An organization is selecting a service provider to assist in the consolidation of multiple computing sites including development, implementation and ongoing support of various computer systems. Which of the following MUST be verified by the Information Security Department?
The service provider's policies are consistent with ISO/IEC27001 and there is evidence that the service provider is following those policies.
The service provider will segregate the data within its systems and ensure that each region's policies are met.
The service provider will impose controls and protections that meet or exceed the current systems controls and produce audit logs as verification.
The service provider's policies can meet the requirements imposed by the new environment even if they differ from the organization's current policies.
The Information Security Department must verify that the service provider will impose controls and protections that meet or exceed the current systems controls and produce audit logs as verification. This is to ensure that the service provider will maintain or improve the security posture of the organization, and that the organization will be able to monitor and audit the service provider’s performance and compliance. The service provider’s policies may or may not be consistent with ISO/IEC27001, but this is not a mandatory requirement, as long as the service provider can meet the organization’s security needs and expectations. The service provider may or may not segregate the data within its systems, depending on the type and sensitivity of the data, and the contractual and regulatory obligations. The service provider’s policies may differ from the organization’s current policies, as long as they can meet the requirements imposed by the new environment, and are agreed upon by both parties. References: 1: How to Choose a Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP)22: 10 Questions to Ask Your Managed Security Service Provider3
The Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) is implemented in the
system software.
system hardware.
application software.
network hardware.
The Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) is implemented in the system software. The system software is the software that controls and manages the basic operations and functions of the computer system, such as the operating system, the device drivers, the firmware, and the BIOS. The HAL is a component of the system software that provides a common interface between the hardware and the software layers of the system. The HAL abstracts the details and differences of the hardware devices and components, and allows the software to interact with the hardware in a consistent and uniform way. The HAL also enables the system to support multiple hardware platforms and configurations without requiring changes in the software5 . References: 5: What is Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL)? : Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) - GeeksforGeeks
In a basic SYN flood attack, what is the attacker attempting to achieve?
Exceed the threshold limit of the connection queue for a given service
Set the threshold to zero for a given service
Cause the buffer to overflow, allowing root access
Flush the register stack, allowing hijacking of the root account
A SYN flood attack is a type of denial-of-service attack that exploits the TCP three-way handshake process. The attacker sends a large number of SYN packets to the target server, often with spoofed IP addresses, and does not complete the handshake by sending the final ACK packet. This causes the server to allocate resources for half-open connections, which eventually consume all the available ports and prevent legitimate traffic from reaching the server
What technique BEST describes antivirus software that detects viruses by watching anomalous behavior?
Signature
Inference
Induction
Heuristic
Heuristic is the technique that best describes antivirus software that detects viruses by watching anomalous behavior. Heuristic is a method of virus detection that analyzes the behavior and characteristics of the program or file, rather than comparing it to a known signature or pattern. Heuristic can detect unknown or new viruses that have not been identified or cataloged by the antivirus software. However, heuristic can also generate false positives, as some legitimate programs or files may exhibit suspicious or unusual behavior12. References: 1: What is Heuristic Analysis?32: Heuristic Virus Detection4
Which of the following is a potential risk when a program runs in privileged mode?
It may serve to create unnecessary code complexity
It may not enforce job separation duties
It may create unnecessary application hardening
It may allow malicious code to be inserted
A potential risk when a program runs in privileged mode is that it may allow malicious code to be inserted. Privileged mode, also known as kernel mode or supervisor mode, is a mode of operation that grants the program full access and control over the hardware and software resources of the system, such as memory, disk, CPU, and devices. A program that runs in privileged mode can perform any action or instruction without any restriction or protection. This can be exploited by an attacker who can inject malicious code into the program, such as a rootkit, a backdoor, or a keylogger, and gain unauthorized access or control over the system . References: : What is Privileged Mode? : Privilege Escalation - OWASP Cheat Sheet Series
What is an effective practice when returning electronic storage media to third parties for repair?
Ensuring the media is not labeled in any way that indicates the organization's name.
Disassembling the media and removing parts that may contain sensitive datA.
Physically breaking parts of the media that may contain sensitive datA.
Establishing a contract with the third party regarding the secure handling of the mediA.
When returning electronic storage media to third parties for repair, it is important to ensure that the media does not contain any sensitive or confidential data that could be compromised or disclosed. One way to do this is to establish a contract with the third party that specifies the security requirements and obligations for the handling, storage, and disposal of the media. This contract should also include provisions for auditing, reporting, and remediation in case of any security incidents or breaches. The other options are not effective practices, as they either do not protect the data adequately (A), damage the media unnecessarily (B and C), or are not feasible or practical in some cases. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 239; CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, page 43.
Alternate encoding such as hexadecimal representations is MOST often observed in which of the following forms of attack?
Smurf
Rootkit exploit
Denial of Service (DoS)
Cross site scripting (XSS)
Alternate encoding such as hexadecimal representations is most often observed in cross site scripting (XSS) attacks. XSS is a type of web application attack that involves injecting malicious code or scripts into a web page or a web application, usually through user input fields or parameters. The malicious code or script is then executed by the victim’s browser, and can perform various actions, such as stealing cookies, session tokens, or credentials, redirecting to malicious sites, or displaying fake content. Alternate encoding is a technique that is used by attackers to bypass input validation or filtering mechanisms, and to conceal or obfuscate the malicious code or script. Alternate encoding can use hexadecimal, decimal, octal, binary, or Unicode representations of the characters or symbols in the code or script . References: : What is Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)? : XSS Filter Evasion Cheat Sheet
An organization is designing a large enterprise-wide document repository system. They plan to have several different classification level areas with increasing levels of controls. The BEST way to ensure document confidentiality in the repository is to
encrypt the contents of the repository and document any exceptions to that requirement.
utilize Intrusion Detection System (IDS) set drop connections if too many requests for documents are detected.
keep individuals with access to high security areas from saving those documents into lower security areas.
require individuals with access to the system to sign Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA).
The best way to ensure document confidentiality in the repository is to encrypt the contents of the repository and document any exceptions to that requirement. Encryption is the process of transforming the information into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption protects the confidentiality of the information by preventing unauthorized access or disclosure, even if the repository is compromised or breached. Encryption also provides integrity and authenticity of the information by ensuring that it has not been modified or tampered with. Documenting any exceptions to the encryption requirement is also important to justify the reasons and risks for not encrypting certain information, and to apply alternative controls if needed93. References: 9: What Is a Document Repository and What Are the Benefits of Using One103: What is a document repository and why you should have one11
Which of the following actions should be performed when implementing a change to a database schema in a production system?
Test in development, determine dates, notify users, and implement in production
Apply change to production, run in parallel, finalize change in production, and develop a back-out strategy
Perform user acceptance testing in production, have users sign off, and finalize change
Change in development, perform user acceptance testing, develop a back-out strategy, and implement change
The best practice for implementing a change to a database schema in a production system is to follow a change management process that includes the following steps: Change in development, perform user acceptance testing, develop a back-out strategy, and implement change. This ensures that the change is properly tested, approved, documented, and communicated, and that there is a contingency plan in case of failure or unexpected results12. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, page 8232: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 8, page 263.
An external attacker has compromised an organization's network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker's ability to gain further information?
Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
Require strong authentication for administrators
Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
Implement logical network segmentation at the switches
The most effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information is to implement logical network segmentation at the switches. Logical network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, role, or access level. This way, the organization can isolate the traffic and data of different segments, and limit the exposure and impact of an attack. If the attacker has installed a sniffer onto an inside computer, logical network segmentation can prevent the sniffer from capturing the traffic and data of other segments, thus reducing the information leakage. The other options are not as effective as logical network segmentation, as they either do not prevent the sniffer from capturing the traffic and data (A and B), or do not detect or stop the attack ©. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 163; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, page 173.
While impersonating an Information Security Officer (ISO), an attacker obtains information from company employees about their User IDs and passwords. Which method of information gathering has the attacker used?
Trusted path
Malicious logic
Social engineering
Passive misuse
Social engineering is the method of information gathering that the attacker has used while impersonating an ISO and obtaining information from company employees about their User IDs and passwords. Social engineering is a technique of manipulating or deceiving people into revealing confidential or sensitive information, or performing actions that compromise the security of an organization or a system1. Social engineering can exploit the human factors, such as trust, curiosity, fear, or greed, to influence the behavior or judgment of the target. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing, baiting, pretexting, or impersonation. Trusted path, malicious logic, and passive misuse are not methods of information gathering that the attacker has used, as they are related to different aspects of security or attack. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, page 19.
Which of the following is a security limitation of File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?
Passive FTP is not compatible with web browsers.
Anonymous access is allowed.
FTP uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 20 and 21.
Authentication is not encrypted.
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a protocol that enables the transfer of files between a client and a server over a network. FTP has a security limitation in that it does not encrypt the authentication process, meaning that the username and password are sent in clear text over the network. This exposes the credentials to interception and eavesdropping by unauthorized parties, who could then access the files or compromise the system . References: : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 533. : CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 155.
Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?
Network availability
Data integrity
Network bandwidth
Node locations
Network bandwidth is the least important consideration when considering transmission security, as it is more related to the performance or efficiency of the network, rather than the security or protection of the data. Network bandwidth is the amount of data that can be transmitted or received over a network in a given time period, and it can affect the speed or quality of the communication1. However, network bandwidth does not directly impact the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data, which are the main goals of transmission security. Network availability, data integrity, and node locations are more important considerations when considering transmission security, as they can affect the ability to access, verify, or protect the data from unauthorized or malicious parties. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 402.
The BEST method of demonstrating a company's security level to potential customers is
a report from an external auditor.
responding to a customer's security questionnaire.
a formal report from an internal auditor.
a site visit by a customer's security team.
The best method of demonstrating a company’s security level to potential customers is a report from an external auditor, who is an independent and qualified third party that evaluates the company’s security policies, procedures, controls, and practices against a set of standards or criteria, such as ISO 27001, NIST, or COBIT. A report from an external auditor provides an objective and credible assessment of the company’s security posture, and may also include recommendations for improvement or certification . References: : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, page 47. : CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 29.
Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring?
Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS)
WebSockets
Document Object Model (DOM) trees
Web Interface Definition Language (IDL)
WebSockets is an HTML5 option that presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring, as it enables a bidirectional, full-duplex communication channel between a web browser and a server2. WebSockets can bypass the traditional HTTP request-response model and establish a persistent connection that can exchange data in real time. This can pose a risk of data leakage, as the data transmitted over WebSockets may not be inspected or filtered by the network security devices, such as firewalls, proxies, or data loss prevention systems3. Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS), Document Object Model (DOM) trees, and Web Interface Definition Language (IDL) are not HTML5 options that present a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring, as they are not related to the communication channel between the web browser and the server. References: 2: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 973: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 4, page 211.
The birthday attack is MOST effective against which one of the following cipher technologies?
Chaining block encryption
Asymmetric cryptography
Cryptographic hash
Streaming cryptography
The birthday attack is most effective against cryptographic hash, which is one of the cipher technologies. A cryptographic hash is a function that takes an input of any size and produces an output of a fixed size, called a hash or a digest, that represents the input. A cryptographic hash has several properties, such as being one-way, collision-resistant, and deterministic3. A birthday attack is a type of brute-force attack that exploits the mathematical phenomenon known as the birthday paradox, which states that in a set of randomly chosen elements, there is a high probability that some pair of elements will have the same value. A birthday attack can be used to find collisions in a cryptographic hash, which means finding two different inputs that produce the same hash. Finding collisions can compromise the integrity or the security of the hash, as it can allow an attacker to forge or modify the input without changing the hash. Chaining block encryption, asymmetric cryptography, and streaming cryptography are not as vulnerable to the birthday attack, as they are different types of encryption algorithms that use keys and ciphers to transform the input into an output. References: 3: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 3, page 133. : CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, page 143.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when storing and processing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?
Encrypt and hash all PII to avoid disclosure and tampering.
Store PII for no more than one year.
Avoid storing PII in a Cloud Service Provider.
Adherence to collection limitation laws and regulations.
The most important consideration when storing and processing PII is to adhere to the collection limitation laws and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction and context of the data processing. Collection limitation is a principle that states that PII should be collected only for a specific, legitimate, and lawful purpose, and only to the extent that is necessary for that purpose1. By following this principle, the data processor can minimize the amount of PII that is stored and processed, and reduce the risk of data breaches, misuse, or unauthorized access. Encrypting and hashing all PII, storing PII for no more than one year, and avoiding storing PII in a cloud service provider are also good practices for protecting PII, but they are not as important as adhering to the collection limitation laws and regulations. References: 1: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 290.
When constructing an Information Protection Policy (IPP), it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and
flexible.
confidential.
focused.
achievable.
An Information Protection Policy (IPP) is a document that defines the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and rules for protecting the information assets of an organization. An IPP should be aligned with the business goals and legal requirements, and should be communicated and enforced throughout the organization. When constructing an IPP, it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and achievable, meaning that they are relevant, sufficient, and realistic for the organization’s context and capabilities34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, page 234: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 15.
When transmitting information over public networks, the decision to encrypt it should be based on
the estimated monetary value of the information.
whether there are transient nodes relaying the transmission.
the level of confidentiality of the information.
the volume of the information.
The level of confidentiality of the information is the most important factor to consider when deciding whether to encrypt it or not when transmitting it over public networks. Confidentiality is the property of preventing unauthorized disclosure of information, and encryption is a technique of transforming information into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted by authorized parties2. Public networks, such as the internet, are inherently insecure and vulnerable to interception, eavesdropping, or modification of the transmitted data. Therefore, encryption is necessary to protect the confidentiality of sensitive or classified information that may have legal, financial, or personal implications if disclosed. The estimated monetary value, the presence of transient nodes, and the volume of the information are not as relevant as the level of confidentiality, as they do not directly reflect the impact or risk of data exposure. References: 2: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, page 63.
Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?
The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured
A penetration test of the network will fail
The network is compliant to industry standards
All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified
A network security assessment is a process of evaluating the security posture of a network by identifying and analyzing vulnerabilities, threats, and risks. The results of the assessment can help measure how well the network controls are performing and where they need improvement.
B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not the main objectives or outcomes of a network security assessment. A penetration test is a type of security assessment that simulates an attack on the network, but it does not guarantee that the network will fail or succeed. The network may or may not be compliant to industry standards depending on the criteria and scope of the assessment. Not all unpatched vulnerabilities may be identified by the assessment, as some may be unknown or undetectable by the tools or methods used.
Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?
Derived credential
Temporary security credential
Mobile device credentialing service
Digest authentication
Derived credential is the best description of an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices. A smart card is a device that contains a microchip that stores a private key and a digital certificate that are used for authentication and encryption. A smart card is typically inserted into a reader that is attached to a computer or a terminal, and the user enters a personal identification number (PIN) to unlock the smart card and access the private key and the certificate. A smart card can provide a high level of security and convenience for the user, as it implements a two-factor authentication method that combines something the user has (the smart card) and something the user knows (the PIN).
However, a smart card may not be compatible or convenient for mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, that do not have a smart card reader or a USB port. To address this issue, a derived credential is a solution that allows the user to use a mobile device as an alternative to a smart card for authentication and encryption. A derived credential is a cryptographic key and a certificate that are derived from the smart card private key and certificate, and that are stored on the mobile device. A derived credential works as follows:
A derived credential can provide a secure and convenient way to use a mobile device as an alternative to a smart card for authentication and encryption, as it implements a two-factor authentication method that combines something the user has (the mobile device) and something the user is (the biometric feature). A derived credential can also comply with the standards and policies for the use of smart cards, such as the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) or the Common Access Card (CAC) programs.
The other options are not the best descriptions of an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices, but rather descriptions of other methods or concepts. Temporary security credential is a method that involves issuing a short-lived credential, such as a token or a password, that can be used for a limited time or a specific purpose. Temporary security credential can provide a flexible and dynamic way to grant access to the users or entities, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key. Mobile device credentialing service is a concept that involves providing a service that can issue, manage, or revoke credentials for mobile devices, such as certificates, tokens, or passwords. Mobile device credentialing service can provide a centralized and standardized way to control the access of mobile devices, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key. Digest authentication is a method that involves using a hash function, such as MD5, to generate a digest or a fingerprint of the user’s credentials, such as the username and password, and sending it to the server for verification. Digest authentication can provide a more secure way to authenticate the user than the basic authentication, which sends the credentials in plain text, but it does not involve deriving a cryptographic key from a smart card private key.
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?
Assigned security label
Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
Minimum query size
Passage of time
The passage of time is one of the factors that affects the classification of data. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not static, but dynamic, meaning that it can change over time depending on various factors. One of these factors is the passage of time, which can affect the relevance, usefulness, or sensitivity of the data. For example, data that is classified as confidential or secret at one point in time may become obsolete, outdated, or declassified at a later point in time, and thus require a lower level of protection. Conversely, data that is classified as public or unclassified at one point in time may become more valuable, sensitive, or regulated at a later point in time, and thus require a higher level of protection. Therefore, data classification should be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect the changes in the data over time.
The other options are not factors that affect the classification of data, but rather the outcomes or components of data classification. Assigned security label is the result of data classification, which indicates the level of sensitivity or criticality of the data. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture is a system that supports data classification, which allows different levels of access to data based on the clearance and need-to-know of the users. Minimum query size is a parameter that can be used to enforce data classification, which limits the amount of data that can be retrieved or displayed at a time.
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?
Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization
The best description of the responsibilities of a data owner is determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization. A data owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. A data owner is also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. A data owner should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data.
The other options are not the best descriptions of the responsibilities of a data owner, but rather the responsibilities of other roles or functions related to data management. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity is a responsibility of a data steward, who is a person or entity that oversees the quality, consistency, and usability of the data. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving is a responsibility of a data custodian, who is a person or entity that implements and maintains the technical and physical security of the data. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security is a responsibility of a data controller, who is a person or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing the data.
What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?
Audit logs
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Two-factor authentication
Application of least privilege
Applying the principle of least privilege is the best approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance. The principle of least privilege is a security concept that states that every user or process should have the minimum amount of access rights and permissions that are necessary to perform their tasks or functions, and nothing more. The principle of least privilege can provide several benefits, such as:
Applying the principle of least privilege is the best approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance, because it can ensure that the employees can only access the information that is relevant and necessary for their tasks or functions, and that they cannot access or manipulate the information that is beyond their scope or authority. For example, if the highly sensitive information is related to a specific project or department, then only the employees who are involved in that project or department should have access to that information, and not the employees who have the same level of security clearance but are not involved in that project or department.
The other options are not the best approaches for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance, but rather approaches that have other purposes or effects. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the sensitive data. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents. However, audit logs cannot prevent or reduce the access or disclosure of the sensitive information, but rather provide evidence or clues after the fact. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is a method that enforces the access rights and permissions of the users based on their roles or functions within the organization, rather than their identities or attributes. RBAC can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, RBAC cannot control the access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance and the same role or function within the organization, but rather rely on other criteria or mechanisms. Two-factor authentication is a technique that verifies the identity of the users by requiring them to provide two pieces of evidence or factors, such as something they know (e.g., password, PIN), something they have (e.g., token, smart card), or something they are (e.g., fingerprint, face). Two-factor authentication can provide a strong and preventive layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to the system or network by the users who do not have both factors. However, two-factor authentication cannot control the access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance and the same two factors, but rather rely on other criteria or mechanisms.
A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?
Trusted third-party certification
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)
Cross-certification
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the best solution for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. FIM is a process that allows the sharing and recognition of identities across different organizations that have a trust relationship. FIM enables the users of one organization to access the resources or services of another organization without having to create or maintain multiple accounts or credentials. FIM can provide several benefits, such as:
SAML is a standard protocol that supports FIM by allowing the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties. SAML uses XML-based messages, called assertions, to convey the identity, attributes, and entitlements of a user to a service provider. SAML defines three roles for the parties involved in FIM:
SAML works as follows:
SAML is the best solution for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a FIM system with its 20 different supplier companies, because it can enable the seamless and secure access to the resources or services across the different organizations, without requiring the users to create or maintain multiple accounts or credentials. SAML can also provide interoperability and compatibility between different platforms and technologies, as it is based on a standard and open protocol.
The other options are not the best solutions for the manufacturing organization that wants to establish a FIM system with its 20 different supplier companies, but rather solutions that have other limitations or drawbacks. Trusted third-party certification is a process that involves a third party, such as a certificate authority (CA), that issues and verifies digital certificates that contain the public key and identity information of a user or an entity. Trusted third-party certification can provide authentication and encryption for the communication between different parties, but it does not provide authorization or entitlement information for the access to the resources or services. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol that allows the access and management of directory services, such as Active Directory, that store the identity and attribute information of users and entities. LDAP can provide a centralized and standardized way to store and retrieve identity and attribute information, but it does not provide a mechanism to exchange or federate the information across different organizations. Cross-certification is a process that involves two or more CAs that establish a trust relationship and recognize each other’s certificates. Cross-certification can extend the trust and validity of the certificates across different domains or organizations, but it does not provide a mechanism to exchange or federate the identity, attribute, or entitlement information.
Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?
Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations
Understand the value of the information assets
Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management
Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements
When developing an information security management system (ISMS), an initial consideration is to understand the value of the information assets that the organization owns or processes. An information asset is any data, information, or knowledge that has value to the organization and supports its mission, objectives, and operations. Understanding the value of the information assets helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and investment for them, as well as the potential impact and consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing them. Understanding the value of the information assets also helps to identify the stakeholders, owners, and custodians of the information assets, and their roles and responsibilities in the ISMS.
The other options are not initial considerations, but rather subsequent or concurrent considerations when developing an ISMS. Identifying the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations is a consideration that depends on the nature, scope, and context of the information assets, as well as the relationships and agreements with the external parties. Identifying the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management is a consideration that depends on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, as well as the risk assessment and analysis of the information assets. Identifying relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements is a consideration that depends on the legal and ethical obligations and expectations of the organization, as well as the jurisdiction and industry of the information assets.
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the
system security managers
business managers
Information Technology (IT) managers
end users
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the business managers. Business managers are the persons or entities that have the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. Business managers are also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. Business managers should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data.
The other options are not the data owners in a data classification scheme, but rather the other roles or functions related to data management. System security managers are the persons or entities that oversee the security of the information systems and networks that store, process, and transmit the data. They are responsible for implementing and maintaining the technical and physical security of the data, as well as monitoring and auditing the security performance and incidents. Information Technology (IT) managers are the persons or entities that manage the IT resources and services that support the business processes and functions that use the data. They are responsible for ensuring the availability, reliability, and scalability of the IT infrastructure and applications, as well as providing technical support and guidance to the users and stakeholders. End users are the persons or entities that access and use the data for their legitimate purposes and needs. They are responsible for complying with the security policies and procedures for the data, as well as reporting any security issues or violations.
Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?
Limit access to predefined queries
Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level
Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes
Limiting access to predefined queries is the control that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. A query is a request for information from a database, which can be expressed in a structured query language (SQL) or a graphical user interface (GUI). A query can specify the criteria, conditions, and operations for selecting, filtering, sorting, grouping, and aggregating the data from the database. A predefined query is a query that has been created and stored in advance by the database administrator or the data owner, and that can be executed by the authorized users without any modification. A predefined query can provide several benefits, such as:
Limiting access to predefined queries is the control that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees, because it can ensure that the users can only access the data that is relevant and necessary for their tasks, and that they cannot access or manipulate the data that is beyond their scope or authority. For example, a predefined query can be created and stored that calculates and displays the average salary of groups of employees based on certain criteria, such as department, position, or experience. The users who need to view this information can execute this predefined query, but they cannot modify it or create their own queries that might reveal the individual employee’s salary or other sensitive data.
The other options are not the controls that would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they only require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees, but rather controls that have other purposes or effects. Segregating the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level is a control that would improve the performance and security of the database by dividing it into smaller and manageable segments that can be accessed and processed independently and concurrently. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they have access to the partition that contains the salary data, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Implementing Role Based Access Control (RBAC) is a control that would enforce the access rights and permissions of the users based on their roles or functions within the organization, rather than their identities or attributes. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if their roles or functions require them to access the salary data, and if they can create or modify their own queries. Reducing the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes is a control that would reduce the risk and impact of unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive data by minimizing the exposure and distribution of the data. However, this control would not prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary, if they are among the people who have access to the system, and if they can create or modify their own queries.
Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?
Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication
Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection
Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response
Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of RFID based access cards. RFID based access cards are contactless cards that use radio frequency identification (RFID) technology to communicate with a reader and grant access to a physical or logical resource. RFID based access cards are vulnerable to electronic cloning, which is the process of copying the data and identity of a legitimate card to a counterfeit card, and using it to impersonate the original cardholder and gain unauthorized access. Asymmetric CAK challenge-response is a cryptographic technique that prevents electronic cloning by using public key cryptography and digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the card and the reader. Asymmetric CAK challenge-response works as follows:
Asymmetric CAK challenge-response prevents electronic cloning because the private keys of the card and the reader are never transmitted or exposed, and the signatures are unique and non-reusable for each transaction. Therefore, a cloned card cannot produce a valid signature without knowing the private key of the original card, and a rogue reader cannot impersonate a legitimate reader without knowing its private key.
The other options are not as effective as asymmetric CAK challenge-response in preventing electronic cloning of RFID based access cards. Personal Identity Verification (PIV) is a standard for federal employees and contractors to use smart cards for physical and logical access, but it does not specify the cryptographic technique for RFID based access cards. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication is a technique that uses a unique number and a digital certificate to identify the card and the cardholder, but it does not prevent replay attacks or verify the reader’s identity. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection is a technique that monitors and alerts on multiple failed or suspicious attempts to access a resource, but it does not prevent the cloning of the card or the impersonation of the reader.
When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?
The process will require too many resources
It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software
It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data
The process will be perceived as having value
When implementing a data classification program, it is important to avoid too much granularity, because the process will require too many resources. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not a simple or straightforward process, as it involves many factors, such as the nature, context, and scope of the data, the stakeholders, the regulations, and the standards. If the data classification program has too many levels or categories of data, it will increase the complexity, cost, and time of the process, and reduce the efficiency and effectiveness of the data protection. Therefore, data classification should be done with a balance between granularity and simplicity, and follow the principle of proportionality, which means that the level of protection should be proportional to the level of risk.
The other options are not the main reasons to avoid too much granularity in data classification, but rather the potential challenges or benefits of data classification. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software is a challenge of data classification, as it requires consistent and compatible methods and tools for labeling and protecting data across different types of media and devices. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data is a challenge of data classification, as it requires clear and accountable roles and responsibilities for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of data. The process will be perceived as having value is a benefit of data classification, as it demonstrates the commitment and awareness of the organization to protect its data assets and comply with its obligations.
An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.
Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Identity as a Service (IDaaS) is the best contract in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff. IDaaS is a cloud-based service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as user authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, password management, single sign-on (SSO), and multifactor authentication (MFA). IDaaS can help the organization to streamline and automate the account management process, reduce the workload and costs of the IT staff, and improve the security and compliance of the user accounts. IDaaS can also support the contractors who have limited onsite time, as they can access the organization’s resources remotely and securely through the IDaaS provider.
The other options are not as effective as IDaaS in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff, as they do not provide IAM functions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, but it does not manage the user accounts for the applications. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides virtual desktops for users to access applications and data, but it does not manage the user accounts for the virtual desktops. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides software applications for users to use, but it does not manage the user accounts for the software applications.
Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?
The department should report to the business owner
Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
Individual accountability should be ensured
All members should be trained on their responsibilities
When assigning ownership of an asset to a department, the most important factor is to ensure individual accountability for the asset. Individual accountability means that each person who has access to or uses the asset is responsible for its protection and proper handling. Individual accountability also implies that each person who causes or contributes to a security breach or incident involving the asset can be identified and held liable. Individual accountability can be achieved by implementing security controls such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and logging.
The other options are not as important as ensuring individual accountability, as they do not directly address the security risks associated with the asset. The department should report to the business owner is a management issue, not a security issue. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed is a good practice, but it does not prevent misuse or abuse of the asset. All members should be trained on their responsibilities is a preventive measure, but it does not guarantee compliance or enforcement of the responsibilities.
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
WS-Trust
WS-Trust is a Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification that negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated. WS-Trust defines a framework for establishing trust relationships between different parties, and a protocol for requesting and issuing security tokens that can be used to authenticate and authorize the parties. WS-Trust also supports different types of security tokens, such as Kerberos tickets, X.509 certificates, SAML assertions, etc56 References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6: Communication and Network Security, p. 346; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 4: Communication and Network Security, p. 465.
Which of the following is the MOST difficult to enforce when using cloud computing?
Data access
Data backup
Data recovery
Data disposal
The most difficult thing to enforce when using cloud computing is data disposal. Data disposal is the process of permanently deleting or destroying the data that is no longer needed or authorized, in a secure and compliant manner. Data disposal is challenging when using cloud computing, because the data may be stored or replicated in multiple locations, devices, or servers, and the cloud provider may not have the same policies, procedures, or standards as the cloud customer. Data disposal may also be affected by the legal or regulatory requirements of different jurisdictions, or the contractual obligations of the cloud service agreement. Data access, data backup, and data recovery are not the most difficult things to enforce when using cloud computing, as they can be achieved by using encryption, authentication, authorization, replication, or restoration techniques, and by specifying the service level agreements and the roles and responsibilities of the cloud provider and the cloud customer. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 337. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 353.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
Which of the following is considered the MOST important priority for the information security officer?
Formal acceptance of the security strategy
Disciplinary actions taken against unethical behavior
Development of an awareness program for new employees
Audit of all organization system configurations for faults
The most important priority for the information security officer is to obtain the formal acceptance of the security strategy. The security strategy is a document that defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the security program, and that aligns the security activities and initiatives with the business needs and requirements. The formal acceptance of the security strategy means that the security strategy is approved and supported by the senior management and the key stakeholders of the organization, and that it is communicated and understood by the employees and the users. The formal acceptance of the security strategy can help to ensure the success and the effectiveness of the security program, as it can provide the authority, the resources, the guidance, and the accountability for the security officer and the security department. Disciplinary actions taken against unethical behavior, development of an awareness program for new employees, and audit of all organization system configurations for faults are not the most important priorities for the information security officer, as they are related to the enforcement, the education, or the evaluation of the security policies and procedures, not the definition or the approval of the security strategy. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 32. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 47.
Which of the following is the MOST beneficial to review when performing an IT audit?
Audit policy
Security log
Security policies
Configuration settings
The most beneficial item to review when performing an IT audit is the security log. The security log is a record of the events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as logins, logouts, file accesses, policy changes, or security incidents. The security log can provide valuable information for the auditor to assess the security posture, performance, and compliance of the system or network, and to identify any anomalies, vulnerabilities, or breaches that need to be addressed. The other options are not as beneficial as the security log, as they either do not provide enough information for the audit (A and C), or do not reflect the actual state of the system or network (D). References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 405; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, page 465.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if a particular system is able to identify malicious software without executing it?
Testing with a Botnet
Testing with an EICAR file
Executing a binary shellcode
Run multiple antivirus programs
The best way to determine if a particular system is able to identify malicious software without executing it is to test it with an EICAR file. An EICAR file is a standard file that is used to test the functionality and performance of antivirus software, without using any real malware. An EICAR file is a harmless text file that contains a specific string of characters that is recognized by most antivirus software as a virus signature. An EICAR file can be used to check if the antivirus software is installed, configured, updated, and working properly, without risking any damage or infection to the system. Testing with a botnet, executing a binary shellcode, and running multiple antivirus programs are not the best ways to determine if a particular system is able to identify malicious software without executing it, as they may involve using or creating actual malware, which can be dangerous, illegal, or unethical, and may compromise the security or performance of the system. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6, Security Assessment and Testing, page 813. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 6, Security Assessment and Testing, page 829.
When is security personnel involvement in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process MOST beneficial?
Testing phase
Development phase
Requirements definition phase
Operations and maintenance phase
The most beneficial phase for security personnel involvement in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is the requirements definition phase. This is the phase where the security personnel can identify and analyze the security needs, objectives, and constraints of the system, and define the security requirements and specifications that the system must meet. By involving security personnel in this phase, the organization can ensure that security is integrated into the system design from the beginning, and avoid costly or complex changes or fixes later in the SDLC process. The other options are not as beneficial as the requirements definition phase, as they either involve security personnel too late in the SDLC process (A, B, and D), or do not address the security needs and objectives of the system (D). References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, page 459; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, page 551.
From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?
Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.
Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.
Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.
Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.
From a security perspective, the best practice to configure a DNS system is to limit zone transfers to authorized devices. Zone transfers are the processes of replicating the DNS data from one server to another, usually from a primary server to a secondary server. Zone transfers can expose sensitive information about the network topology, hosts, and services to attackers, who can use this information to launch further attacks. Therefore, zone transfers should be restricted to only the devices that need them, and authenticated and encrypted to prevent unauthorized access or modification. The other options are not as good as limiting zone transfers, as they either do not provide sufficient security for the DNS system (A and B), or do not address the zone transfer issue ©. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 156; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, page 166.
Which of the following violates identity and access management best practices?
User accounts
System accounts
Generic accounts
Privileged accounts
The type of accounts that violates identity and access management best practices is generic accounts. Generic accounts are accounts that are shared by multiple users or devices, and do not have a specific or unique identity associated with them. Generic accounts are often used for convenience, compatibility, or legacy reasons, but they pose a serious security risk, as they can compromise the accountability, traceability, and auditability of the actions and activities performed by the users or devices. Generic accounts can also enable unauthorized or malicious access, as they may have weak or default passwords, or may not have proper access control or monitoring mechanisms. User accounts, system accounts, and privileged accounts are not the types of accounts that violate identity and access management best practices, as they are accounts that have a specific or unique identity associated with them, and can be subject to proper authentication, authorization, and auditing measures. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 660. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 676.
According to best practice, which of the following is required when implementing third party software in a production environment?
Scan the application for vulnerabilities
Contract the vendor for patching
Negotiate end user application training
Escrow a copy of the software
According to best practice, one of the requirements when implementing third party software in a production environment is to scan the application for vulnerabilities. Vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the software that can be exploited by attackers to compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the system or network. Scanning the application for vulnerabilities can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks, ensure the compliance with the security policies and standards, and prevent the introduction of malicious code or backdoors. Contracting the vendor for patching, negotiating end user application training, and escrowing a copy of the software are all possible requirements when implementing third party software in a production environment, but they are not the most essential or best practice requirement of doing so. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, Software Development Security, page 1018. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, Software Development Security, page 1040.
What is the MAIN feature that onion routing networks offer?
Non-repudiation
Traceability
Anonymity
Resilience
The main feature that onion routing networks offer is anonymity. Anonymity is the state of being unknown or unidentifiable by hiding or masking the identity or the location of the sender or the receiver of a communication. Onion routing is a technique that enables anonymous communication over a network, such as the internet, by encrypting and routing the messages through multiple layers of intermediate nodes, called onion routers. Onion routing can protect the privacy and security of the users or the data, and can prevent censorship, surveillance, or tracking by third parties. Non-repudiation, traceability, and resilience are not the main features that onion routing networks offer, as they are related to the proof, tracking, or recovery of the communication, not the anonymity of the communication. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 467. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 483.
What is the MOST important reason to configure unique user IDs?
Supporting accountability
Reducing authentication errors
Preventing password compromise
Supporting Single Sign On (SSO)
Unique user IDs are essential for supporting accountability, which is the ability to trace actions or events to their source. Accountability is a key principle of security and helps to deter, detect, and correct unauthorized or malicious activities. Without unique user IDs, it would be difficult or impossible to identify who performed what action on a system or network. Reducing authentication errors, preventing password compromise, and supporting Single Sign On (SSO) are all possible benefits of using unique user IDs, but they are not the most important reason for configuring them. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 25. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 38.
A security manager has noticed an inconsistent application of server security controls resulting in vulnerabilities on critical systems. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A lack of baseline standards
Improper documentation of security guidelines
A poorly designed security policy communication program
Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) policies are ineffective
The most likely cause of the inconsistent application of server security controls resulting in vulnerabilities on critical systems is a lack of baseline standards. Baseline standards are the minimum level of security controls and measures that must be applied to the servers or other assets to ensure their protection and compliance. Baseline standards help to establish a consistent and uniform security posture across the organization, and to prevent or reduce the exposure to threats and risks. If there is a lack of baseline standards, the server security controls may vary in quality, effectiveness, or completeness, resulting in vulnerabilities on critical systems. Improper documentation of security guidelines, a poorly designed security policy communication program, and ineffective Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) policies are not the most likely causes of this issue, as they do not directly affect the application of server security controls or the existence of baseline standards. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 35. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 48.
Which of the following MOST influences the design of the organization's electronic monitoring policies?
Workplace privacy laws
Level of organizational trust
Results of background checks
Business ethical considerations
The factor that most influences the design of the organization’s electronic monitoring policies is workplace privacy laws. Workplace privacy laws are the laws that regulate the extent and manner of the employer’s monitoring or surveillance of the employee’s activities, communications, or behavior in the workplace, such as email, phone, internet, or video monitoring. Workplace privacy laws vary by country, state, or region, and may impose different requirements or restrictions on the employer’s electronic monitoring policies, such as the purpose, scope, consent, disclosure, or protection of the monitoring data. The employer must comply with the applicable workplace privacy laws when designing and implementing the electronic monitoring policies, to avoid violating the employee’s privacy rights or facing legal consequences. Level of organizational trust, results of background checks, and business ethical considerations are not the factors that most influence the design of the organization’s electronic monitoring policies, as they are related to the culture, security, or values of the organization, not the legal or regulatory framework of the electronic monitoring. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 50. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 65.
Which of the following assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture?
Policy database
Digital signature
Policy decision point
Policy enforcement point
The component that assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture is the policy enforcement point. A policy enforcement point is a device or software that implements and enforces the security policies and rules defined by the policy decision point. A policy decision point is a device or software that evaluates and makes decisions about the access requests and privileges of the users or devices based on the security policies and rules. A policy enforcement point can be a firewall, a router, a switch, a proxy, or an application that controls the access to the network or system resources. A policy database, a digital signature, and a policy decision point are not the components that assure that rules are followed in an identity management architecture, as they are related to the storage, verification, or definition of the security policies and rules, not the implementation or enforcement of them. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 664. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 680.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to provide redundancy for telecommunications links?
Provide multiple links from the same telecommunications vendor.
Ensure that the telecommunications links connect to the network in one location.
Ensure that the telecommunications links connect to the network in multiple locations.
Provide multiple links from multiple telecommunications vendors.
The best solution to provide redundancy for telecommunications links is to provide multiple links from multiple telecommunications vendors. Redundancy is the ability to maintain the availability and functionality of a system or network in the event of a failure or disruption. By providing multiple links from multiple telecommunications vendors, the organization can ensure that there is always an alternative path for data transmission, and that the failure or outage of one vendor does not affect the entire network. Providing multiple links from the same telecommunications vendor, ensuring that the telecommunications links connect to the network in one location, and ensuring that the telecommunications links connect to the network in multiple locations are not the best solutions to provide redundancy for telecommunications links, as they do not offer the same level of diversity, resilience, and fault tolerance as providing multiple links from multiple telecommunications vendors. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 504. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 520.
The amount of data that will be collected during an audit is PRIMARILY determined by the.
audit scope.
auditor's experience level.
availability of the data.
integrity of the data.
The amount of data that will be collected during an audit is primarily determined by the audit scope. The audit scope is the extent and boundaries of the audit, such as the subject matter, the time period, the locations, the departments, the functions, the systems, or the processes to be audited. The audit scope defines what will be included or excluded from the audit, and it helps to ensure that the audit objectives are met and the audit resources are used efficiently and effectively. The auditor’s experience level, the availability of the data, and the integrity of the data are not the primary factors that determine the amount of data that will be collected during an audit, as they depend on the audit scope to be defined first. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 54. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 69.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern associated with the implementation of smart cards?
The cards have limited memory
Vendor application compatibility
The cards can be misplaced
Mobile code can be embedded in the card
The primary security concern associated with the implementation of smart cards is that the cards can be misplaced, lost, stolen, or damaged, resulting in the compromise of the user’s identity, credentials, or data stored on the card. The other options are not the primary security concern, but rather secondary or minor issues. The cards have limited memory, which may affect the performance or functionality of the card, but not the security. Vendor application compatibility may affect the interoperability or usability of the card, but not the security. Mobile code can be embedded in the card, which may introduce malicious or unauthorized functionality, but this is a rare and sophisticated attack that requires physical access to the card and specialized equipment. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 275; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 6, p. 348.
When writing security assessment procedures, what is the MAIN purpose of the test outputs and reports?
To force the software to fail and document the process
To find areas of compromise in confidentiality and integrity
To allow for objective pass or fail decisions
To identify malware or hidden code within the test results
According to the CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests3, the main purpose of the test outputs and reports when writing security assessment procedures is to find areas of compromise in confidentiality and integrity. Security assessment is the process of evaluating the security posture and effectiveness of a system, network, or application, by identifying and measuring the vulnerabilities, threats, and risks that may affect its security objectives. Security assessment procedures are the steps and methods that define how the security assessment will be conducted, such as the scope, the tools, the techniques, the criteria, and the deliverables. The test outputs and reports are the results and documentation of the security assessment, which provide the evidence and analysis of the security issues and findings. The main purpose of the test outputs and reports is to find areas of compromise in confidentiality and integrity, which are two of the core security principles that aim to protect the data and the system from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or destruction. The test outputs and reports may also help to find areas of compromise in availability, accountability, authenticity, or non-repudiation, which are other security principles that may be relevant for the system under assessment. The test outputs and reports are not meant to force the software to fail and document the process, although this may be a side effect of some security testing techniques, such as penetration testing or fuzz testing. The test outputs and reports are not meant to allow for objective pass or fail decisions, although they may provide some recommendations or suggestions for improving the security posture and mitigating the risks. The test outputs and reports are not meant to identify malware or hidden code within the test results, although they may detect some signs or indicators of malicious or unauthorized activities or components.
