New Year Sale - 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: dm70dm

Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

Buy Now
Questions 5

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Manual reconfiguration

B.

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.

Single point of failure

D.

Less security

Buy Now
Questions 6

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Buy Now
Questions 7

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Options:

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

Buy Now
Questions 8

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

Options:

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

Buy Now
Questions 9

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

Buy Now
Questions 10

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

Buy Now
Questions 11

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

Buy Now
Questions 12

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

Buy Now
Questions 13

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

Options:

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

Options:

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

Buy Now
Questions 15

What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Serverless function

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Docker container

Buy Now
Questions 16

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

Options:

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

Buy Now
Questions 17

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

Buy Now
Questions 18

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

Buy Now
Questions 19

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

Options:

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

Buy Now
Questions 20

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

Options:

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

Buy Now
Questions 21

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

Buy Now
Questions 22

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

Buy Now
Questions 23

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

Options:

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

Buy Now
Questions 24

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

Options:

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

Buy Now
Questions 25

What type of address translation does a NAT perform?

Options:

A.

Private to public

B.

Logical to physical

C.

Physical Io logical

D.

Public to private

Buy Now
Questions 26

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

Buy Now
Questions 27

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

Options:

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

Buy Now
Questions 28

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

Buy Now
Questions 29

Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?

Options:

A.

443

B.

5050

C.

25

D.

80

Buy Now
Questions 30

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

Options:

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

Buy Now
Questions 31

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

Buy Now
Questions 32

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

Buy Now
Questions 33

Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

Options:

A.

DLP

B.

CASB

C.

DNS Security

D.

URL filtering

Buy Now
Questions 34

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

Buy Now
Questions 35

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

Buy Now
Questions 36

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

Options:

A.

Watering hole

B.

Pharming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Whaling

Buy Now
Questions 37

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

Buy Now
Questions 38

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Buy Now
Questions 39

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

Buy Now
Questions 40

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

Buy Now
Questions 41

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

Buy Now
Questions 42

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Practitioner Question 42

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 43

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

Buy Now
Questions 44

What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It encrypts user data.

B.

It cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques.

C.

It takes control of the operating system.

D.

It steals personal information.

Buy Now
Questions 45

Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.

B.

It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.

C.

It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.

D.

It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.

Buy Now
Questions 46

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

Buy Now
Questions 47

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Buy Now
Questions 48

Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?

Options:

A.

Advanced persistent threat

B.

Denial-of-service (DoS)

C.

Watering hole attack

D.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Buy Now
Questions 49

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Practitioner Question 49

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 50

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

Buy Now
Questions 51

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Buy Now
Questions 52

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

Options:

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

Buy Now
Questions 53

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Buy Now
Questions 54

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

Buy Now
Questions 55

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

Buy Now
Questions 56

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

Buy Now
Questions 57

Which statement describes advanced malware?

Options:

A.

It operates openly and can be detected by traditional antivirus.

B.

It lacks the ability to exfiltrate data or persist within a system.

C.

It is designed to avoid detection and adapt.

D.

It can operate without consuming resources.

Buy Now
Questions 58

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

Options:

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

Buy Now
Questions 59

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

Buy Now
Questions 60

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Buy Now
Questions 61

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

Options:

A.

Serverless

B.

Dockers

C.

Cloud-hosted

D.

Kubernetes

Buy Now
Questions 62

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

Options:

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

Buy Now
Questions 63

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

Options:

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

Buy Now
Questions 64

When does a TLS handshake occur?

Options:

A.

Before establishing a TCP connection

B.

Only during DNS over HTTPS queries

C.

After a TCP handshake has been established

D.

Independently of HTTPS communications

Buy Now
Questions 65

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Options:

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

Buy Now
Questions 66

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

Buy Now
Questions 67

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

Buy Now
Questions 68

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

Options:

A.

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

Buy Now
Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Dec 14, 2025
Questions: 227

PDF + Testing Engine

$49.5  $164.99

Testing Engine

$37.5  $124.99
buy now Practitioner testing engine

PDF (Q&A)

$31.5  $104.99
buy now Practitioner pdf
dumpsmate guaranteed to pass

24/7 Customer Support

DumpsMate's team of experts is always available to respond your queries on exam preparation. Get professional answers on any topic of the certification syllabus. Our experts will thoroughly satisfy you.

Site Secure

mcafee secure

TESTED 14 Dec 2025