Month End Sale - 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: dm70dm

Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?

Options:

A.

All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network

B.

East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic

C.

East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic

D.

East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4

Buy Now
Questions 5

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

Buy Now
Questions 6

Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?

Options:

A.

Application allow list

B.

DNS Security

C.

URL filtering

D.

Dynamic access control

Buy Now
Questions 7

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

Buy Now
Questions 8

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Buy Now
Questions 9

Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Hardware procurement

B.

Log normalization

C.

Initial security team training

D.

Incident response

Buy Now
Questions 10

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Options:

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

Buy Now
Questions 11

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

Buy Now
Questions 12

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

Buy Now
Questions 13

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

Buy Now
Questions 15

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

Buy Now
Questions 16

Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

Options:

A.

Event Viewer

B.

Timeline inspector

C.

Task Manager

D.

Task Scheduler

Buy Now
Questions 17

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Securing individual devices

B.

Matching risks to signatures

C.

Scanning for excessive logins

D.

Analyzing access management logs

Buy Now
Questions 18

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

Buy Now
Questions 19

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

Options:

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

Buy Now
Questions 20

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

Buy Now
Questions 21

On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

non-repudiation

Buy Now
Questions 22

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

Buy Now
Questions 23

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

Buy Now
Questions 24

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Buy Now
Questions 25

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

Buy Now
Questions 26

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

Buy Now
Questions 27

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

Buy Now
Questions 28

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

Buy Now
Questions 29

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

Options:

A.

requires the use of only one cloud service provider

B.

enables on-demand network services

C.

requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

D.

defines any network service

Buy Now
Questions 30

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

Buy Now
Questions 31

Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

Options:

A.

Service connection

B.

Prisma Access

C.

Prisma Cloud

D.

Digital experience management

Buy Now
Questions 32

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

Buy Now
Questions 33

Which statement describes advanced malware?

Options:

A.

It operates openly and can be detected by traditional antivirus.

B.

It lacks the ability to exfiltrate data or persist within a system.

C.

It is designed to avoid detection and adapt.

D.

It can operate without consuming resources.

Buy Now
Questions 34

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

Options:

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

Buy Now
Questions 35

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

Buy Now
Questions 36

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

Options:

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

Buy Now
Questions 37

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

Options:

A.

Watering hole

B.

Pharming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Whaling

Buy Now
Questions 38

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

Buy Now
Questions 39

In the network diagram below, which device is the router?

Practitioner Question 39

Options:

A.

A

B.

C

C.

D

D.

B

Buy Now
Questions 40

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

Buy Now
Questions 41

Match the description with the VPN technology.

Practitioner Question 41

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 42

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

Buy Now
Questions 43

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

Options:

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

Buy Now
Questions 44

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

Options:

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

Buy Now
Questions 45

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

Buy Now
Questions 46

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

Options:

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

Buy Now
Questions 47

If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

Options:

A.

The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.

B.

The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

C.

The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.

D.

The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.

Buy Now
Questions 48

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Options:

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

Buy Now
Questions 49

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Buy Now
Questions 50

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

Options:

A.

Containerized

B.

Serverless

C.

Air-gapped

D.

SaaS

Buy Now
Questions 51

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

Options:

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

Buy Now
Questions 52

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

Options:

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

Buy Now
Questions 53

Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Session, Transport, Network

B.

Application, Presentation, and Session

C.

Physical, Data Link, Network

D.

Data Link, Session, Transport

Buy Now
Questions 54

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Options:

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

Buy Now
Questions 55

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

Buy Now
Questions 56

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

Buy Now
Questions 57

Which feature is part of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

API-based coverage of apps

B.

Automated security actions

C.

Protection of data at rest

D.

Real-time web filtering

Buy Now
Questions 58

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

Options:

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

Buy Now
Questions 59

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

Buy Now
Questions 60

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

Buy Now
Questions 61

Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

Options:

A.

Data decompression

B.

Registered certificates

C.

Morphing code

D.

Low traffic volumes

Buy Now
Questions 62

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

Buy Now
Questions 63

What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?

Options:

A.

To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices

B.

To ingest alert data from network devices

C.

To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices

D.

To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture

Buy Now
Questions 64

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

Buy Now
Questions 65

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

Buy Now
Questions 66

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

Options:

A.

Serverless

B.

Dockers

C.

Cloud-hosted

D.

Kubernetes

Buy Now
Questions 67

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Buy Now
Questions 68

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

Options:

A.

router ID

B.

enable setting

C.

routing protocol

D.

next hop IP address

Buy Now
Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Jan 30, 2026
Questions: 227

PDF + Testing Engine

$49.5  $164.99

Testing Engine

$37.5  $124.99
buy now Practitioner testing engine

PDF (Q&A)

$31.5  $104.99
buy now Practitioner pdf
dumpsmate guaranteed to pass

24/7 Customer Support

DumpsMate's team of experts is always available to respond your queries on exam preparation. Get professional answers on any topic of the certification syllabus. Our experts will thoroughly satisfy you.

Site Secure

mcafee secure

TESTED 30 Jan 2026