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for using configuration management?
To provide centralized administration
To reduce the number of changes
To reduce errors during upgrades
To provide consistency in security controls
4 the main reason for using configuration management is to provide consistency in security controls. Configuration management is the process of identifying, documenting, controlling, and verifying the characteristics and settings of the hardware, software, data, and network components of a system. Configuration management helps to ensure that the system is configured and maintained according to the security policies, standards, and baselines, and that any changes to the system are authorized, recorded, and tracked. Configuration management also helps to prevent or detect unauthorized or unintended changes to the system, which may introduce vulnerabilities, errors, or inconsistencies. Configuration management does not necessarily provide centralized administration, although it may involve some centralized tools or processes to facilitate the configuration management activities. Configuration management does not aim to reduce the number of changes, although it may help to prioritize, schedule, and coordinate the changes to minimize the impact and disruption to the system. Configuration management does not aim to reduce errors during upgrades, although it may help to test, validate, and verify the upgrades before implementing them on the system.
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
WS-Authorization
Which of the following activities BEST identifies operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks?
Policy documentation review
Authentication validation
Periodic log reviews
Interface testing
The activity that best identifies operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks is periodic log reviews. Log reviews are the process of examining and analyzing the records of events or activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, security alerts, or network traffic. Periodic log reviews can help to identify operational problems, such as system failures, performance issues, or configuration errors, by detecting anomalies, trends, or patterns in the log data. Periodic log reviews can also help to identify security misconfigurations, such as weak passwords, open ports, or missing patches, by comparing the log data with the security policies, standards, or baselines. Periodic log reviews can also help to identify malicious attacks, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, or denial of service, by recognizing signs of intrusion, compromise, or exploitation in the log data. The other options are not the best activities to identify operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks, but rather different types of activities. Policy documentation review is the process of examining and evaluating the documents that define the rules and guidelines for the system or network security, such as policies, procedures, or standards. Policy documentation review can help to ensure the completeness, consistency, and compliance of the security documents, but not to identify the actual problems or attacks. Authentication validation is the process of verifying and confirming the identity and credentials of a user or device that requests access to a system or network, such as passwords, tokens, or certificates. Authentication validation can help to prevent unauthorized access, but not to identify the existing problems or attacks. Interface testing is the process of checking and evaluating the functionality, usability, and reliability of the interfaces between different components or systems, such as modules, applications, or networks. Interface testing can help to ensure the compatibility, interoperability, and integration of the interfaces, but not to identify the problems or attacks. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, p. 377; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, p. 405.
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is based on which of the following?
Information source and destination
Identification of subjects and objects
Security labels and privileges
Standards and guidelines
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is based on the identification of subjects and objects. DAC is a type of access control model that grants or denies access to the objects based on the identity or attributes of the subjects, as well as the permissions or rules defined by the owners of the objects. Subjects are the entities that request or initiate the access, such as users, processes, or programs. Objects are the entities that are accessed, such as files, folders, databases, or devices. In DAC, the owners of the objects have the discretion or authority to determine who can access their objects and what actions they can perform on them. DAC can provide flexibility and convenience for the subjects and the owners, but it can also introduce security risks, such as unauthorized access, privilege escalation, or information leakage.References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management, p. 254; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 5: Identity and Access Management, p. 633.
Which of the following roles has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization?
Data Custodian
Data Owner
Data Creator
Data User
The role that has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization is the data owner. A data owner is a person or an entity that has the authority or the responsibility for the data or the information within an organization, and that determines or defines the classification, the usage, the protection, or the retention of the data or the information. A data owner has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization, as the data owner is ultimately accountable or liable for the security or the quality of the data or the information, regardless of who processes or handles the data or the information. A data owner can ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization, by performing the tasks or the functions such as conducting due diligence, establishing service level agreements, defining security requirements, monitoring performance, or auditing compliance. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 2, page 61; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2, page 67
After a thorough analysis, it was discovered that a perpetrator compromised a network by gaining access to the network through a Secure Socket Layer (SSL) Virtual Private Network (VPN) gateway. The perpetrator guessed a username and brute forced the password to gain access. Which of the following BEST mitigates this issue?
Implement strong passwords authentication for VPN
Integrate the VPN with centralized credential stores
Implement an Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) client
Use two-factor authentication mechanisms
The best way to mitigate the issue of a perpetrator compromising a network by gaining access to the network through an SSL VPN gateway by guessing a username and brute forcing the password is to use two-factor authentication mechanisms. Two-factor authentication is a method of verifying the identity of a user or device by requiring two different types of factors, such as something the user knows (e.g., password, PIN, etc.), something the user has (e.g., token, smart card, etc.), or something the user is (e.g., biometric, fingerprint, etc.). Two-factor authentication can enhance the security of the network access by making it harder for attackers to impersonate or compromise the legitimate users or devices. If the perpetrator only knows the username and password, they will not be able to access the network without the second factor, such as a token or a biometric34 References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6: Communication and Network Security, p. 321; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 4: Communication and Network Security, p. 449.
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of performing security certification?
To identify system threats, vulnerabilities, and acceptable level of risk
To formalize the confirmation of compliance to security policies and standards
To formalize the confirmation of completed risk mitigation and risk analysis
To verify that system architecture and interconnections with other systems are effectively implemented
The best description of the purpose of performing security certification is to formalize the confirmation of compliance to security policies and standards. Security certification is the process of evaluating and validating the security posture and compliance of a system or network against a set of predefined criteria, such as security policies, standards, regulations, or best practices. Security certification results in a formal statement or document that attests the level of security and compliance achieved by the system or network.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, page 147; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, page 123
At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model are the source and destination address for a datagram handled?
Transport Layer
Data-Link Layer
Network Layer
Application Layer
According to the CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests3, the layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model that handles the source and destination address for a datagram is the Network Layer. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that defines the functions, services, and protocols of the communication system or network, as well as the interactions and interfaces among them. The OSI model consists of seven layers, each of which performs a specific function or service for the communication system or network, such as the Physical Layer, the Data-Link Layer, the Network Layer, the Transport Layer, the Session Layer, the Presentation Layer, or the Application Layer. The Network Layer is the third layer of the OSI model, which provides the functionality and service of routing and forwarding the data or information across the communication system or network, such as the Internet Protocol (IP) or the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The Network Layer handles the source and destination address for a datagram, which is a unit or a packet of data or information that is transmitted or received over the communication system or network. The source and destination address for a datagram are the logical or numerical identifiers that specify the origin and the destination of the datagram, such as the IP address or the host name of the sender and the receiver of the datagram. The Network Layer uses the source and destination address for a datagram to determine the best path or route for the datagram to travel from the sender to the receiver, as well as to deliver the datagram to the correct destination. The Transport Layer is not the layer of the OSI model that handles the source and destination address for a datagram, although it may be the layer that handles the source and destination port for a segment. The Transport Layer is the fourth layer of the OSI model, which provides the functionality and service of ensuring the reliable and efficient transmission and reception of the data or information across the communication system or network, such as the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). The Transport Layer handles the source and destination port for a segment, which is a unit or a packet of data or information that is transmitted or received over the communication system or network. The source and destination port for a segment are the logical or numerical identifiers that specify the application or the service that is sending or receiving the segment, such as the port number or the socket number of the application or the service. The Transport Layer uses the source and destination port for a segment to establish, maintain, and terminate the connection or the session between the sender and the receiver, as well as to deliver the segment to the correct application or service. The Data-Link Layer is not the layer of the OSI model that handles the source and destination address for a datagram, although, it may be the layer that handles the source and destination address for a frame. The Data-Link Layer is the second layer of the OSI model, which provides the functionality and service of transferring and exchanging the data or information between the adjacent nodes or devices on the communication system or network, such as the Ethernet, the Wi-Fi, or the Bluetooth. The Data-Link Layer handles the source and destination address for a frame, which is a unit or a packet of data or information that is transmitted or received over the communication system or network. The source and destination address for a frame are the physical or hardware identifiers that specify the node or the device that is sending or receiving the frame, such as the Media Access Control (MAC) address or the Physical Address of the node or the device. The Data-Link Layer uses the source and destination address for a frame to identify, locate, and access the node or the device that is sending or receiving the frame, as well as to deliver the frame to the correct node or device. The Application Layer is not the layer of the OSI model that handles the source and destination address for a datagram, although it may be the layer that handles the source and destination address for a message.
A Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) with identity and access management (IAM) responsibilities is asked by the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to4 perform a vulnerability assessment on a web application to pass a Payment Card Industry (PCI) audit. The CISSP has never performed this before. According to the (ISC)? Code of Professional Ethics, which of the following should the CISSP do?
Review the CISSP guidelines for performing a vulnerability assessment before proceeding to complete it
Review the PCI requirements before performing the vulnerability assessment
Inform the CISO that they are unable to perform the task because they should render only those services for which they are fully competent and qualified
Since they are CISSP certified, they have enough knowledge to assist with the request, but will need assistance in order to complete it in a timely manner
According to the (ISC)2 Code of Professional Ethics, the CISSP should inform the CISO that they are unable to perform the task because they should render only those services for which they are fully competent and qualified. The (ISC)2 Code of Professional Ethics is a set of principles and rules that guide the professional and ethical conduct of the (ISC)2 members and certificate holders, such as the CISSP. The (ISC)2 Code of Professional Ethics consists of four canons, which are:
Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?
Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.
Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.
The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.
Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.
Testing is a vital part of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) process, as it validates the effectiveness and feasibility of the plan, identifies gaps and weaknesses, and provides opportunities for improvement and training. Testing should continue even if components of the test fail, as this will help to evaluate the impact of the failure, the root cause of the problem, and the possible solutions or alternatives34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10, page 10354: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 351.
The process of mutual authentication involves a computer system authenticating a user and authenticating the
user to the audit process.
computer system to the user.
user's access to all authorized objects.
computer system to the audit process.
Mutual authentication is the process of verifying the identity of both parties in a communication. The computer system authenticates the user by verifying their credentials, such as username and password, biometrics, or tokens. The user authenticates the computer system by verifying its identity, such as a digital certificate, a trusted third party, or a challenge-response mechanism34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 5154: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 151.
Which of the following is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks?
Data compression
Data classification
Data warehousing
Data validation
Data validation is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks, which are a type of web application attack that exploit the input fields of a web form to inject malicious SQL commands into the underlying database. Data validation involves checking the input data for any illegal or unexpected characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or keywords, and rejecting or sanitizing them before passing them to the database34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6, page 6604: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 6, page 199.
Which one of these risk factors would be the LEAST important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility?
Vulnerability to crime
Adjacent buildings and businesses
Proximity to an airline flight path
Vulnerability to natural disasters
Proximity to an airline flight path is the least important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility, as it poses the lowest risk factor compared to the other options. Proximity to an airline flight path may cause some noise or interference issues, but it is unlikely to result in a major disaster or damage to the computer facility, unless there is a rare case of a plane crash or a terrorist attack3. Vulnerability to crime, adjacent buildings and businesses, and vulnerability to natural disasters are more important considerations in choosing a building site for a new computer facility, as they can pose significant threats to the physical security, availability, and integrity of the facility and its assets. Vulnerability to crime can expose the facility to theft, vandalism, or sabotage. Adjacent buildings and businesses can affect the fire safety, power supply, or environmental conditions of the facility. Vulnerability to natural disasters can cause the facility to suffer from floods, earthquakes, storms, or fires. References: 3: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.
The BEST way to check for good security programming practices, as well as auditing for possible backdoors, is to conduct
log auditing.
code reviews.
impact assessments.
static analysis.
Code reviews are the best way to check for good security programming practices, as well as auditing for possible backdoors, in a software system. Code reviews involve examining the source code of the software for any errors, vulnerabilities, or malicious code that could compromise the security or functionality of the system. Code reviews can be performed manually by human reviewers, or automatically by tools that scan and analyze the code. The other options are not as effective as code reviews, as they either do not examine the source code directly (A and C), or only detect syntactic or semantic errors, not logical or security flaws (D). References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, page 463; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, page 555.
Which of the following is an essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management?
Regularly perform account re-validation and approval
Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication
Frequently review performed activities and request justification
Account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager
A privileged identity lifecycle management is a process of managing the access rights and activities of users who have elevated permissions to access sensitive data or resources in an organization2. An essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management is to regularly perform account re-validation and approval, which means verifying that the privileged users still need their access rights and have them approved by the appropriate authority. This can help prevent unauthorized or excessive access, reduce the risk of insider threats, and ensure compliance with policies and regulations. Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication, frequently review performed activities and request justification, and account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager are also important aspects of a privileged identity lifecycle management, but they are not as essential as account re-validation and approval. References: 2: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 5, page 283.
Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing?
Spam filtering
Cryptographic signature
Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering
Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup
The best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing is to use cryptographic signatures. E-mail spoofing is a technique that involves forging the sender’s address or identity in an e-mail message, usually to trick the recipient into opening a malicious attachment, clicking on a phishing link, or disclosing sensitive information. Cryptographic signatures are digital signatures that are created by encrypting the e-mail message or a part of it with the sender’s private key, and attaching it to the e-mail message. Cryptographic signatures can be used to verify the authenticity and integrity of the sender and the message, and to prevent e-mail spoofing5 . References: 5: What is Email Spoofing? : How to Prevent Email Spoofing
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is generating alarms that a user account has over 100 failed login attempts per minute. A sniffer is placed on the network, and a variety of passwords for that user are noted. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A dictionary attack
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
A spoofing attack
A backdoor installation
A dictionary attack is a type of brute-force attack that attempts to guess a user’s password by trying a large number of possible words or phrases, often derived from a dictionary or a list of commonly used passwords. A dictionary attack can be detected by an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) if it generates a high number of failed login attempts per minute, as well as a variety of passwords for the same user. A sniffer can capture the network traffic and reveal the passwords being tried by the attacker34. References: 3: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6, page 6574: CISSP For Dummies, 7th Edition, Chapter 6, page 197.
Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?
Code signing
Class authentication
Sandboxing
Type safety
Code signing is the mobile code security model that relies only on trust. Mobile code is a type of software that can be transferred from one system to another and executed without installation or compilation. Mobile code can be used for various purposes, such as web applications, applets, scripts, macros, etc. Mobile code can also pose various security risks, such as malicious code, unauthorized access, data leakage, etc. Mobile code security models are the techniques that are used to protect the systems and users from the threats of mobile code. Code signing is a mobile code security model that relies only on trust, which means that the security of the mobile code depends on the reputation and credibility of the code provider. Code signing works as follows:
Code signing relies only on trust because it does not enforce any security restrictions or controls on the mobile code, but rather leaves the decision to the code consumer. Code signing also does not guarantee the quality or functionality of the mobile code, but rather the authenticity and integrity of the code provider. Code signing can be effective if the code consumer knows and trusts the code provider, and if the code provider follows the security standards and best practices. However, code signing can also be ineffective if the code consumer is unaware or careless of the code provider, or if the code provider is compromised or malicious.
The other options are not mobile code security models that rely only on trust, but rather on other techniques that limit or isolate the mobile code. Class authentication is a mobile code security model that verifies the permissions and capabilities of the mobile code based on its class or type, and allows or denies the execution of the mobile code accordingly. Sandboxing is a mobile code security model that executes the mobile code in a separate and restricted environment, and prevents the mobile code from accessing or affecting the system resources or data. Type safety is a mobile code security model that checks the validity and consistency of the mobile code, and prevents the mobile code from performing illegal or unsafe operations.
Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?
Data owner
Data architect
Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
Chief Information Officer (CIO)
The person in the organization who is accountable for the classification of data information assets is the data owner. The data owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. The data owner is also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. The data owner should be able to determine the impact of the data on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the data on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data. The data owner should also ensure that the data is properly labeled, stored, accessed, shared, and destroyed according to the data classification policy and procedures.
The other options are not the persons in the organization who are accountable for the classification of data information assets, but rather persons who have other roles or functions related to data management. The data architect is the person or entity that designs and models the structure, format, and relationships of the data, as well as the data standards, specifications, and lifecycle. The data architect supports the data owner by providing technical guidance and expertise on the data architecture and quality. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is the person or entity that oversees the security strategy, policies, and programs of the organization, as well as the security performance and incidents. The CISO supports the data owner by providing security leadership and governance, as well as ensuring the compliance and alignment of the data security with the organizational objectives and regulations. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is the person or entity that manages the information technology (IT) resources and services of the organization, as well as the IT strategy and innovation. The CIO supports the data owner by providing IT management and direction, as well as ensuring the availability, reliability, and scalability of the IT infrastructure and applications.
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?
Diffie-Hellman algorithm
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Message Digest 5 (MD5)
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). SSL is a protocol that provides secure communication over the Internet by using public key cryptography and digital certificates. SSL works as follows:
The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of SSL because it enables the authentication of the parties, the establishment of the shared secret key, and the protection of the data from eavesdropping, tampering, and replay attacks.
The other options are not protocols or algorithms that use private and public encryption keys in their implementation. Diffie-Hellman algorithm is a method for generating a shared secret key between two parties, but it does not use private and public encryption keys, but rather public and private parameters. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses the same key for encryption and decryption, but it does not use private and public encryption keys, but rather a single secret key. Message Digest 5 (MD5) is a hash function that produces a fixed-length output from a variable-length input, but it does not use private and public encryption keys, but rather a one-way mathematical function.
What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?
Implementation Phase
Initialization Phase
Cancellation Phase
Issued Phase
The second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management is the initialization phase. PKI is a system that uses public key cryptography and digital certificates to provide authentication, confidentiality, integrity, and non-repudiation for electronic transactions. PKI key/certificate life-cycle management is the process of managing the creation, distribution, usage, storage, revocation, and expiration of keys and certificates in a PKI system. The key/certificate life-cycle management consists of six phases: pre-certification, initialization, certification, operational, suspension, and termination. The initialization phase is the second phase, where the key pair and the certificate request are generated by the end entity or the registration authority (RA). The initialization phase involves the following steps:
The other options are not the second phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather other phases. The implementation phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a phase of PKI system deployment, where the PKI components and policies are installed and configured. The cancellation phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a possible outcome of the termination phase, where the key pair and the certificate are permanently revoked and deleted. The issued phase is not a phase of PKI key/certificate life-cycle management, but rather a possible outcome of the certification phase, where the CA verifies and approves the certificate request and issues the certificate to the end entity or the RA.
Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)
Asset Reporting Format (ARF)
Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)
The component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification that contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified by automated vulnerability assessments is the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS). CVSS is a framework that provides a standardized and objective way to measure and communicate the characteristics and impacts of vulnerabilities. CVSS consists of three metric groups: base, temporal, and environmental. The base metric group captures the intrinsic and fundamental properties of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The temporal metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that change over time, such as the availability and effectiveness of exploits, patches, and workarounds. The environmental metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a user’s environment, such as the configuration and importance of the affected system. Each metric group has a set of metrics that are assigned values based on the vulnerability’s attributes. The values are then combined using a formula to produce a numerical score that ranges from 0 to 10, where 0 means no impact and 10 means critical impact. The score can also be translated into a qualitative rating that ranges from none to low, medium, high, and critical. CVSS provides a consistent and comprehensive way to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities and prioritize their remediation.
The other options are not components of the SCAP specification that contain the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified by automated vulnerability assessments, but rather components that serve other purposes. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a component that provides a standardized and unique identifier and description for each publicly known vulnerability. CVE facilitates the sharing and comparison of vulnerability information across different sources and tools. Asset Reporting Format (ARF) is a component that provides a standardized and extensible format for expressing the information about the assets and their characteristics, such as configuration, vulnerabilities, and compliance. ARF enables the aggregation and correlation of asset information from different sources and tools. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) is a component that provides a standardized and expressive language for defining and testing the state of a system for the presence of vulnerabilities, configuration issues, patches, and other aspects. OVAL enables the automation and interoperability of vulnerability assessment and management.
Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?
Hashing the data before encryption
Hashing the data after encryption
Compressing the data after encryption
Compressing the data before encryption
Compressing the data before encryption is a technique that can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack. A known plaintext attack is a type of cryptanalysis where the attacker has access to some pairs of plaintext and ciphertext encrypted with the same key, and tries to recover the key or decrypt other ciphertexts. A known plaintext attack can exploit the statistical properties or patterns of the plaintext or the ciphertext to reduce the search space or guess the key. Compressing the data before encryption can reduce the redundancy and increase the entropy of the plaintext, making it harder for the attacker to find any correlations or similarities between the plaintext and the ciphertext. Compressing the data before encryption can also reduce the size of the plaintext, making it more difficult for the attacker to obtain enough plaintext-ciphertext pairs for a successful attack.
The other options are not techniques that can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack, but rather techniques that can introduce other security issues or inefficiencies. Hashing the data before encryption is not a useful technique, as hashing is a one-way function that cannot be reversed, and the encrypted hash cannot be decrypted to recover the original data. Hashing the data after encryption is also not a useful technique, as hashing does not add any security to the encryption, and the hash can be easily computed by anyone who has access to the ciphertext. Compressing the data after encryption is not a recommended technique, as compression algorithms usually work better on uncompressed data, and compressing the ciphertext can introduce errors or vulnerabilities that can compromise the encryption.
Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?
Confidentiality
Integrity
Identification
Availability
The security service that is served by the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key is identification. Identification is the process of verifying the identity of a person or entity that claims to be who or what it is. Identification can be achieved by using public key cryptography and digital signatures, which are based on the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key. This process works as follows:
The process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key serves identification because it ensures that only the sender can produce a valid ciphertext that can be decrypted by the receiver, and that the receiver can verify the sender’s identity by using the sender’s public key. This process also provides non-repudiation, which means that the sender cannot deny sending the message or the receiver cannot deny receiving the message, as the ciphertext serves as a proof of origin and delivery.
The other options are not the security services that are served by the process of encrypting plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting ciphertext with the sender’s public key. Confidentiality is the process of ensuring that the message is only readable by the intended parties, and it is achieved by encrypting plaintext with the receiver’s public key and decrypting ciphertext with the receiver’s private key. Integrity is the process of ensuring that the message is not modified or corrupted during transmission, and it is achieved by using hash functions and message authentication codes. Availability is the process of ensuring that the message is accessible and usable by the authorized parties, and it is achieved by using redundancy, backup, and recovery mechanisms.
Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?
Owner’s ability to realize financial gain
Owner’s ability to maintain copyright
Right of the owner to enjoy their creation
Right of the owner to control delivery method
Intellectual property rights are primarily concerned with the owner’s ability to realize financial gain from their creation. Intellectual property is a category of intangible assets that are the result of human creativity and innovation, such as inventions, designs, artworks, literature, music, software, etc. Intellectual property rights are the legal rights that grant the owner the exclusive control over the use, reproduction, distribution, and modification of their intellectual property. Intellectual property rights aim to protect the owner’s interests and incentives, and to reward them for their contribution to the society and economy.
The other options are not the primary concern of intellectual property rights, but rather the secondary or incidental benefits or aspects of them. The owner’s ability to maintain copyright is a means of enforcing intellectual property rights, but not the end goal of them. The right of the owner to enjoy their creation is a personal or moral right, but not a legal or economic one. The right of the owner to control the delivery method is a specific or technical aspect of intellectual property rights, but not a general or fundamental one.
An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?
Development, testing, and deployment
Prevention, detection, and remediation
People, technology, and operations
Certification, accreditation, and monitoring
An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on the primary elements of people, technology, and operations. People are the users, administrators, managers, and other stakeholders who are involved in the security process. They need to be aware, trained, motivated, and accountable for their security roles and responsibilities. Technology is the hardware, software, network, and other tools that are used to implement the security controls and measures. They need to be selected, configured, updated, and monitored according to the security standards and best practices. Operations are the policies, procedures, processes, and activities that are performed to achieve the security objectives and requirements. They need to be documented, reviewed, audited, and improved continuously to ensure their effectiveness and efficiency.
The other options are not the primary elements of defense in depth, but rather the phases, functions, or outcomes of the security process. Development, testing, and deployment are the phases of the security life cycle, which describes how security is integrated into the system development process. Prevention, detection, and remediation are the functions of the security management, which describes how security is maintained and improved over time. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring are the outcomes of the security evaluation, which describes how security is assessed and verified against the criteria and standards.
Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?
Examine the device for physical tampering
Implement more stringent baseline configurations
Purge or re-image the hard disk drive
Change access codes
Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive of a laptop before traveling to a high risk area will reduce the risk of data compromise or theft in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or seized by unauthorized parties. Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive will erase all the data and applications on the laptop, leaving only the operating system and the essential software. This will minimize the exposure of sensitive or confidential information that could be accessed by malicious actors. Purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive should be done using secure methods that prevent data recovery, such as overwriting, degaussing, or physical destruction.
The other options will not reduce the risk to the laptop as effectively as purging or re-imaging the hard disk drive. Examining the device for physical tampering will only detect if the laptop has been compromised after the fact, but will not prevent it from happening. Implementing more stringent baseline configurations will improve the security settings and policies of the laptop, but will not protect the data if the laptop is bypassed or breached. Changing access codes will make it harder for unauthorized users to log in to the laptop, but will not prevent them from accessing the data if they use other methods, such as booting from a removable media or removing the hard disk drive.
Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?
Install mantraps at the building entrances
Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic
Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public
Hire a guard to protect the public area
Supplying a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public is the most cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas. A duress alarm is a device that allows a person to signal for help in case of an emergency, such as an attack, a robbery, or a medical condition. A duress alarm can be activated by pressing a button, pulling a cord, or speaking a code word. A duress alarm can alert security personnel, law enforcement, or other responders to the location and nature of the emergency, and initiate appropriate actions. A duress alarm is a reactive control because it responds to an incident after it has occurred, rather than preventing it from happening.
The other options are not as cost-effective as supplying a duress alarm, as they involve more expensive or complex technologies or resources. Installing mantraps at the building entrances is a preventive control that restricts the access of unauthorized persons to the facility, but it also requires more space, maintenance, and supervision. Enclosing the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic is a preventive control that protects the personnel from physical attacks, but it also reduces the visibility and ventilation of the area. Hiring a guard to protect the public area is a deterrent control that discourages potential attackers, but it also involves paying wages, benefits, and training costs.
What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?
Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel
Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present
Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements
Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan
When an organization plans to relocate, the most important consideration from a data security perspective is to conduct a gap analysis of the new facilities against the existing security requirements. A gap analysis is a process that identifies and evaluates the differences between the current state and the desired state of a system or a process. In this case, the gap analysis would compare the security controls and measures implemented in the old and new locations, and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. The gap analysis would also help to determine the costs and resources needed to implement the necessary security improvements in the new facilities.
The other options are not as important as conducting a gap analysis, as they do not directly address the data security risks associated with relocation. Ensuring the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel is a safety issue, not a data security issue. Reviewing the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present is also a safety issue, not a data security issue. Revising the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan is a good practice, but it is not a preventive measure, rather a reactive one. A DR/BC plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover from a disaster and resume its normal operations. A DR/BC plan should be updated regularly, not only when relocating.
Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?
Network redundancies are not implemented
Security awareness training is not completed
Backup tapes are generated unencrypted
Users have administrative privileges
Generating backup tapes unencrypted represents the greatest risk to data confidentiality, as it exposes the data to unauthorized access or disclosure if the tapes are lost, stolen, or intercepted. Backup tapes are often stored off-site or transported to remote locations, which increases the chances of them falling into the wrong hands. If the backup tapes are unencrypted, anyone who obtains them can read the data without any difficulty. Therefore, backup tapes should always be encrypted using strong algorithms and keys, and the keys should be protected and managed separately from the tapes.
The other options do not pose as much risk to data confidentiality as generating backup tapes unencrypted. Network redundancies are not implemented will affect the availability and reliability of the network, but not necessarily the confidentiality of the data. Security awareness training is not completed will increase the likelihood of human errors or negligence that could compromise the data, but not as directly as generating backup tapes unencrypted. Users have administrative privileges will grant users more access and control over the system and the data, but not as widely as generating backup tapes unencrypted.
All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that
determine the risk of a business interruption occurring
determine the technological dependence of the business processes
Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption
Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of natural and man-made disasters on business operations. The BIA questionnaire is a tool that collects information from business process owners and stakeholders about the criticality, dependencies, recovery objectives, and resources of their processes. The BIA questionnaire should include questions that:
The BIA questionnaire should not include questions that determine the risk of a business interruption occurring, as this is part of the risk assessment process, which is a separate activity from the BIA. The risk assessment process identifies and analyzes the threats and vulnerabilities that could cause a business interruption, and estimates the likelihood and impact of such events. The risk assessment process also evaluates the existing controls and mitigation strategies, and recommends additional measures to reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?
Application
Storage
Power
Network
A company whose IT services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center should be most concerned with application failures when preparing a companywide BCP. A BCP is a document that describes how an organization will continue its critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include a risk assessment, a business impact analysis, a recovery strategy, and a testing and maintenance plan.
A Tier 4 data center is the highest level of data center classification, according to the Uptime Institute. A Tier 4 data center has the highest level of availability, reliability, and fault tolerance, as it has multiple and independent paths for power and cooling, and redundant and backup components for all systems. A Tier 4 data center has an uptime rating of 99.995%, which means it can only experience 0.4 hours of downtime per year. Therefore, the likelihood of a power, storage, or network failure in a Tier 4 data center is very low, and the impact of such a failure would be minimal, as the data center can quickly switch to alternative sources or routes.
However, a Tier 4 data center cannot prevent or mitigate application failures, which are caused by software bugs, configuration errors, or malicious attacks. Application failures can affect the functionality, performance, or security of the IT services, and cause data loss, corruption, or breach. Therefore, the IT manager should be most concerned with application failures when preparing a BCP, and ensure that the applications are properly designed, tested, updated, and monitored.
When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?
Only when assets are clearly defined
Only when standards are defined
Only when controls are put in place
Only procedures are defined
When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the ISO 27001 and 27002, management responsibilities can be defined only when standards are defined. Standards are the specific rules, guidelines, or procedures that support the implementation of the security policy. Standards define the minimum level of security that must be achieved by the organization, and provide the basis for measuring compliance and performance. Standards also assign roles and responsibilities to different levels of management and staff, and specify the reporting and escalation procedures.
Management responsibilities are the duties and obligations that managers have to ensure the effective and efficient execution of the security policy and standards. Management responsibilities include providing leadership, direction, support, and resources for the security program, establishing and communicating the security objectives and expectations, ensuring compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, monitoring and reviewing the security performance and incidents, and initiating corrective and preventive actions when needed.
Management responsibilities cannot be defined without standards, as standards provide the framework and criteria for defining what managers need to do and how they need to do it. Management responsibilities also depend on the scope and complexity of the security policy and standards, which may vary depending on the size, nature, and context of the organization. Therefore, standards must be defined before management responsibilities can be defined.
The other options are not correct, as they are not prerequisites for defining management responsibilities. Assets are the resources that need to be protected by the security policy and standards, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Controls are the measures that are implemented to reduce the security risks and achieve the security objectives, but they do not determine the management responsibilities. Procedures are the detailed instructions that describe how to perform the security tasks and activities, but they do not determine the management responsibilities.
Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?
Purchase software from a limited list of retailers
Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
Test all new software in a segregated environment
Testing all new software in a segregated environment is the best method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment. Malware is any malicious software that can harm or compromise the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of a system or data. Malware can be introduced into a production environment through various sources, such as software downloads, updates, patches, or installations. Testing all new software in a segregated environment involves verifying and validating the functionality and security of the software before deploying it to the production environment, using a separate system or network that is isolated and protected from the production environment. Testing all new software in a segregated environment can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the best methods to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment, but rather methods that can reduce or mitigate the risk of malware, but not eliminate it. Purchasing software from a limited list of retailers is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves obtaining software only from trusted and reputable sources, such as official vendors or distributors, that can provide some assurance of the quality and security of the software. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still contain hidden or embedded malware, or it may be tampered with or compromised during the delivery or installation process. Verifying the hash key or certificate key of all updates is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves checking the authenticity and integrity of the software updates, patches, or installations, by comparing the hash key or certificate key of the software with the expected or published value, using cryptographic techniques and tools. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still contain malware that is not detected or altered by the hash key or certificate key, or it may be subject to a man-in-the-middle attack or a replay attack that can intercept or modify the software or the key. Not permitting programs, patches, or updates from the Internet is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves restricting or blocking the access or download of software from the Internet, which is a common and convenient source of malware, by applying and enforcing the appropriate security policies and controls, such as firewall rules, antivirus software, or web filters. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still be obtained or infected from other sources, such as removable media, email attachments, or network shares.
What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?
Debug the security issues
Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible
Conduct a security assessment
Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall
Migrating to newer, supported applications where possible is the best approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications. Legacy web applications are web applications that are outdated, unsupported, or incompatible with the current technologies and standards. Legacy web applications may have various security issues, such as:
Migrating to newer, supported applications where possible is the best approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications, because it can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the best approaches to addressing security issues in legacy web applications, but rather approaches that can mitigate or remediate the security issues, but not eliminate or prevent them. Debugging the security issues is an approach that can mitigate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves identifying and fixing the errors or defects in the code or logic of the web applications, which may be difficult or impossible to do for the legacy web applications that are outdated or unsupported. Conducting a security assessment is an approach that can remediate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves evaluating and testing the security effectiveness and compliance of the web applications, using various techniques and tools, such as audits, reviews, scans, or penetration tests, and identifying and reporting any security weaknesses or gaps, which may not be sufficient or feasible to do for the legacy web applications that are incompatible or obsolete. Protecting the legacy application with a web application firewall is an approach that can mitigate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves deploying and configuring a web application firewall, which is a security device or software that monitors and filters the web traffic between the web applications and the users or clients, and blocks or allows the web requests or responses based on the predefined rules or policies, which may not be effective or efficient to do for the legacy web applications that have weak or outdated encryption or authentication mechanisms.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?
Lack of software documentation
License agreements requiring release of modified code
Expiration of the license agreement
Costs associated with support of the software
The primary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction is license agreements requiring release of modified code. Open source software is software that uses publicly available source code, which can be seen, modified, and distributed by anyone. Open source software has some advantages, such as being affordable and flexible, but it also has some disadvantages, such as being potentially insecure or unsupported.
One of the main disadvantages of using open source software in a commercial software construction is the license agreements that govern the use and distribution of the open source software. License agreements are legal contracts that specify the rights and obligations of the parties involved in the software, such as the original authors, the developers, and the users. License agreements can vary in terms of their terms and conditions, such as the scope, the duration, or the fees of the software.
Some of the common types of license agreements for open source software are:
The primary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction is license agreements requiring release of modified code, which are usually associated with copyleft licenses. This means that if a commercial software construction uses or incorporates open source software that is licensed under a copyleft license, then it must also release its own source code and any modifications or derivatives of it, under the same or compatible copyleft license. This can pose a significant risk for the commercial software construction, as it may lose its competitive advantage, intellectual property, or revenue, by disclosing its source code and allowing others to use, modify, or distribute it.
The other options are not the primary risks with using open source software in a commercial software construction, but rather secondary or minor risks that may or may not apply to the open source software. Lack of software documentation is a secondary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the quality, usability, or maintainability of the open source software, but it does not necessarily affect the rights or obligations of the commercial software construction. Expiration of the license agreement is a minor risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the availability or continuity of the open source software, but it is unlikely to happen, as most open source software licenses are perpetual or indefinite. Costs associated with support of the software is a secondary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the reliability, security, or performance of the open source software, but it can be mitigated or avoided by choosing the open source software that has adequate or alternative support options.
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
System acquisition and development
System operations and maintenance
System initiation
System implementation
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in the system acquisition and development phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a process that involves planning, designing, developing, testing, deploying, operating, and maintaining a system, using various models and methodologies, such as waterfall, spiral, agile, or DevSecOps. The SDLC can be divided into several phases, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
The certification and accreditation process is a process that involves assessing and verifying the security and compliance of a system, and authorizing and approving the system operation and maintenance, using various standards and frameworks, such as NIST SP 800-37 or ISO/IEC 27001. The certification and accreditation process can be divided into several tasks, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in the system acquisition and development phase of the SDLC, because it can ensure that the system design and development are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system changes are controlled and documented. Configuration management and control is a process that involves establishing and maintaining the baseline and the inventory of the system components and resources, such as hardware, software, data, or documentation, and tracking and recording any modifications or updates to the system components and resources, using various techniques and tools, such as version control, change control, or configuration audits. Configuration management and control can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the phases of the SDLC that incorporate the configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process, but rather phases that involve other tasks of the certification and accreditation process. System operations and maintenance is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security monitoring task of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system operation and maintenance are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system security is updated and improved. System initiation is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security categorization and security planning tasks of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system scope and objectives are defined and aligned with the security objectives and requirements, and that the security plan and policy are developed and documented. System implementation is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security assessment and security authorization tasks of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system deployment and installation are evaluated and verified for the security effectiveness and compliance, and that the system operation and maintenance are authorized and approved based on the risk and impact analysis and the security objectives and requirements.
When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?
After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins
After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed
Software security functional requirements must be defined after the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a process that involves planning, designing, developing, testing, deploying, operating, and maintaining a system, using various models and methodologies, such as waterfall, spiral, agile, or DevSecOps. The SDLC can be divided into several phases, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
Software security functional requirements are the specific and measurable security features and capabilities that the system must provide to meet the security objectives and requirements. Software security functional requirements are derived from the business functional analysis and the data security categorization, which are two tasks that are performed in the system initiation phase of the SDLC. The business functional analysis is the process of identifying and documenting the business functions and processes that the system must support and enable, such as the inputs, outputs, workflows, and tasks. The data security categorization is the process of determining the security level and impact of the system and its data, based on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability criteria, and applying the appropriate security controls and measures. Software security functional requirements must be defined after the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed, because they can ensure that the system design and development are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system security is aligned and integrated with the business functions and processes.
The other options are not the phases of the SDLC when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather phases that involve other tasks or activities related to the system design and development. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system architecture and components are designed, based on the system scope and objectives, and the data security categorization is verified and validated. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system design and components are evaluated and tested for the security effectiveness and compliance, and the system detailed design is developed, based on the system architecture and components. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system architecture and components are designed, based on the system scope and objectives, and the data security categorization is initiated and planned.
A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?
Least privilege
Privilege escalation
Defense in depth
Privilege bracketing
The most probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended is least privilege. Least privilege is a principle that states that a subject (such as a user, a process, or a program) should only have the minimum amount of access or permissions that are necessary to perform its function or task. Least privilege can help to reduce the attack surface and the potential damage of a system or network, by limiting the exposure and impact of a subject in case of a compromise or misuse.
Java implements the principle of least privilege through its security model, which consists of several components, such as:
In this question, the Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. This means that the Java program needs to have the permissions to perform the file I/O and the network communication operations, which are considered as sensitive or risky actions by the Java security model. However, if the Java program is running on computer C with the default or the minimal security permissions, such as in the Java Security Sandbox, then it will not be able to perform these operations, and the program will not work as expected. Therefore, the most probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended is least privilege, which limits the access or permissions of the Java program based on its source, signer, or policy.
The other options are not the security features of Java preventing the program from operating as intended, but rather concepts or techniques that are related to security in general or in other contexts. Privilege escalation is a technique that allows a subject to gain higher or unauthorized access or permissions than what it is supposed to have, by exploiting a vulnerability or a flaw in a system or network. Privilege escalation can help an attacker to perform malicious actions or to access sensitive resources or data, by bypassing the security controls or restrictions. Defense in depth is a concept that states that a system or network should have multiple layers or levels of security, to provide redundancy and resilience in case of a breach or an attack. Defense in depth can help to protect a system or network from various threats and risks, by using different types of security measures and controls, such as the physical, the technical, or the administrative ones. Privilege bracketing is a technique that allows a subject to temporarily elevate or lower its access or permissions, to perform a specific function or task, and then return to its original or normal level. Privilege bracketing can help to reduce the exposure and impact of a subject, by minimizing the time and scope of its higher or lower access or permissions.
Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?
Check arguments in function calls
Test for the security patch level of the environment
Include logging functions
Digitally sign each application module
Testing for the security patch level of the environment is the web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs. OS bugs are errors or defects in the code or logic of the OS that can cause the OS to malfunction or behave unexpectedly. OS bugs can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, disrupt business operations, or steal or leak sensitive data. Testing for the security patch level of the environment is the web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of OS bugs, because it can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the web application controls that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of OS bugs, but rather web application controls that can prevent or mitigate other types of web application attacks or issues. Checking arguments in function calls is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate buffer overflow attacks, which are attacks that exploit the vulnerability of the web application code that does not properly check the size or length of the input data that is passed to a function or a variable, and overwrite the adjacent memory locations with malicious code or data. Including logging functions is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate unauthorized access or modification attacks, which are attacks that exploit the lack of or weak authentication or authorization mechanisms of the web applications, and access or modify the web application data or functionality without proper permission or verification. Digitally signing each application module is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate code injection or tampering attacks, which are attacks that exploit the vulnerability of the web application code that does not properly validate or sanitize the input data that is executed or interpreted by the web application, and inject or modify the web application code with malicious code or data.
An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?
Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
Inadequate cost modeling
Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA) would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. A Web hosting solution is a service that provides the infrastructure, resources, and tools for hosting and maintaining a website or a web application on the internet. A Web hosting solution can offer various benefits, such as:
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract or an agreement that defines the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved in a service, such as the service provider and the service consumer. An SLA can include various components, such as:
Insufficient SLA would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it could mean that the SLA does not include or specify the appropriate service level indicators or objectives for the Web hosting solution, or that the SLA does not provide or enforce the adequate service level reporting or penalties for the Web hosting solution. This could affect the ability of the organization to measure and assess the Web hosting solution quality, performance, and availability, and to identify and address any issues or risks in the Web hosting solution.
