI) of the switch.

Command to Check and Enable Port:

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Switch> enable

Switch# configure terminal

Switch(config)# interface [interface id]

Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

The command no shutdown re-enables the interface if it was previously disabled. This will restore the link and the indicator lights should start blinking, showing activity.

Basic Configuration Commands PDF, sections on interface configuration (e.g., shutdown, no shutdown)​​.

Using Pre-Shared Key (PSK) authentication means that all users share the same Wi-Fi password, making it difficult to identify individual users when security incidents occur.

Migrating to WPA2-Enterprise (or WPA3-Enterprise) replaces PSK authentication with individual user credentials using 802.1X authentication and a RADIUS server. This allows the organization to:

Track and log specific user activity

Enforce per-user authentication policies

Improve network security

Breakdown of Options:

A. Restrict users to the 5GHz frequency – Improves performance but does not enhance user tracking or security.

B. Upgrade to a mesh network – A mesh network improves coverage, not security tracking.

C. Migrate from PSK to Enterprise – ✅ Correct answer. WPA2-Enterprise or WPA3-Enterprise uses individual user authentication, allowing per-user tracking.

D. Implement WPA2 encryption – WPA2 is already widely used; it does not resolve the tracking issue.

Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) platform is built to collect, correlate, and alert on security-relevant events across many sources, which is exactly what’s needed to identify patterns such as brute force attempts, port scanning, and DDoS indicators. In Network+ (N10-009) security operations concepts, correlation is key: a SIEM can ingest logs from firewalls, IDS/IPS, servers, authentication systems, endpoint agents, and network devices, then apply rules/analytics to detect suspicious behavior that might not be obvious from a single log source. It can also generate real-time alerts, dashboards, and incident timelines—helping the engineer respond quickly and prioritize threats.

Packet capture provides deep visibility into traffic but is not inherently designed for enterprise-wide correlation and alerting without significant additional tooling and expertise. SNMPv3 is used for secure device monitoring (status, counters, performance) rather than detecting coordinated attack patterns. A syslog collector centralizes logs but generally does not provide the same level of correlation, enrichment, and automated alerting capabilities as a SIEM. Therefore, SIEM is the best answer.

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Introduction to Administrative Distance

Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.

Static Routes and Backup Routes

When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.

Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance

The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.

Example Configuration:

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ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10

In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.

10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.

10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.

Verification:

After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.

This is an example of Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) because it requires:

Something you know (username/password)

Something you have (a phone-generated passcode)

Breakdown of Options:

A. SSO (Single Sign-On) – Allows one login for multiple services, but does not add a second authentication factor.

B. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) – Used for directory authentication, not MFA.

C. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) – ✅ Correct answer. Uses multiple authentication factors for better security.

D. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) – Used for federated identity management, not multi-factor authentication.

Out-of-band (OOB) management refers to using a dedicated management network that is physically separate from the regular data network. This management network uses a different set of IP addresses to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic, providing a secure way to manage network devices even if the main network is down or compromised.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials. ​

An evil twin attack occurs when an attacker creates a fraudulent AP with an SSID very similar (or identical) to the legitimate one. Users may accidentally connect, allowing the attacker to capture traffic and credentials.

A. On-path is the consequence of connecting to the evil twin, not the initial attack itself.

B. Rogue AP is any unauthorized access point, but the key here is the malicious mimicry of a legitimate SSID — specifically an evil twin.

D. Tailgating is a physical social engineering attack, unrelated to Wi-Fi.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Wireless threats (rogue APs, evil twins).

For an internal network using IPv6, the best option listed is OSPFv3, which is the OSPF version designed to support IPv6 routing. In Network+ (N10-009) routing objectives, OSPF is a common interior gateway protocol (IGP) used within an organization (an autonomous system) to exchange routes dynamically and converge efficiently. OSPFv3 maintains the link-state approach of OSPF while adding IPv6 support, making it a strong fit for enterprise internal routing where multiple routers and subnets need dynamic path calculation and fast convergence.

BGP4 and iBGP are associated with BGP, primarily used for inter-domain routing on the internet and between large networks; while BGP can carry IPv6 (via MP-BGP), it is generally not the “best” default choice for a typical internal-only enterprise network unless there is a specific design reason. EIGRP can support IPv6 in some implementations, but Network+ typically emphasizes OSPF/OSPFv3 as the widely adopted, vendor-neutral IGP for IPv6 deployments. Given the options and the “best for this setup” wording, OSPFv3 is the most appropriate answer.