The other options are not the most probable causes for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, but rather the factors that could affect or improve the Web hosting solution in other ways. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to analyze and utilize the data and information from the Web hosting solution, such as the web traffic, behavior, or conversion. A BI solution is a system that involves the collection, integration, processing, and presentation of the data and information from various sources, such as the Web hosting solution, to support the decision making and planning of the organization. However, absence of a BI solution is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the analysis or usage of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution. Inadequate cost modeling is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to estimate and optimize the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, such as the web hosting fees, maintenance costs, or return on investment. A cost model is a tool or a method that helps the organization to calculate and compare the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, and to identify and implement the best or most efficient Web hosting solution. However, inadequate cost modeling is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the estimation or optimization of the cost and value of the Web hosting solution. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to design and develop the Web hosting solution, such as the web services, components, or interfaces. A SOA is a software architecture that involves the modularization, standardization, and integration of the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the Web hosting solution. A SOA can offer various benefits, such as:
However, improper deployment of the SOA is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the design or development of the Web hosting solution.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?
Consolidation of multiple providers
Directory synchronization
Web based logon
Automated account management
Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service. A third-party identity service is a service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as authentication, authorization, and federation, for multiple applications or systems, using a single identity provider (IdP). A third-party identity service can offer various benefits, such as:
Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service, because it can simplify and streamline the IAM architecture and processes, by reducing the number of IdPs and IAM systems that are involved in managing the identities and access for multiple applications or systems. Consolidation of multiple providers can also help to avoid the issues or risks that might arise from having multiple IdPs and IAM systems, such as the inconsistency, redundancy, or conflict of the IAM policies and controls, or the inefficiency, vulnerability, or disruption of the IAM functions.
The other options are not the primary advantages of using a third-party identity service, but rather secondary or specific advantages for different aspects or scenarios of using a third-party identity service. Directory synchronization is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the scenario where the organization has an existing directory service, such as LDAP or Active Directory, that stores and manages the user accounts and attributes, and wants to synchronize them with the third-party identity service, to enable the SSO or federation for the users. Web based logon is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the aspect where the third-party identity service uses a web-based protocol, such as SAML or OAuth, to facilitate the SSO or federation for the users, by redirecting them to a web-based logon page, where they can enter their credentials or consent. Automated account management is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the aspect where the third-party identity service provides the IAM functions, such as provisioning, deprovisioning, or updating, for the user accounts and access rights, using an automated or self-service mechanism, such as SCIM or JIT.
What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?
Warm site
Hot site
Mirror site
Cold site
A warm site is the most cost effective solution for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours. A DR site is a backup facility that can be used to restore the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DR site can have different levels of readiness and functionality, depending on the organization’s recovery objectives and budget. The main types of DR sites are:
A warm site is the most cost effective solution for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it can provide a balance between the recovery time and the recovery cost. A warm site can enable the organization to resume its critical functions and operations within a reasonable time frame, without spending too much on the DR site maintenance and operation. A warm site can also provide some flexibility and scalability for the organization to adjust its recovery strategies and resources according to its needs and priorities.
The other options are not the most cost effective solutions for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, but rather solutions that are either too costly or too slow for the organization’s recovery objectives and budget. A hot site is a solution that is too costly for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to invest a lot of money on the DR site equipment, software, and services, and to pay for the ongoing operational and maintenance costs. A hot site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that cannot be unavailable for more than a few hours or minutes, or that have very high availability and performance requirements. A mirror site is a solution that is too costly for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to duplicate its entire primary site, with the same hardware, software, data, and applications, and to keep them online and synchronized at all times. A mirror site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that cannot afford any downtime or data loss, or that have very strict compliance and regulatory requirements. A cold site is a solution that is too slow for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to spend a lot of time and effort on the DR site installation, configuration, and restoration, and to rely on other sources of backup data and applications. A cold site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that can be unavailable for more than a few days or weeks, or that have very low criticality and priority.
A continuous information security-monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?
Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies
Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
Encompassing people, process, and technology
Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes
A continuous information security monitoring program can best reduce risk through encompassing people, process, and technology. A continuous information security monitoring program is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. A continuous information security monitoring program can provide several benefits, such as:
A continuous information security monitoring program can best reduce risk through encompassing people, process, and technology, because it can ensure that the continuous information security monitoring program is holistic and comprehensive, and that it covers all the aspects and elements of the system or network security. People, process, and technology are the three pillars of a continuous information security monitoring program, and they represent the following:
The other options are not the best ways to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but rather specific or partial ways that can contribute to the risk reduction. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies is a specific way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only focuses on one aspect of the security data and information, and it does not address the other aspects, such as the security objectives and requirements, the security controls and measures, and the security feedback and improvement. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts is a partial way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only covers one element of the system or network security, and it does not cover the other elements, such as the security threats and vulnerabilities, the security incidents and impacts, and the security response and remediation. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes is a specific way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only focuses on one type of the security events and activities, and it does not focus on the other types, such as the security alerts and notifications, the security analysis and correlation, and the security reporting and documentation.
What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?
Disable all unnecessary services
Ensure chain of custody
Prepare another backup of the system
Isolate the system from the network
Isolating the system from the network is the most important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application. An unknown application is an application that is not recognized or authorized by the system or network administrator, and that may have been installed or executed without the user’s knowledge or consent. An unknown application may have various purposes, such as:
Forensic analysis is a process that involves examining and investigating the system or network for any evidence or traces of the unknown application, such as its origin, nature, behavior, and impact. Forensic analysis can provide several benefits, such as:
Isolating the system from the network is the most important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the forensic analysis is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Isolating the system from the network can also help to:
The other options are not the most important steps during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application, but rather steps that should be done after or along with isolating the system from the network. Disabling all unnecessary services is a step that should be done after isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the system is optimized and simplified for the forensic analysis, and that the system resources and functions are not consumed or affected by any irrelevant or redundant services. Ensuring chain of custody is a step that should be done along with isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the integrity and authenticity of the evidence are maintained and documented throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Preparing another backup of the system is a step that should be done after isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the system data and configuration are preserved and replicated for the forensic analysis, and that the system can be restored and recovered in case of any damage or loss.
Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?
Walkthrough
Simulation
Parallel
White box
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations. Business continuity is the ability of an organization to maintain or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. Business continuity testing is the process of evaluating and validating the effectiveness and readiness of the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) through various methods and scenarios. Business continuity testing can provide several benefits, such as:
There are different types of business continuity tests, depending on the scope, purpose, and complexity of the test. Some of the common types are:
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, because it can simulate various types of risks, such as natural, human, or technical, and assess how the organization and its systems can cope and recover from them, without actually causing any harm or disruption to the live operations. Simulation can also help to identify and mitigate any potential risks that might affect the live operations, and to improve the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its systems.
The other options are not the types of business continuity tests that include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, but rather types that have other objectives or effects. Walkthrough is a type of business continuity test that does not include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks, but rather a review and discussion of the BCP and DRP, without any actual testing or practice. Parallel is a type of business continuity test that does not endanger live operations, but rather maintains them, while activating and operating the alternate site or system. Full interruption is a type of business continuity test that does endanger live operations, by shutting them down and transferring them to the alternate site or system.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?
Determine the cause of the incident
Disconnect the system involved from the network
Isolate and contain the system involved
Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process. An incident is an event that violates or threatens the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the IT systems or data. An incident response is a process that involves detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and learning from an incident, using various methods and tools. An incident response can provide several benefits, such as:
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process, because it can ensure that the incident is verified and validated, and that the incident response is initiated and escalated. A symptom is a sign or an indication that an incident may have occurred or is occurring, such as an alert, a log, or a report. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident involves collecting and analyzing the relevant data and information from various sources, such as the IT systems, the network, the users, or the external parties, and determining whether an incident has actually happened or is happening, and how serious or urgent it is. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident can also help to:
The other options are not the first steps in the incident response process, but rather steps that should be done after or along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident. Determining the cause of the incident is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the root cause and source of the incident are identified and analyzed, and that the incident response is directed and focused. Determining the cause of the incident involves examining and testing the affected IT systems and data, and tracing and tracking the origin and path of the incident, using various techniques and tools, such as forensics, malware analysis, or reverse engineering. Determining the cause of the incident can also help to:
Disconnecting the system involved from the network is a step that should be done along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the incident response is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Disconnecting the system involved from the network can also help to:
Isolating and containing the system involved is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the incident is confined and restricted, and that the incident response is continued and maintained. Isolating and containing the system involved involves applying and enforcing the appropriate security measures and controls to limit or stop the activity and impact of the incident on the IT systems and data, such as firewall rules, access policies, or encryption keys. Isolating and containing the system involved can also help to:
A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?
Guaranteed recovery of all business functions
Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis
Insurance against litigation following a disaster
Protection from loss of organization resources
Minimization of the need for decision making during a crisis is the main benefit that a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide. A BCP/DRP is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable an organization to continue or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP/DRP can provide several benefits, such as:
Minimization of the need for decision making during a crisis is the main benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it can ensure that the organization and its staff have a clear and consistent guidance and direction on how to respond and act during a disruption or disaster, and avoid any confusion, uncertainty, or inconsistency that might worsen the situation or impact. A BCP/DRP can also help to reduce the stress and pressure on the organization and its staff during a crisis, and increase their confidence and competence in executing the plans.
The other options are not the benefits that a BCP/DRP will provide, but rather unrealistic or incorrect expectations or outcomes of a BCP/DRP. Guaranteed recovery of all business functions is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not possible or feasible to recover all business functions after a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is severe or prolonged. A BCP/DRP can only prioritize and recover the most critical or essential business functions, and may have to suspend or terminate the less critical or non-essential business functions. Insurance against litigation following a disaster is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not a guarantee or protection that the organization will not face any legal or regulatory consequences or liabilities after a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is caused by the organization’s negligence or misconduct. A BCP/DRP can only help to mitigate or reduce the legal or regulatory risks, and may have to comply with or report to the relevant authorities or parties. Protection from loss of organization resources is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not a prevention or avoidance of any damage or destruction of the organization’s assets or resources during a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is physical or natural. A BCP/DRP can only help to restore or replace the lost or damaged assets or resources, and may have to incur some costs or losses.
With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?
Continuously without exception for all security controls
Before and after each change of the control
At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control
Only during system implementation and decommissioning
Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions. ISCM is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. ISCM can provide several benefits, such as:
A security control is a measure or mechanism that is implemented to protect the system or network from the security threats or risks, by preventing, detecting, or correcting the security incidents or impacts. A security control can have various types, such as administrative, technical, or physical, and various attributes, such as preventive, detective, or corrective. A security control can also have different levels of volatility, which is the degree or frequency of change or variation of the security control, due to various factors, such as the security requirements, the threat landscape, or the system or network environment.
Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it can ensure that the ISCM solutions can capture and reflect the current and accurate state and performance of the security control, and can identify and report any issues or risks that might affect the security control. Monitoring of a control at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control can also help to optimize the ISCM resources and efforts, by allocating them according to the priority and urgency of the security control.
The other options are not the correct frequencies for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, but rather incorrect or unrealistic frequencies that might cause problems or inefficiencies for the ISCM solutions. Continuously without exception for all security controls is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not feasible or necessary to monitor all security controls at the same and constant rate, regardless of their volatility or importance. Continuously monitoring all security controls without exception might cause the ISCM solutions to consume excessive or wasteful resources and efforts, and might overwhelm or overload the ISCM solutions with too much or irrelevant data and information. Before and after each change of the control is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not sufficient or timely to monitor the security control only when there is a change of the security control, and not during the normal operation of the security control. Monitoring the security control only before and after each change might cause the ISCM solutions to miss or ignore the security status, events, and activities that occur between the changes of the security control, and might delay or hinder the ISCM solutions from detecting and responding to the security issues or incidents that affect the security control. Only during system implementation and decommissioning is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not appropriate or effective to monitor the security control only during the initial or final stages of the system or network lifecycle, and not during the operational or maintenance stages of the system or network lifecycle. Monitoring the security control only during system implementation and decommissioning might cause the ISCM solutions to neglect or overlook the security status, events, and activities that occur during the regular or ongoing operation of the system or network, and might prevent or limit the ISCM solutions from improving and optimizing the security control.
What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?
Certify and approve releases to the environment
Provide version rollbacks for system changes
Ensure that all applications are approved
Ensure accountability for changes to the environment
Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the system or network environment, such as the hardware, software, configuration, or documentation, are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management can provide several benefits, such as:
Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management, because it can ensure that the changes are authorized, justified, and traceable, and that the parties involved in the changes are responsible and accountable for their actions and results. Accountability can also help to deter or detect any unauthorized or malicious changes that might compromise the system or network environment.
The other options are not the primary reasons for implementing change management, but rather secondary or specific reasons for different aspects or phases of change management. Certifying and approving releases to the environment is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the approval phase of change management, which is the phase that involves reviewing and validating the changes and their impacts, and granting or denying the permission to proceed with the changes. Providing version rollbacks for system changes is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the implementation phase of change management, which is the phase that involves executing and monitoring the changes and their effects, and providing the backup and recovery options for the changes. Ensuring that all applications are approved is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the application changes, which are the changes that affect the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the system or network environment.
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?
Hardware and software compatibility issues
Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
Budget constraints and requirements
Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRP) must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives. A DRP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on restoring the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DRP should include various components, such as:
Recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives, because it can ensure that the DRP is feasible and suitable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a cost-effective and efficient manner. A cost/benefit analysis is a technique that compares the costs and benefits of different recovery strategies, and determines the optimal one that provides the best value for money. A business objective is a goal or a target that the organization wants to achieve through its IT systems and infrastructure, such as increasing the productivity, profitability, or customer satisfaction. A recovery strategy that is aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives can help to:
The other options are not the factors that the recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with, but rather factors that should be considered or addressed when developing or implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP. Hardware and software compatibility issues are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can affect the functionality and interoperability of the IT systems and infrastructure, and may require additional resources or adjustments to resolve them. Applications’ criticality and downtime tolerance are factors that should be addressed when implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can determine the priority and urgency of the recovery for different applications, and may require different levels of recovery objectives and resources. Budget constraints and requirements are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can limit the availability and affordability of the IT resources and funds for the recovery, and may require trade-offs or compromises to balance them.
What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?
Take the computer to a forensic lab
Make a copy of the hard drive
Start documenting
Turn off the computer
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved. A chain of evidence, also known as a chain of custody, is a process that documents and preserves the integrity and authenticity of the evidence collected from a crime scene, such as a desktop computer. A chain of evidence should include information such as:
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, because it can ensure that the original hard drive is not altered, damaged, or destroyed during the forensic analysis, and that the copy can be used as a reliable and admissible source of evidence. Making a copy of the hard drive should also involve using a write blocker, which is a device or a software that prevents any modification or deletion of the data on the hard drive, and generating a hash value, which is a unique and fixed identifier that can verify the integrity and consistency of the data on the hard drive.
The other options are not the first actions to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, but rather actions that should be done after or along with making a copy of the hard drive. Taking the computer to a forensic lab is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is transported and stored in a secure and controlled environment, and that the forensic analysis is conducted by qualified and authorized personnel. Starting documenting is an action that should be done along with making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the chain of evidence is maintained and recorded throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Turning off the computer is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is powered down and disconnected from any network or device, and that the computer is protected from any further damage or tampering.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.
What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation?
Approved web browsers
Network firewall procedures
Proxy configuration
Employee education
The plan must include employee education in order to reduce client-side exploitation. Employee education is a process of providing the employees with the necessary knowledge, skills, and awareness to follow the security policies and procedures, and to prevent or avoid the common security threats or risks, such as client-side exploitation. Client-side exploitation is a type of attack that targets the vulnerabilities or weaknesses of the client applications or systems, such as web browsers, email clients, or media players, and that can compromise the client data or functionality, or allow the attacker to gain access to the network or the server. Employee education can help to reduce client-side exploitation by teaching the employees how to recognize and avoid the malicious or suspicious links, attachments, or downloads, how to update and patch their client applications or systems, how to use the security tools or features, such as antivirus or firewall, and how to report or respond to any security incidents or breaches. Approved web browsers, network firewall procedures, and proxy configuration are not the plan components that must be included in order to reduce client-side exploitation, as they are related to the technical or administrative controls or measures, not the human or behavioral factors, that can affect the client-side security. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 47. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 62.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?
Anti-virus software
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Anti-spyware software
Integrity checking software
The best solution to detect the use of P2P programs when the computer was connected to the office network is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS). An IPS is a device or a software that monitors, analyzes, and blocks the network traffic based on the predefined rules or policies, and that can prevent or stop any unauthorized or malicious access or activity on the network, such as P2P programs. An IPS can detect the use of P2P programs by inspecting the network packets, identifying the P2P protocols or signatures, and blocking or dropping the P2P traffic. Anti-virus software, anti-spyware software, and integrity checking software are not the best solutions to detect the use of P2P programs when the computer was connected to the office network, as they are related to the protection, removal, or verification of the software or files on the computer, not the monitoring, analysis, or blocking of the network traffic. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 512. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 528.
During an audit, the auditor finds evidence of potentially illegal activity. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action to take?
Immediately call the police
Work with the client to resolve the issue internally
Advise the person performing the illegal activity to cease and desist
Work with the client to report the activity to the appropriate authority
The most appropriate action to take when the auditor finds evidence of potentially illegal activity is to work with the client to report the activity to the appropriate authority. The auditor is a professional who performs an independent and objective examination of the system, the process, or the activity, to provide assurance, evaluation, or improvement. The auditor has a duty and a responsibility to report any evidence of potentially illegal activity that they find during the audit, as it can affect the security, the compliance, or the integrity of the system, the process, or the activity. The auditor should work with the client to report the activity to the appropriate authority, such as the law enforcement, the regulatory body, or the senior management, as it can ensure the cooperation, the communication, or the transparency between the auditor and the client, and it can follow the legal, the contractual, or the ethical obligations of the auditor and the client. The auditor should not immediately call the police, work with the client to resolve the issue internally, or advise the person performing the illegal activity to cease and desist, as they are not the most appropriate actions to take when the auditor finds evidence of potentially illegal activity, as they can bypass, undermine, or interfere with the cooperation, the communication, or the transparency between the auditor and the client, and they can violate the legal, the contractual, or the ethical obligations of the auditor and the client. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 894. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 910.
What do Capability Maturity Models (CMM) serve as a benchmark for in an organization?
Experience in the industry
Definition of security profiles
Human resource planning efforts
Procedures in systems development
Capability Maturity Models (CMM) are frameworks that describe the key elements of effective processes for various domains, such as software engineering, project management, or information security. CMM serve as a benchmark for an organization to assess its current level of maturity and identify the areas for improvement. CMM can help an organization to establish, standardize, measure, control, and optimize its procedures in systems development, which is the process of creating, maintaining, and enhancing information systems. Experience in the industry, definition of security profiles, and human resource planning efforts are not the main focus of CMM, although they may be influenced by the maturity level of the organization. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, Software Development Security, page 1034. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, Software Development Security, page 1060.
Which of the following is the MOST crucial for a successful audit plan?
Defining the scope of the audit to be performed
Identifying the security controls to be implemented
Working with the system owner on new controls
Acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant
An audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s activities, systems, processes, or controls to evaluate their adequacy, effectiveness, efficiency, and compliance with applicable standards, policies, laws, or regulations. An audit plan is a document that outlines the objectives, scope, methodology, criteria, schedule, and resources of an audit. The most crucial element of a successful audit plan is defining the scope of the audit to be performed, which is the extent and boundaries of the audit, such as the subject matter, the time period, the locations, the departments, the functions, the systems, or the processes to be audited. The scope of the audit determines what will be included or excluded from the audit, and it helps to ensure that the audit objectives are met and the audit resources are used efficiently and effectively. Identifying the security controls to be implemented, working with the system owner on new controls, and acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant are all important tasks in an audit, but they are not the most crucial for a successful audit plan, as they depend on the scope of the audit to be defined first. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 54. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 69.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.
Following best practice, where should the permitted access for each department and job classification combination be specified?
Security procedures
Security standards
Human resource policy
Human resource standards
The best place to specify the permitted access for each department and job classification combination is the security standards. Security standards are the documents that define the specific and measurable requirements or rules for the implementation and maintenance of the security policies and procedures. Security standards can help to ensure the consistency and the compliance of the security controls and measures across the organization, and to support the security objectives and principles, such as the least privilege and the separation of duties. Specifying the permitted access for each department and job classification combination in the security standards can help to enforce the role-based access control (RBAC) methodology, which assigns the permissions and privileges to the users or the devices based on their roles or functions in the organization. Security procedures, human resource policy, and human resource standards are not the best places to specify the permitted access for each department and job classification combination, as they are related to the steps or actions for the execution or operation of the security controls or measures, the general and strategic guidelines or objectives for the management or administration of the human resources, or the specific and measurable requirements or rules for the implementation and maintenance of the human resource policy, not the role-based access control methodology. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 46. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 61.
Which of the following secure startup mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart attacks?
Timing
Cold boot
Side channel
Acoustic cryptanalysis
Side channel attacks are a type of attack that exploit the physical characteristics of a system, such as power consumption, electromagnetic radiation, timing, sound, or temperature, to extract sensitive information. Secure startup mechanisms, such as secure boot or trusted boot, are primarily designed to thwart these types of attacks by verifying the integrity and authenticity of the system components before loading them into memory. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Security Architecture and Design, p. 201; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 3: Security Architecture and Engineering, p. 331.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.
In addition to authentication at the start of the user session, best practice would require re-authentication
periodically during a session.
for each business process.
at system sign-off.
after a period of inactivity.
The best practice would require re-authentication after a period of inactivity, in addition to authentication at the start of the user session. Authentication is a process of verifying the identity or the credentials of a user or a device that requests access to a system or a resource. Re-authentication is a process of repeating the authentication after a certain condition or event, such as a change of location, a change of role, a change of privilege, or a period of inactivity. Re-authentication can help to enhance the security and the accountability of the access control, as it can prevent or detect the unauthorized or malicious use of the user or the device credentials, and it can ensure that the user or the device is still active and valid. Re-authenticating after a period of inactivity can help to prevent the unauthorized or malicious access by someone who may have gained physical access to the user or the device session, such as a co-worker, a visitor, or a thief. Re-authenticating periodically during a session, for each business process, or at system sign-off are not the best practices, as they may not be necessary or effective for the security or the accountability of the access control, and they may cause inconvenience or frustration to the user or the device. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 685. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 701.
Without proper signal protection, embedded systems may be prone to which type of attack?
Brute force
Tampering
Information disclosure
Denial of Service (DoS)
The type of attack that embedded systems may be prone to without proper signal protection is information disclosure. Information disclosure is a type of attack that exposes or reveals sensitive or confidential information to unauthorized parties, such as attackers, competitors, or the public. Information disclosure can occur through various means, such as interception, leakage, or theft of the information. Embedded systems are systems that are integrated into other devices or machines, such as cars, medical devices, or industrial controllers, and perform specific functions or tasks. Embedded systems may communicate with other systems or devices through signals, such as radio frequency, infrared, or sound waves. Without proper signal protection, such as encryption, authentication, or shielding, embedded systems may be vulnerable to information disclosure, as the signals may be captured, analyzed, or modified by attackers, and the information contained in the signals may be compromised. Brute force, tampering, and denial of service are not the types of attack that embedded systems may be prone to without proper signal protection, as they are related to the guessing, alteration, or prevention of the access or functionality of the systems, not the exposure or revelation of the information. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 311. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 327.
For a service provider, which of the following MOST effectively addresses confidentiality concerns for customers using cloud computing?
Hash functions
Data segregation
File system permissions
Non-repudiation controls
For a service provider, data segregation is the most effective way to address confidentiality concerns for customers using cloud computing. Data segregation is the process of separating the data of different customers or tenants in a shared cloud environment, so that they cannot access or interfere with each other’s data. Data segregation can be achieved by using encryption, access control, virtualization, or other techniques. Data segregation can help to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the customer’s data, as well as to comply with the privacy and regulatory requirements. Hash functions, file system permissions, and non-repudiation controls are not the most effective ways to address confidentiality concerns for customers using cloud computing, as they do not provide the same level of isolation and protection as data segregation. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 337. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, Security Architecture and Engineering, page 353.
Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign -On (SSO) system?
Users are authenticated to one system at a time.
Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials.
Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login.
Only one user is using the system at a time.
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a technology that allows users to securely access multiple applications and services using just one set of credentials, such as a username and a password56
With SSO, users do not have to remember and enter multiple passwords for different applications and services, which can improve their convenience and productivity. SSO also enhances security, as users can use stronger passwords, avoid reusing passwords, and comply with password policies more easily. Moreover, SSO reduces the risk of phishing, credential theft, and password fatigue56
SSO is based on the concept of federated identity, which means that the identity of a user is shared and trusted across different systems that have established a trust relationship. SSO uses various protocols and standards, such as SAML, OAuth, OIDC, and Kerberos, to enable the exchange of identity information and authentication tokens between the systems56
What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service?
Some users are not provisioned into the service.
SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider.
Single users cannot be revoked from the service.
SAML tokens contain user information.
A common challenge when implementing SAML for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service is that some users are not provisioned into the service. Provisioning is a process of creating, updating, or deleting the user accounts or profiles in a service or an application, based on the user identity or credentials. When implementing SAML for identity integration, the on-premise environment acts as the identity provider, which authenticates the user and issues the SAML assertion, and the external service acts as the service provider, which receives the SAML assertion and grants access to the user. However, if the user account or profile is not provisioned or synchronized in the external service, the user may not be able to access the service, even if they have a valid SAML assertion. Therefore, a common challenge when implementing SAML for identity integration is to ensure that the user provisioning is consistent and accurate between the on-premise environment and the external service. SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider, single users can be revoked from the service, and SAML tokens contain user information are not common challenges when implementing SAML for identity integration, as they are related to the functionality, granularity, or content of the SAML protocol, not the provisioning of the user accounts or profiles. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 693. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 709.
Which of the following MUST system and database administrators be aware of and apply when configuring systems used for storing personal employee data?
Secondary use of the data by business users
The organization's security policies and standards
The business purpose for which the data is to be used
The overall protection of corporate resources and data
The thing that system and database administrators must be aware of and apply when configuring systems used for storing personal employee data is the organization’s security policies and standards. Security policies and standards are the documents that define the rules, guidelines, and procedures that govern the security of the organization’s information systems and data. Security policies and standards help to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information systems and data, and to comply with the legal or regulatory requirements. System and database administrators must be aware of and apply the organization’s security policies and standards when configuring systems used for storing personal employee data, as they are responsible for implementing and maintaining the security controls and measures that protect the personal employee data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or theft. Secondary use of the data by business users, the business purpose for which the data is to be used, and the overall protection of corporate resources and data are not the things that system and database administrators must be aware of and apply when configuring systems used for storing personal employee data, as they are related to the usage, purpose, or scope of the data, not the security of the data. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 35. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 48.
What is the MOST critical factor to achieve the goals of a security program?
Capabilities of security resources
Executive management support
Effectiveness of security management
Budget approved for security resources
The most critical factor to achieve the goals of a security program is the executive management support. The executive management is the highest level of authority or decision-making in the organization, such as the board of directors, the chief executive officer, or the chief information officer. The executive management support is the endorsement, the sponsorship, or the involvement of the executive management in the security program, such as the security planning, the security implementation, the security monitoring, or the security auditing. The executive management support is the most critical factor to achieve the goals of the security program, as it can provide the vision, the direction, or the strategy for the security program, and it can align the security program with the business needs and requirements. The executive management support can also provide the resources, the budget, or the authority for the security program, and it can foster the security culture, the security awareness, or the security governance in the organization. The executive management support can also influence the stakeholders, the customers, or the regulators, and it can demonstrate the commitment, the accountability, or the responsibility for the security program. Capabilities of security resources, effectiveness of security management, and budget approved for security resources are not the most critical factors to achieve the goals of the security program, as they are related to the skills, the performance, or the funding of the security program, not the endorsement, the sponsorship, or the involvement of the executive management in the security program. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 33. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 48.
Host-Based Intrusion Protection (HIPS) systems are often deployed in monitoring or learning mode during their initial implementation. What is the objective of starting in this mode?
Automatically create exceptions for specific actions or files
Determine which files are unsafe to access and blacklist them
Automatically whitelist actions or files known to the system
Build a baseline of normal or safe system events for review
A Host-Based Intrusion Protection (HIPS) system is a software that monitors and blocks malicious activities on a single host, such as a computer or a server. A HIPS system can also prevent unauthorized changes to the system configuration, files, or registry12
During the initial implementation, a HIPS system is often deployed in monitoring or learning mode, which means that it observes the normal behavior of the system and the applications running on it, without blocking or alerting on any events. The objective of starting in this mode is to automatically create exceptions for specific actions or files that are legitimate and safe, but may otherwise trigger false alarms or unwanted blocks by the HIPS system34
By creating exceptions, the HIPS system can reduce the number of false positives and improve its accuracy and efficiency. However, the monitoring or learning mode should not last too long, as it may also expose the system to potential attacks that are not detected or prevented by the HIPS system. Therefore, after a sufficient baseline of normal behavior is established, the HIPS system should be switched to a more proactive mode, such as alerting or blocking mode, which can actively respond to suspicious or malicious events
Which of the following is the MOST effective attack against cryptographic hardware modules?
Plaintext
Brute force
Power analysis
Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
The most effective attack against cryptographic hardware modules is power analysis. Power analysis is a type of side-channel attack that exploits the physical characteristics or behavior of a cryptographic device, such as a smart card, a hardware security module, or a cryptographic processor, to extract secret information, such as keys, passwords, or algorithms. Power analysis measures the power consumption or the electromagnetic radiation of the device, and analyzes the variations or patterns that correspond to the cryptographic operations or the data being processed. Power analysis can reveal the internal state or the logic of the device, and can bypass the security mechanisms or the tamper resistance of the device. Power analysis can be performed with low-cost and widely available equipment, and can be very difficult to detect or prevent. Plaintext, brute force, and man-in-the-middle (MITM) are not the most effective attacks against cryptographic hardware modules, as they are related to the encryption or transmission of the data, not the physical properties or behavior of the device. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Cryptography and Symmetric Key Algorithms, page 628. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Cryptography and Symmetric Key Algorithms, page 644.
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
The effectiveness of the security program can PRIMARILY be measured through
audit findings.
risk elimination.
audit requirements.
customer satisfaction.
The primary way to measure the effectiveness of the security program is through the audit findings. The audit findings are the results or the outcomes of the audit process, which is a systematic and independent examination of the security activities and initiatives, to determine whether they comply with the security policies and standards, and whether they achieve the security objectives and goals. The audit findings can help to evaluate the effectiveness of the security program, as they can identify and report the strengths and the weaknesses, the successes and the failures, and the gaps and the risks of the security program, and they can provide the recommendations and the feedback for the improvement and the enhancement of the security program. Risk elimination, audit requirements, and customer satisfaction are not the primary ways to measure the effectiveness of the security program, as they are related to the impossibility, the necessity, or the quality of the security program, not the evaluation or the assessment of the security program. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 39. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 54.
Which of the following is a detective access control mechanism?
Log review
Least privilege
Password complexity
Non-disclosure agreement
The access control mechanism that is detective is log review. Log review is a process of examining and analyzing the records or events of the system or network activity, such as user login, file access, or network traffic, that are stored in log files. Log review can help to detect and identify any unauthorized, abnormal, or malicious access or behavior, and to provide evidence or clues for further investigation or response. Log review is a detective access control mechanism, as it can discover or reveal the occurrence or the source of the security incidents or violations, after they have happened. Least privilege, password complexity, and non-disclosure agreement are not detective access control mechanisms, as they are related to the restriction, protection, or confidentiality of the access or information, not the detection or identification of the security incidents or violations. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 932. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 948.
Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?
System and data resources are properly identified
Access violations are logged and audited
Data file references are identified and linked
System security controls are fully integrated
The required step to determine classification and ownership is to ensure that the system and data resources are properly identified. Identification is the process of assigning unique names or labels to the system and data resources, such as hardware, software, files, databases, or networks. Identification helps to distinguish the system and data resources from each other, and to associate them with their respective owners, custodians, or users. Identification is a prerequisite for classification and ownership, which are the processes of assigning the value, sensitivity, and criticality of the system and data resources, and the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved in their protection and management. Logging and auditing access violations, identifying and linking data file references, and integrating system security controls are not required steps to determine classification and ownership, as they are related to the implementation and monitoring of the security policies and measures, not the identification of the system and data resources. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 39. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1, Security and Risk Management, page 52.
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is necessary in many systems given common types of password attacks. Which of the following is a correct list of password attacks?
Masquerading, salami, malware, polymorphism
Brute force, dictionary, phishing, keylogger
Zeus, netbus, rabbit, turtle
Token, biometrics, IDS, DLP
The correct list of password attacks is brute force, dictionary, phishing, and keylogger. Password attacks are the attacks that aim to guess, crack, or steal the passwords or the credentials of the users or the systems, and to gain unauthorized or malicious access to the information or the resources. Password attacks can include the following methods: - Brute force is a method that tries all possible combinations of characters or symbols until the correct password is found. - Dictionary is a method that uses a list of common or likely words or phrases as the input for guessing the password. - Phishing is a method that uses fraudulent emails or websites that impersonate legitimate entities or parties, and that trick the users into revealing their passwords or credentials. - Keylogger is a method that uses a software or a hardware device that records the keystrokes of the users, and that captures or transmits their passwords or credentials. Masquerading, salami, malware, and polymorphism are not password attacks, as they are related to the impersonation, manipulation, infection, or mutation of the data or the systems, not the guessing, cracking, or stealing of the passwords or the credentials. Zeus, netbus, rabbit, and turtle are not password attacks, as they are the names of specific types of malware, such as trojans, worms, or viruses, not the methods of attacking the passwords or the credentials. Token, biometrics, IDS, and DLP are not password attacks, as they are the types of security controls or technologies, such as authentication, identification, detection, or prevention, not the attacks on the passwords or the credentials. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 684. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, Identity and Access Management, page 700.
At a MINIMUM, audits of permissions to individual or group accounts should be scheduled
annually
to correspond with staff promotions
to correspond with terminations
continually
The minimum frequency for audits of permissions to individual or group accounts is continually. Audits of permissions are the processes of reviewing and verifying the user accounts and access rights on a system or a network, and ensuring that they are appropriate, necessary, and compliant with the policies and standards. Audits of permissions can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the accuracy and the reliability of the user accounts and access rights, identifying and removing any excessive, obsolete, or unauthorized access rights, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. Audits of permissions should be performed continually, which means that they should be conducted on a regular and consistent basis, without any interruption or delay. Continual audits of permissions can help to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, by detecting and addressing any changes or issues that may affect the user accounts and access rights, such as role changes, transfers, promotions, or terminations. Continual audits of permissions can also help to ensure the effectiveness and the feasibility of the audit process, by reducing the workload and the complexity of the audit tasks, and by providing timely and relevant feedback and results. Annually, to correspond with staff promotions, and to correspond with terminations are not the minimum frequencies for audits of permissions to individual or group accounts, although they may be related or possible frequencies. Annually means that the audits of permissions are performed once a year, which may not be sufficient or adequate to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, as the user accounts and access rights may change or become outdated more frequently than that, due to various factors, such as role changes, transfers, promotions, or terminations. Annually audits of permissions may also increase the workload and the complexity of the audit process, as they may involve a large number of user accounts and access rights to review and verify, and they may not provide timely and relevant feedback and results. To correspond with staff promotions means that the audits of permissions are performed whenever a staff member is promoted to a higher or a different position within the organization, which may affect their user accounts and access rights. To correspond with staff promotions audits of permissions can help to ensure that the user accounts and access rights are aligned with the current roles or functions of the staff members, and that they follow the principle of least privilege. However, to correspond with staff promotions audits of permissions may not be sufficient or adequate to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, as the user accounts and access rights may change or become outdated due to other factors, such as role changes, transfers, or terminations, and they may not be performed on a regular and consistent basis. To correspond with terminations means that the audits of permissions are performed whenever a staff member leaves the organization, which may affect their user accounts and access rights. To correspond with terminations audits of permissions can help to ensure that the user accounts and access rights are revoked or removed from the system or the network, and that they prevent any unauthorized or improper access or use. However, to correspond with terminations audits of permissions may not be sufficient or adequate to maintain the security and the integrity of the system or the network, as the user accounts and access rights may change or become outdated due to other factors, such as role changes, transfers, or promotions, and they may not be performed on a regular and consistent basis.
A security analyst for a large financial institution is reviewing network traffic related to an incident. The analyst determines the traffic is irrelevant to the investigation but in the process of the review, the analyst also finds that an applications data, which included full credit card cardholder data, is transferred in clear text between the server and user’s desktop. The analyst knows this violates the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS). Which of the following is the analyst’s next step?
Send the log file co-workers for peer review
Include the full network traffic logs in the incident report
Follow organizational processes to alert the proper teams to address the issue.
Ignore data as it is outside the scope of the investigation and the analyst’s role.
Section: Security Operations
Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?
parameterized database queries
whitelist input values
synchronized session tokens
use strong ciphers
The best mechanism to prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack is to use synchronized session tokens. A CSRF attack is a type of web application vulnerability that exploits the trust that a site has in a user’s browser. A CSRF attack occurs when a malicious site, email, or link tricks a user’s browser into sending a forged request to a vulnerable site, where the user is already authenticated. The vulnerable site cannot distinguish between the legitimate and the forged requests, and may perform an unwanted action on behalf of the user, such as changing a password, transferring funds, or deleting data. Synchronized session tokens are a technique to prevent CSRF attacks by adding a random and unique value to each request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before processing the request. The token is usually stored in a hidden form field or a custom HTTP header, and is tied to the user’s session. The token ensures that the request originates from the same site that issued it, and not from a malicious site. Synchronized session tokens are also known as CSRF tokens, anti-CSRF tokens, or state tokens. Parameterized database queries, whitelist input values, and use strong ciphers are not mechanisms to prevent CSRF attacks, although they may be useful for other types of web application vulnerabilities. Parameterized database queries are a technique to prevent SQL injection attacks by using placeholders or parameters for user input, instead of concatenating or embedding user input directly into the SQL query. Parameterized database queries ensure that the user input is treated as data and not as part of the SQL command. Whitelist input values are a technique to prevent input validation attacks by allowing only a predefined set of values or characters for user input, instead of rejecting or filtering out unwanted or malicious values or characters. Whitelist input values ensure that the user input conforms to the expected format and type. Use strong ciphers are a technique to prevent encryption attacks by using cryptographic algorithms and keys that are resistant to brute force, cryptanalysis, or other attacks. Use strong ciphers ensure that the encrypted data is confidential, authentic, and integral.
What is the second step in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?
Provisioning
Review
Approval
Revocation
The identity and access provisioning lifecycle is the process of managing the creation, modification, and termination of user accounts and access rights in an organization. The second step in this lifecycle is approval, which means that the identity and access requests must be authorized by the appropriate managers or administrators before they are implemented. Approval ensures that the principle of least privilege is followed and that only authorized users have access to the required resources.
Which of the following is part of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
A non-volatile tamper-resistant storage for storing both data and signing keys in a secure fashion
A protected Pre-Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) which specifies a method or a metric for “measuring”
the state of a computing platform
A secure processor targeted at managing digital keys and accelerating digital signing
A platform-independent software interface for accessing computer functions
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a secure processor targeted at managing digital keys and accelerating digital signing. A TPM is a cryptoprocessor chip that is embedded on a motherboard or a device, and that provides a secure and trustworthy environment for the execution and the storage of cryptographic operations and keys. A TPM can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and integrity of the data and the code, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering, and enabling remote attestation or verification. A TPM can perform various functions, such as:
A non-volatile tamper-resistant storage for storing both data and signing keys in a secure fashion, a protected Pre-Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) which specifies a method or a metric for “measuring” the state of a computing platform, and a platform-independent software interface for accessing computer functions are not part of a TPM, although they may be related or useful concepts or techniques. A non-volatile tamper-resistant storage for storing both data and signing keys in a secure fashion is a feature or a component of a TPM, but it is not the whole TPM. A non-volatile tamper-resistant storage is a type of memory or device that can retain the data and the keys even when the power is off, and that can resist physical or logical attacks or modifications. A non-volatile tamper-resistant storage can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the availability and the integrity of the data and the keys, preventing data loss or corruption, and facilitating the recovery and the restoration process. A protected Pre-Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) which specifies a method or a metric for “measuring” the state of a computing platform is a function or a result of a TPM, but it is not the whole TPM. A protected Pre-Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a firmware or a software that is responsible for initializing and testing the hardware and software components of a system or a device, and for loading and executing the operating system. A protected Pre-Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the performance and the functionality of the system or the device, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. A platform-independent software interface for accessing computer functions is a concept or a technique that is related to a TPM, but it is not the whole TPM. A platform-independent software interface is a software component or a layer that allows a user or an application to access and use the functions or the features of a computer system or a device, regardless of the type or the nature of the system or the device, such as the hardware, the software, or the operating system. A platform-independent software interface can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the usability and the interoperability of the system or the device, supporting the encryption and the authentication mechanisms, and enabling the segmentation and isolation of the system or the device.
A user has infected a computer with malware by connecting a Universal Serial Bus (USB) storage device.
Which of the following is MOST effective to mitigate future infections?
Develop a written organizational policy prohibiting unauthorized USB devices
Train users on the dangers of transferring data in USB devices
Implement centralized technical control of USB port connections
Encrypt removable USB devices containing data at rest
The most effective method to mitigate future infections caused by connecting a Universal Serial Bus (USB) storage device is to implement centralized technical control of USB port connections. USB port connections are the physical interfaces that allow USB devices, such as flash drives, keyboards, or mice, to connect to a computer or a network. USB port connections can pose a security risk, as they can be used to introduce or spread malware, to steal or leak data, or to bypass other security controls. Centralized technical control of USB port connections is a technique that uses a centralized system or a policy to monitor, restrict, or disable the USB port connections on the computers or the network. Centralized technical control of USB port connections can prevent or limit future infections caused by connecting a USB storage device, as it can block or allow the USB devices based on various criteria, such as the device type, the device ID, the user ID, the time, or the location. Centralized technical control of USB port connections can also provide some benefits for web security, such as enhancing the visibility and the auditability of the USB activities, enforcing the compliance and the consistency of the USB policies, and reducing the reliance and the burden on the end users. Develop a written organizational policy prohibiting unauthorized USB devices, train users on the dangers of transferring data in USB devices, and encrypt removable USB devices containing data at rest are not the most effective methods to mitigate future infections caused by connecting a USB storage device, although they may be related or useful techniques. Develop a written organizational policy prohibiting unauthorized USB devices is a technique that uses a formal document to define and communicate the rules and the expectations regarding the usage of USB devices on the computers or the network. Develop a written organizational policy prohibiting unauthorized USB devices can provide some benefits for web security, such as raising the awareness and the responsibility of the parties, establishing the standards and the guidelines for the USB activities, and providing the basis and the justification for the enforcement and the sanctions of the USB policies. However, develop a written organizational policy prohibiting unauthorized USB devices is not sufficient to prevent or limit future infections caused by connecting a USB storage device, as the policy may not be effectively implemented, communicated, or followed by the parties, and it may not be able to address the dynamic and the complex nature of the USB threats. Train users on the dangers of transferring data in USB devices is a technique that uses education and awareness programs to inform and instruct the users about the risks and the best practices of using USB devices on the computers or the network. Train users on the dangers of transferring data in USB devices can provide some benefits for web security, such as improving the knowledge and the skills of the users, changing the attitudes and the behaviors of the users, and empowering the users to make informed and secure decisions regarding the USB activities.
A post-implementation review has identified that the Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system was designed
to have gratuitous Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) disabled.
Why did the network architect likely design the VoIP system with gratuitous ARP disabled?
Gratuitous ARP requires the use of Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) 1.
Gratuitous ARP requires the use of insecure layer 3 protocols.
Gratuitous ARP requires the likelihood of a successful brute-force attack on the phone.
Gratuitous ARP requires the risk of a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack.
Gratuitous ARP is a special type of ARP message that a sender device broadcasts on the network without any other device requesting it. It can be useful for updating the ARP table, changing the address of an interface, or informing the network of the sender’s own MAC address. However, it also introduces the risk of a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack, where an attacker can send a spoofed gratuitous ARP message to trick other devices into associating a legitimate IP address with a malicious MAC address. This way, the attacker can intercept, modify, or redirect the traffic intended for the legitimate device. Therefore, the network architect likely designed the VoIP system with gratuitous ARP disabled to prevent such attacks and ensure the security and integrity of the voice communication. References: Gratuitous ARP – Definition and Use Cases - Practical Networking .net; Gratuitous_ARP - Wireshark
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
There are different terms related to Security Engineering, which is the discipline of designing, building, and maintaining secure systems. According to [1], Security Engineering is the art and science of building dependable systems. Some common terms and their definitions are:
The following table shows the possible matching of the Security Engineering terms to their definitions:
Security Engineering terms and definitions are important to understand and apply in the context of developing, deploying, and maintaining secure systems. Security Engineering terms and definitions can help to establish a common language and framework for security professionals, stakeholders, and users, and to communicate the security objectives, requirements, and issues of the system. Security Engineering terms and definitions can also help to guide the security engineering process, which involves the following steps: security planning, security analysis, security design, security implementation, security testing, security deployment, security operation, and security maintenance. Security Engineering terms and definitions can also help to support the security certification and accreditation (C&A) process, which involves the following tasks: security categorization, security control selection, security control implementation, security control assessment, security certification, security accreditation, and security monitoring.
Which type of test would an organization perform in order to locate and target exploitable defects?
Penetration
System
Performance
Vulnerability
Penetration testing is a type of test that an organization performs in order to locate and target exploitable defects in its information systems and networks. Penetration testing simulates a real-world attack scenario, where a tester, also known as a penetration tester or ethical hacker, tries to find and exploit the vulnerabilities in the system or network, using the same tools and techniques as a malicious attacker. The goal of penetration testing is to identify the weaknesses and gaps in the security posture of the organization, and to provide recommendations and solutions to mitigate or eliminate them. Penetration testing can help the organization improve its security awareness, compliance, and resilience, and prevent potential breaches or incidents.
The core component of Role Based Access Control (RBAC) must be constructed of defined data elements.
Which elements are required?
Users, permissions, operations, and protected objects
Roles, accounts, permissions, and protected objects
Users, roles, operations, and protected objects
Roles, operations, accounts, and protected objects
Role Based Access Control (RBAC) is a model of access control that assigns permissions to users based on their roles, rather than their individual identities. The core component of RBAC is the role, which is a collection of permissions that define what operations a user can perform on what protected objects. The required data elements for RBAC are:
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for protecting confidentially of data stored on a hard drive?
Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Secure Hash Algorithm 2(SHA-2)
The most appropriate method for protecting the confidentiality of data stored on a hard drive is to use the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data. AES can provide strong and efficient encryption for data at rest, as it uses a block cipher that operates on fixed-size blocks of data, and it supports various key sizes, such as 128, 192, or 256 bits. AES can protect the confidentiality of data stored on a hard drive by transforming the data into an unreadable form that can only be accessed by authorized parties who possess the correct key. AES can also provide some degree of integrity and authentication, as it can detect any modification or tampering of the encrypted data. Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES), Message Digest 5 (MD5), and Secure Hash Algorithm 2 (SHA-2) are not the most appropriate methods for protecting the confidentiality of data stored on a hard drive, although they may be related or useful cryptographic techniques. 3DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses three iterations of the Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm with two or three different keys to encrypt and decrypt data. 3DES can provide encryption for data at rest, but it is not as strong or efficient as AES, as it uses a smaller key size (56 bits per iteration), and it is slower and more complex than AES. MD5 is a hash function that produces a fixed-length output (128 bits) from a variable-length input. MD5 does not provide encryption for data at rest, as it does not use any key to transform the data, and it cannot be reversed to recover the original data. MD5 can provide some integrity for data at rest, as it can verify if the data has been changed or corrupted, but it is not secure or reliable, as it is vulnerable to collisions and pre-image attacks. SHA-2 is a hash function that produces a fixed-length output (224, 256, 384, or 512 bits) from a variable-length input. SHA-2 does not provide encryption for data at rest, as it does not use any key to transform the data, and it cannot be reversed to recover the original data. SHA-2 can provide integrity for data at rest, as it can verify if the data has been changed or corrupted, and it is more secure and reliable than MD5, as it is resistant to collisions and pre-image attacks.
Which of the following MUST be in place to recognize a system attack?
Stateful firewall
Distributed antivirus
Log analysis
Passive honeypot
Log analysis is the most essential method to recognize a system attack. Log analysis is the process of collecting, reviewing, and interpreting the records of events and activities that occur on a system or a network. Logs can provide valuable information and evidence about the source, nature, and impact of an attack, as well as the actions and responses of the system or the network. Log analysis can help to detect and analyze anomalies, patterns, trends, and indicators of compromise, as well as to identify and correlate the root cause, scope, and severity of an attack. Log analysis can also help to support incident response, forensic investigation, audit, and compliance activities. Log analysis requires the use of appropriate tools, techniques, and procedures, as well as the implementation of effective log management practices, such as log generation, collection, storage, retention, protection, and disposal. Stateful firewall, distributed antivirus, and passive honeypot are not the methods that must be in place to recognize a system attack, although they may be related or useful techniques. Stateful firewall is a type of network security device that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on the state, context, and rules of the network connections. Stateful firewall can help to prevent or mitigate some types of attacks, such as denial-of-service, spoofing, or port scanning, by filtering or blocking the packets that do not match the established or expected state of the connection. However, stateful firewall is not sufficient to recognize a system attack, as it may not be able to detect or analyze the attacks that bypass or exploit the firewall rules, such as application-layer attacks, encryption-based attacks, or insider attacks. Distributed antivirus is a type of malware protection solution that uses a centralized server and multiple agents or clients to scan, detect, and remove malware from the systems or the network. Distributed antivirus can help to prevent or mitigate some types of attacks, such as viruses, worms, or ransomware, by updating and applying the malware signatures, heuristics, or behavioral analysis to the systems or the network. However, distributed antivirus is not sufficient to recognize a system attack, as it may not be able to detect or analyze the attacks that evade or disable the antivirus solution, such as zero-day attacks, polymorphic malware, or rootkits. Passive honeypot is a type of decoy system or network that mimics the real system or network and attracts the attackers to interact with it, while monitoring and recording their activities. Passive honeypot can help to divert or distract some types of attacks, such as reconnaissance, scanning, or probing, by providing false or misleading information to the attackers, while collecting valuable intelligence about their techniques, tools, or motives. However, passive honeypot is not sufficient to recognize a system attack, as it may not be able to detect or analyze the attacks that target the real system or network, or that avoid or identify the honeypot.
What MUST each information owner do when a system contains data from multiple information owners?
Provide input to the Information System (IS) owner regarding the security requirements of the data
Review the Security Assessment report (SAR) for the Information System (IS) and authorize the IS to
operate.
Develop and maintain the System Security Plan (SSP) for the Information System (IS) containing the data
Move the data to an Information System (IS) that does not contain data owned by other information
owners
The information owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the data stored, processed, or transmitted by an Information System (IS). When a system contains data from multiple information owners, each information owner must provide input to the IS owner regarding the security requirements of the data, such as the classification, sensitivity, retention, and disposal of the data. The IS owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the operation and maintenance of the IS. The IS owner must ensure that the security requirements of the data are met and that the IS complies with the applicable laws and regulations. Reviewing the Security Assessment Report (SAR), developing and maintaining the System Security Plan (SSP), and moving the data to another IS are not the responsibilities of the information owner, but they may involve the information owner’s participation or approval. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 48; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 40.
Which of the BEST internationally recognized standard for evaluating security products and systems?
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
Common Criteria (CC)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)
The best internationally recognized standard for evaluating security products and systems is Common Criteria (CC), which is a framework or a methodology that defines and describes the criteria or the guidelines for the evaluation or the assessment of the security functionality and the security assurance of information technology (IT) products and systems, such as hardware, software, firmware, or network devices. Common Criteria (CC) can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the confidence and the trust in the security products and systems, preventing or mitigating some types of attacks or vulnerabilities, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. Common Criteria (CC) can involve various elements and roles, such as:
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS), Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), and Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) are not internationally recognized standards for evaluating security products and systems, although they may be related or relevant regulations or frameworks for security. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is a regulation or a framework that defines and describes the security requirements or the objectives for the protection and the management of the cardholder data or the payment card information, such as the credit card number, the expiration date, or the card verification value, and that applies to the entities or the organizations that are involved or engaged in the processing, the storage, or the transmission of the cardholder data or the payment card information, such as the merchants, the service providers, or the acquirers. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a regulation or a framework that defines and describes the security requirements or the objectives for the protection and the management of the protected health information (PHI) or the personal health information, such as the medical records, the diagnosis, or the treatment, and that applies to the entities or the organizations that are involved or engaged in the provision, the payment, or the operation of the health care services or the health care plans, such as the health care providers, the health care clearinghouses, or the health plans. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) is a regulation or a framework that defines and describes the security requirements or the objectives for the protection and the management of the financial information or the financial reports, such as the income statement, the balance sheet, or the cash flow statement, and that applies to the entities or the organizations
Which of the following is a characteristic of an internal audit?
An internal audit is typically shorter in duration than an external audit.
The internal audit schedule is published to the organization well in advance.
The internal auditor reports to the Information Technology (IT) department
Management is responsible for reading and acting upon the internal audit results
A characteristic of an internal audit is that management is responsible for reading and acting upon the internal audit results. An internal audit is an independent and objective evaluation or assessment of the internal controls, processes, or activities of an organization, performed by a group of auditors or professionals who are part of the organization, such as the internal audit department or the audit committee. An internal audit can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the accuracy and the reliability of the operations, preventing or detecting fraud or errors, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. An internal audit can involve various steps and roles, such as:
Management is responsible for reading and acting upon the internal audit results, as they are the primary users or recipients of the internal audit report, and they have the authority and the accountability to implement or execute the recommendations or the improvements suggested by the internal audit report, as well as to report or disclose the internal audit results to the external parties, such as the regulators, the shareholders, or the customers. An internal audit is typically shorter in duration than an external audit, the internal audit schedule is published to the organization well in advance, and the internal auditor reports to the audit committee are not characteristics of an internal audit, although they may be related or possible aspects of an internal audit. An internal audit is typically shorter in duration than an external audit, as it is performed by a group of auditors or professionals who are part of the organization, and who have more familiarity and access to the internal controls, processes, or activities of the organization, compared to a group of auditors or professionals who are outside the organization, and who have less familiarity and access to the internal controls, processes, or activities of the organization. However, an internal audit is typically shorter in duration than an external audit is not a characteristic of an internal audit, as it is not a defining or a distinguishing feature of an internal audit, and it may vary depending on the type or the nature of the internal audit, such as the objectives, scope, criteria, or methodology of the internal audit. The internal audit schedule is published to the organization well in advance, as it is a good practice or a technique that can help to ensure the transparency and the accountability of the internal audit, as well as to facilitate the coordination and the cooperation of the internal audit stakeholders, such as the management, the audit committee, the internal auditor, or the audit team.
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack?
Have the service provider block the soiree address.
Have the soiree service provider block the address.
Block the source address at the firewall.
Block all inbound traffic until the flood ends.
The best way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack is to have the service provider block the source address. A flood attack is a type of denial-of-service attack that aims to overwhelm the target system or network with a large amount of traffic, such as SYN packets, ICMP packets, or UDP packets. An externally sourced flood attack is a flood attack that originates from outside the target’s network, such as from the internet. Having the service provider block the source address can help to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack, as it can prevent the malicious traffic from reaching the target’s network, and thus conserve the network bandwidth and resources. Having the source service provider block the address, blocking the source address at the firewall, or blocking all inbound traffic until the flood ends are not the best ways to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack, as they may not be feasible, effective, or efficient, respectively. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6: Communication and Network Security, page 745; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 525.
Which of the following is the MOST challenging issue in apprehending cyber criminals?
They often use sophisticated method to commit a crime.
It is often hard to collect and maintain integrity of digital evidence.
The crime is often committed from a different jurisdiction.
There is often no physical evidence involved.
The most challenging issue in apprehending cyber criminals is that the crime is often committed from a different jurisdiction. This means that the cyber criminals may operate from a different country or region than the victim or the target, and thus may be subject to different laws, regulations, and enforcement agencies. This can create difficulties and delays in identifying, locating, and prosecuting the cyber criminals, as well as in obtaining and preserving the digital evidence. The other issues, such as the sophistication of the methods, the integrity of the evidence, and the lack of physical evidence, are also challenges in apprehending cyber criminals, but they are not as significant as the jurisdiction issue. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations, page 475; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 544.
Which security access policy contains fixed security attributes that are used by the system to determine a
user’s access to a file or object?
Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Access Control List (ACL)
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Authorized user control
The security access policy that contains fixed security attributes that are used by the system to determine a user’s access to a file or object is Mandatory Access Control (MAC). MAC is a type of access control model that assigns permissions to users and objects based on their security labels, which indicate their level of sensitivity or trustworthiness. MAC is enforced by the system or the network, rather than by the owner or the creator of the object, and it cannot be modified or overridden by the users. MAC can provide some benefits for security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and the integrity of the data, preventing unauthorized access or disclosure, and supporting the audit and compliance activities. MAC is commonly used in military or government environments, where the data is classified according to its level of sensitivity, such as top secret, secret, confidential, or unclassified. The users are granted security clearance based on their level of trustworthiness, such as their background, their role, or their need to know. The users can only access the objects that have the same or lower security classification than their security clearance, and the objects can only be accessed by the users that have the same or higher security clearance than their security classification. This is based on the concept of no read up and no write down, which requires that a user can only read data of lower or equal sensitivity level, and can only write data of higher or equal sensitivity level. MAC contains fixed security attributes that are used by the system to determine a user’s access to a file or object, by using the following methods:
As part of the security assessment plan, the security professional has been asked to use a negative testing strategy on a new website. Which of the following actions would be performed?
Use a web scanner to scan for vulnerabilities within the website.
Perform a code review to ensure that the database references are properly addressed.
Establish a secure connection to the web server to validate that only the approved ports are open.
Enter only numbers in the web form and verify that the website prompts the user to enter a valid input.
A negative testing strategy is a type of software testing that aims to verify how the system handles invalid or unexpected inputs, errors, or conditions. A negative testing strategy can help identify potential bugs, vulnerabilities, or failures that could compromise the functionality, security, or usability of the system. One example of a negative testing strategy is to enter only numbers in a web form that expects a text input, such as a name or an email address, and verify that the website prompts the user to enter a valid input. This can help ensure that the website has proper input validation and error handling mechanisms, and that it does not accept or process any malicious or malformed data. A web scanner, a code review, and a secure connection are not examples of a negative testing strategy, as they do not involve providing invalid or unexpected inputs to the system.
A Denial of Service (DoS) attack on a syslog server exploits weakness in which of the following protocols?
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
A DoS attack on a syslog server exploits weakness in TCP and UDP protocols. A syslog server is a server that collects and stores log messages from various devices on a network, such as routers, switches, firewalls, or servers. A syslog server uses either TCP or UDP protocols to receive log messages from the devices. A DoS attack on a syslog server can exploit the weakness of these protocols by sending a large volume of fake or malformed log messages to the syslog server, causing it to crash or become unresponsive. The other protocols are not relevant to a syslog server or a DoS attack. References: Denial-of-Service Attacks: History, Techniques & Prevention; What is a syslog server? | SolarWinds MSP.
An organization plan on purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support its business model. Which unique consideration should be made part of the contractual agreement potential long-term risks associated with creating this dependency?
A source code escrow clause
Right to request an independent review of the software source code
Due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements
Access to the technical documentation
A source code escrow clause is a unique consideration that should be made part of the contractual agreement when purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support the business model. A source code escrow clause is a provision that requires the vendor to deposit the source code of the software product with a trusted third party, who will release it to the customer under certain conditions, such as the vendor’s bankruptcy, insolvency, or failure to provide maintenance or support. A source code escrow clause can help to mitigate the potential long-term risks associated with creating a dependency on a small vendor, such as losing access to the software product, being unable to fix bugs or vulnerabilities, or being unable to modify or update the software product. A right to request an independent review of the software source code, a due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements, and an access to the technical documentation are not unique considerations, but common ones that should be included in any software acquisition contract. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 65; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 57.
Attack trees are MOST useful for which of the following?
Determining system security scopes
Generating attack libraries
Enumerating threats
Evaluating Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Attack trees are most useful for enumerating threats. Attack trees are graphical models that represent the possible ways that an attacker can exploit a system or achieve a goal. Attack trees consist of nodes that represent the attacker’s actions or conditions, and branches that represent the logical relationships between the nodes. Attack trees can help to enumerate the threats that the system faces, as well as to analyze the likelihood, impact, and countermeasures of each threat. Attack trees are not useful for determining system security scopes, generating attack libraries, or evaluating DoS attacks, although they may be used as inputs or outputs for these tasks. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations, page 499; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 552.
When determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability, which of the following is the MOST important?
Countermeasure effectiveness
Type of potential loss
Incident likelihood
Information ownership
Information ownership is the most important factor when determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability. Information ownership is the concept that assigns the roles and responsibilities for the creation, maintenance, protection, and disposal of information assets within an organization. Information owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and accountability for the information assets, and who can make decisions regarding the information lifecycle, classification, access, and usage. Information owners are also responsible for accepting or rejecting the risk associated with the information assets, and for ensuring that the risk is managed and communicated appropriately. Information owners can delegate some of their responsibilities to other roles, such as information custodians, information users, or information stewards, but they cannot delegate their accountability for the information assets and the associated risk. Countermeasure effectiveness, type of potential loss, and incident likelihood are not the most important factors when determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability, although they are relevant or useful factors. Countermeasure effectiveness is the measure of how well a security control reduces or eliminates the risk. Countermeasure effectiveness can help to evaluate the cost-benefit and performance of the security control, and to determine the level of residual risk. Type of potential loss is the measure of the adverse impact or consequence that can result from a risk event. Type of potential loss can include financial, operational, reputational, legal, or strategic losses. Type of potential loss can help to assess the severity and priority of the risk, and to justify the investment and implementation of the security control. Incident likelihood is the measure of the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring. Incident likelihood can be influenced by various factors, such as the threat capability, the vulnerability exposure, the environmental conditions, or the historical data. Incident likelihood can help to estimate the level and trend of the risk, and to select the appropriate risk response and security control.
A security professional determines that a number of outsourcing contracts inherited from a previous merger do not adhere to the current security requirements. Which of the following BEST minimizes the risk of this
happening again?
Define additional security controls directly after the merger
Include a procurement officer in the merger team
Verify all contracts before a merger occurs
Assign a compliancy officer to review the merger conditions
The best way to minimize the risk of inheriting outsourcing contracts that do not adhere to the current security requirements is to verify all contracts before a merger occurs. This means that the security professionals involved in the merger should review and assess the security clauses, standards, and practices of the contracts of the merging parties, and identify any gaps, conflicts, or inconsistencies with the current security requirements. This can help to ensure that the outsourcing contracts are aligned with the security objectives, policies, and regulations of the merged organization, and that the security risks and responsibilities are clearly defined and agreed upon by all parties. Verifying all contracts before a merger occurs can also help to avoid any legal, financial, or operational issues that may arise from non-compliance or breach of contract. Defining additional security controls directly after the merger, including a procurement officer in the merger team, and assigning a compliance officer to review the merger conditions are all possible ways to minimize the risk of inheriting outsourcing contracts that do not adhere to the current security requirements, but they are not as effective as verifying all contracts before a merger occurs. Defining additional security controls directly after the merger may be too late, as the outsourcing contracts may already be in effect and may not be easily modified or terminated. Including a procurement officer in the merger team may be helpful, as the procurement officer can oversee the contracting process and ensure that the security requirements are met, but the procurement officer may not have the technical expertise or authority to verify the security clauses, standards, and practices of the contracts. Assigning a compliance officer to review the merger conditions may be useful, as the compliance officer can monitor and audit the compliance status and performance of the outsourcing contracts, but the compliance officer may not have the power or influence to change or enforce the security requirements of the contracts.
Which of the following is a responsibility of a data steward?
Ensure alignment of the data governance effort to the organization.
Conduct data governance interviews with the organization.
Document data governance requirements.
Ensure that data decisions and impacts are communicated to the organization.
A responsibility of a data steward is to ensure that data decisions and impacts are communicated to the organization. A data steward is a role or a function that is responsible for managing and maintaining the quality and the usability of the data within a specific data domain or a business area, such as finance, marketing, or human resources. A data steward can provide some benefits for data governance, which is the process of establishing and enforcing the policies and standards for the collection, use, storage, and protection of data, such as enhancing the accuracy and the reliability of the data, preventing or detecting errors or inconsistencies, and supporting the audit and the compliance activities. A data steward can perform various tasks or duties, such as:
Ensuring that data decisions and impacts are communicated to the organization is a responsibility of a data steward, as it can help to ensure the transparency and the accountability of the data governance process, as well as to facilitate the coordination and the cooperation of the data governance stakeholders, such as the data owners, the data custodians, the data users, and the data governance team. Ensuring alignment of the data governance effort to the organization, conducting data governance interviews with the organization, and documenting data governance requirements are not responsibilities of a data steward, although they may be related or possible tasks or duties. Ensuring alignment of the data governance effort to the organization is a responsibility of the data governance team, which is a group of experts or advisors who are responsible for defining and implementing the data governance policies and standards, as well as for overseeing and evaluating the data governance process and performance. Conducting data governance interviews with the organization is a task or a technique that can be used by the data governance team, the data steward, or the data auditor, to collect and analyze the information and the feedback about the data governance process and performance, from the data governance stakeholders, such as the data owners, the data custodians, the data users, or the data consumers. Documenting data governance requirements is a task or a technique that can be used by the data governance team, the data owner, or the data user, to specify and describe the needs and the expectations of the data governance process and performance, such as the data quality, the data security, or the data compliance.
Match the name of access control model with its associated restriction.
Drag each access control model to its appropriate restriction access on the right.
Which of the following is a benefit in implementing an enterprise Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?
Password requirements are simplified.
Risk associated with orphan accounts is reduced.
Segregation of duties is automatically enforced.
Data confidentiality is increased.
A benefit in implementing an enterprise Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution is that the risk associated with orphan accounts is reduced. An orphan account is an account that belongs to a user who has left the organization or changed roles, but the account has not been deactivated or deleted. An orphan account poses a security risk, as it can be exploited by unauthorized users or attackers to gain access to the system or data. An enterprise IAM solution is a system that manages the identification, authentication, authorization, and provisioning of users and devices across the organization. An enterprise IAM solution can help to reduce the risk associated with orphan accounts by automating the account lifecycle management, such as creating, updating, suspending, or deleting accounts based on the user status, role, or policy. An enterprise IAM solution can also help to monitor and audit the account activity, and to detect and remediate any orphan accounts. Password requirements are simplified, segregation of duties is automatically enforced, and data confidentiality is increased are all possible benefits or features of an enterprise IAM solution, but they are not the best answer to the question. Password requirements are simplified by an enterprise IAM solution that supports single sign-on (SSO) or federated identity management (FIM), which allow the user to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials. Segregation of duties is automatically enforced by an enterprise IAM solution that implements role-based access control (RBAC) or attribute-based access control (ABAC), which grant or deny access to resources based on the user role or attributes. Data confidentiality is increased by an enterprise IAM solution that encrypts or masks the sensitive data, or applies data loss prevention (DLP) or digital rights management (DRM) policies to the data.
Which of the following would BEST support effective testing of patch compatibility when patches are applied to an organization’s systems?
Standardized configurations for devices
Standardized patch testing equipment
Automated system patching
Management support for patching
Standardized configurations for devices can help to reduce the complexity and variability of the systems that need to be patched, and thus facilitate the testing of patch compatibility. Standardized configurations can also help to ensure that the patches are applied consistently and correctly across the organization. Standardized patch testing equipment, automated system patching, and management support for patching are also important factors for effective patch management, but they are not directly related to testing patch compatibility. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Security Engineering, page 605; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3: Security Architecture and Engineering, page 386.
Which of the following is the MOST important security goal when performing application interface testing?
Confirm that all platforms are supported and function properly
Evaluate whether systems or components pass data and control correctly to one another
Verify compatibility of software, hardware, and network connections
Examine error conditions related to external interfaces to prevent application details leakage
The most important security goal when performing application interface testing is to examine error conditions related to external interfaces to prevent application details leakage. Application interface testing is a type of testing that focuses on the interactions between different systems or components through their interfaces, such as APIs, web services, or protocols. Error conditions related to external interfaces can occur when the input, output, or communication is invalid, incomplete, or unexpected. These error conditions can cause the application to reveal sensitive or confidential information, such as error messages, stack traces, configuration files, or database queries, which can be exploited by attackers to gain access or compromise the system. Therefore, it is important to examine these error conditions and ensure that the application handles them properly and securely. Confirming that all platforms are supported and function properly, evaluating whether systems or components pass data and control correctly to one another, and verifying compatibility of software, hardware, and network connections are not security goals, but functional or performance goals of application interface testing. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Software Development Security, page 1000; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7: Software Development Security, page 922.
What does electronic vaulting accomplish?
It protects critical files.
It ensures the fault tolerance of Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) systems
It stripes all database records
It automates the Disaster Recovery Process (DRP)
Section: Security Operations
Which of the following are important criteria when designing procedures and acceptance criteria for acquired software?
Code quality, security, and origin
Architecture, hardware, and firmware
Data quality, provenance, and scaling
Distributed, agile, and bench testing
Code quality, security, and origin are important criteria when designing procedures and acceptance criteria for acquired software. Code quality refers to the degree to which the software meets the functional and nonfunctional requirements, as well as the standards and best practices for coding. Security refers to the degree to which the software protects the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system. Origin refers to the source and ownership of the software, as well as the licensing and warranty terms. Architecture, hardware, and firmware are not criteria for acquired software, but for the system that hosts the software. Data quality, provenance, and scaling are not criteria for acquired software, but for the data that the software processes. Distributed, agile, and bench testing are not criteria for acquired software, but for the software development and testing methods. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Software Development Security, page 947; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7: Software Development Security, page 869.
A minimal implementation of endpoint security includes which of the following?
Trusted platforms
Host-based firewalls
Token-based authentication
Wireless Access Points (AP)
A minimal implementation of endpoint security includes host-based firewalls. Endpoint security is the practice of protecting the devices that connect to a network, such as laptops, smartphones, tablets, or servers, from malicious attacks or unauthorized access. Endpoint security can involve various technologies and techniques, such as antivirus, encryption, authentication, patch management, or device control. Host-based firewalls are one of the basic and essential components of endpoint security, as they provide network-level protection for the individual devices. Host-based firewalls are software applications that monitor and filter the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a device, based on a set of rules or policies. Host-based firewalls can prevent or mitigate some types of attacks, such as denial-of-service, port scanning, or unauthorized connections, by blocking or allowing the packets that match or violate the firewall rules. Host-based firewalls can also provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as enhancing the visibility and the auditability of the network activities, enforcing the compliance and the consistency of the firewall policies, and reducing the reliance and the burden on the network-based firewalls. Trusted platforms, token-based authentication, and wireless access points (AP) are not the components that are included in a minimal implementation of endpoint security, although they may be related or useful technologies. Trusted platforms are hardware or software components that provide a secure and trustworthy environment for the execution of applications or processes on a device. Trusted platforms can involve various mechanisms, such as trusted platform modules (TPM), secure boot, or trusted execution technology (TXT). Trusted platforms can provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as enhancing the confidentiality and integrity of the data and the code, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering, and enabling remote attestation or verification. However, trusted platforms are not a minimal or essential component of endpoint security, as they are not widely available or supported on all types of devices, and they may not be compatible or interoperable with some applications or processes. Token-based authentication is a technique that uses a physical or logical device, such as a smart card, a one-time password generator, or a mobile app, to generate or store a credential that is used to verify the identity of the user who accesses a network or a system. Token-based authentication can provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as enhancing the security and reliability of the authentication process, preventing password theft or reuse, and enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA). However, token-based authentication is not a minimal or essential component of endpoint security, as it does not provide protection for the device itself, but only for the user access credentials, and it may require additional infrastructure or support to implement and manage. Wireless access points (AP) are hardware devices that allow wireless devices, such as laptops, smartphones, or tablets, to connect to a wired network, such as the Internet or a local area network (LAN). Wireless access points (AP) can provide some benefits for endpoint security, such as extending the network coverage and accessibility, supporting the encryption and authentication mechanisms, and enabling the segmentation and isolation of the wireless network. However, wireless access points (AP) are not a component of endpoint security, as they are not installed or configured on the individual devices, but on the network infrastructure, and they may introduce some security risks, such as signal interception, rogue access points, or unauthorized connections.
Due to system constraints, a group of system administrators must share a high-level access set of credentials.
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate to implement?
Increased console lockout times for failed logon attempts
Reduce the group in size
A credential check-out process for a per-use basis
Full logging on affected systems
The most appropriate measure to implement when a group of system administrators must share a high-level access set of credentials due to system constraints is a credential check-out process for a per-use basis. This means that the system administrators must request and obtain the credentials from a secure source each time they need to use them, and return them after they finish their tasks. This can help to reduce the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of the credentials, as well as to enforce accountability and traceability of the system administrators’ actions. Increasing console lockout times, reducing the group size, and enabling full logging are not as effective as a credential check-out process, as they do not address the root cause of the problem, which is the sharing of the credentials. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Security Engineering, page 633; Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3: Security Architecture and Engineering, page 412.
A company seizes a mobile device suspected of being used in committing fraud. What would be the BEST method used by a forensic examiner to isolate the powered-on device from the network and preserve the evidence?
Put the device in airplane mode
Suspend the account with the telecommunication provider
Remove the SIM card
Turn the device off
The best method used by a forensic examiner to isolate the powered-on device from the network and preserve the evidence is to put the device in airplane mode. Airplane mode is a feature that disables the wireless communication functions of the device, such as cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or GPS. Putting the device in airplane mode can isolate the device from the network and prevent any remote access, modification, deletion, or wiping of the data on the device. Putting the device in airplane mode can also preserve the evidence by maintaining the current state of the device, such as the battery level, the signal strength, the date and time, or the notifications. Putting the device in airplane mode can also avoid any legal or ethical issues that may arise from intercepting or monitoring the network traffic of the device. Suspend the account with the telecommunication provider, remove the SIM card, and turn the device off are not the best methods used by a forensic examiner to isolate the powered-on device from the network and preserve the evidence, although they may be possible or alternative options. Suspend the account with the telecommunication provider is a method that involves contacting the service provider and requesting them to disable the service or the account associated with the device. Suspend the account with the telecommunication provider can isolate the device from the cellular network, but it may not isolate the device from other wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. Suspend the account with the telecommunication provider may also require a court order or a warrant, and it may alert the owner or the user of the device. Remove the SIM card is a method that involves physically removing the subscriber identity module (SIM) card from the device. The SIM card is a small chip that stores the information and the credentials of the user and the service provider, and it enables the device to connect to the cellular network. Remove the SIM card can isolate the device from the cellular network, but it may not isolate the device from other wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. Remove the SIM card may also alter or damage the data on the SIM card or the device, and it may require special tools or skills. Turn the device off is a method that involves powering off the device completely. Turn the device off can isolate the device from all wireless networks, such as cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or GPS. Turn the device off may also prevent any further data loss or corruption on the device. However, turn the device off may also cause some data to be erased or overwritten, such as the data in the volatile memory (RAM) or the temporary files. Turn the device off may also trigger some security mechanisms, such as encryption, password, or biometric lock, that may prevent or hinder the access to the data on the device.
A control to protect from a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attach has been determined to stop 50% of attacks, and additionally reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. What is the residual risk?
25%
50%
75%
100%
The residual risk is 25% in this scenario. Residual risk is the portion of risk that remains after security measures have been applied to mitigate the risk. Residual risk can be calculated by subtracting the risk reduction from the total risk. In this scenario, the total risk is 100%, and the risk reduction is 75%. The risk reduction is 75% because the control stops 50% of attacks, and reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. Therefore, the residual risk is 100% - 75% = 25%. Alternatively, the residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact of the remaining risk. In this scenario, the probability of an attack is 50%, and the impact of an attack is 50%. Therefore, the residual risk is 50% x 50% = 25%. 50%, 75%, and 100% are not the correct answers to the question, as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the residual risk.
Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?
Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)
Stateful firewalls
Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools
Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools are the best network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress. NBA tools are devices or software that monitor and analyze the network traffic and activities, and detect any anomalies or deviations from the normal or expected behavior. NBA tools use various techniques, such as statistical analysis, machine learning, artificial intelligence, or heuristics, to establish a baseline of the network behavior, and to identify any outliers or indicators of compromise. NBA tools can provide several benefits, such as:
The other options are not the best network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress, but rather network defenses that have other limitations or drawbacks. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) are devices or software that monitor and block the network traffic and activities that match the predefined signatures or rules of known attacks. IPS can provide a proactive and preventive layer of security, but they cannot detect or stop unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that do not match any signatures or rules, or that can evade or disable the IPS. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are devices or software that monitor and alert the network traffic and activities that match the predefined signatures or rules of known attacks. IDS can provide a reactive and detective layer of security, but they cannot detect or alert unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that do not match any signatures or rules, or that can evade or disable the IDS. Stateful firewalls are devices or software that filter and control the network traffic and activities based on the state and context of the network sessions, such as the source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, protocol types, and sequence numbers. Stateful firewalls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security, but they cannot filter or control unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks that use valid or spoofed network sessions, or that can exploit or bypass the firewall rules.
Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?
WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)
WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)
WEP uses Diffie-Hellman
WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)
WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV) is the factor that contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol. WEP is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi. WEP uses the RC4 stream cipher to encrypt the data packets, and the CRC-32 checksum to verify the data integrity. WEP also uses a shared secret key, which is concatenated with a 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV), to generate the keystream for the RC4 encryption. WEP has several weaknesses and vulnerabilities, such as:
WEP has been deprecated and replaced by more secure protocols, such as Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) or Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2), which use stronger encryption and authentication methods, such as the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), or the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).
The other options are not factors that contribute to the weakness of WEP, but rather factors that are irrelevant or incorrect. WEP does not use Message Digest 5 (MD5), which is a hash function that produces a 128-bit output from a variable-length input. WEP does not use Diffie-Hellman, which is a method for generating a shared secret key between two parties. WEP does use an Initialization Vector (IV), which is a 24-bit value that is concatenated with the secret key.
Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Link Control Protocol (LCP)
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)
Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats. PPP is a data link layer protocol that provides a standard method for transporting network layer packets over point-to-point links, such as serial lines, modems, or dial-up connections. PPP supports various network layer protocols, such as IP, IPX, or AppleTalk, and it can encapsulate them in a common frame format. PPP also provides features such as authentication, compression, error detection, and multilink aggregation. LCP is a subprotocol of PPP that is responsible for establishing, configuring, maintaining, and terminating the point-to-point connection. LCP negotiates and agrees on various options and parameters for the PPP link, such as the maximum transmission unit (MTU), the authentication method, the compression method, the error detection method, and the packet format. LCP uses a series of messages, such as configure-request, configure-ack, configure-nak, configure-reject, terminate-request, terminate-ack, code-reject, protocol-reject, echo-request, echo-reply, and discard-request, to communicate and exchange information between the PPP peers.
The other options are not used by PPP to determine packet formats, but rather for other purposes. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol that allows the creation of virtual private networks (VPNs) over public networks, such as the Internet. L2TP encapsulates PPP frames in IP datagrams and sends them across the tunnel between two L2TP endpoints. L2TP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is an authentication protocol that is used by PPP to verify the identity of the remote peer before allowing access to the network. CHAP uses a challenge-response mechanism that involves a random number (nonce) and a hash function to prevent replay attacks. CHAP does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a transport. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP) is not a valid option, as there is no such protocol with this name. There is a Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE), which is a protocol that encapsulates PPP frames in Ethernet frames and allows the use of PPP over Ethernet networks. PPPoE does not determine the packet format of PPP, but rather uses it as a payload.
In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?
Transport layer
Application layer
Network layer
Session layer
The transport layer of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node. The TCP/IP stack is a simplified version of the OSI model, and it consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and link. The transport layer is the third layer of the TCP/IP stack, and it is responsible for providing reliable and efficient end-to-end data transfer between two nodes on a network. The transport layer uses protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP), to segment, sequence, acknowledge, and reassemble the data packets, and to handle error detection and correction, flow control, and congestion control. The transport layer also provides connection-oriented or connectionless services, depending on the protocol used.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, which means that it establishes a logical connection between two nodes before exchanging data, and it maintains the connection until the data transfer is complete. TCP uses a three-way handshake to negotiate and establish a connection with another node. The three-way handshake works as follows:
UDP is a connectionless protocol, which means that it does not establish or maintain a connection between two nodes, but rather sends data packets independently and without any guarantee of delivery, order, or integrity. UDP does not use a handshake or any other mechanism to negotiate and establish a connection with another node, but rather relies on the application layer to handle any connection-related issues.
What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack?
To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable
To intercept network traffic without authorization
To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices
To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity
The purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity. IP spoofing is a technique that involves creating and sending IP packets with a forged source IP address, which is usually the IP address of a trusted or authorized host. IP spoofing can be used for various malicious purposes, such as:
The purpose of IP spoofing is to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity, because it allows the attacker to evade detection, avoid responsibility, and exploit trust relationships.
The other options are not the main purposes of IP spoofing, but rather the possible consequences or methods of IP spoofing. To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable is a possible consequence of IP spoofing, as it can cause a DoS or DDoS attack. To intercept network traffic without authorization is a possible method of IP spoofing, as it can be used to hijack or intercept a TCP session. To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices is not a valid option, as IP spoofing involves forging the source address, not the destination address.
An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?
Add a new rule to the application layer firewall
Block access to the service
Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Patch the application source code
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a web-based system does not properly check, filter, or sanitize the input data that is received from the users or other sources, or does not properly handle the errors or exceptions that are generated by the system. An input validation and exception handling vulnerability can lead to various attacks, such as:
An application layer firewall is a device or software that operates at the application layer of the OSI model and inspects the application layer payload or the content of the data packets. An application layer firewall can provide various functions, such as:
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall is the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, because it can prevent or reduce the impact of the attacks by filtering or blocking the malicious or invalid input data that exploit the vulnerability. For example, a new rule can be added to the application layer firewall to:
Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can be done quickly and easily, without requiring any changes or patches to the web-based system, which can be time-consuming and risky, especially for a critical system. Adding a new rule to the application layer firewall can also be done remotely and centrally, without requiring any physical access or installation on the web-based system, which can be inconvenient and costly, especially for a distributed system.
The other options are not the most suited to quickly implement a control for an input validation and exception handling vulnerability on a critical web-based system, but rather options that have other limitations or drawbacks. Blocking access to the service is not the most suited option, because it can cause disruption and unavailability of the service, which can affect the business operations and customer satisfaction, especially for a critical system. Blocking access to the service can also be a temporary and incomplete solution, as it does not address the root cause of the vulnerability or prevent the attacks from occurring again. Installing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not the most suited option, because IDS only monitors and detects the attacks, and does not prevent or respond to them. IDS can also generate false positives or false negatives, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of the detection. IDS can also be overwhelmed or evaded by the attacks, which can affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the detection. Patching the application source code is not the most suited option, because it can take a long time and require a lot of resources and testing to identify, fix, and deploy the patch, especially for a complex and critical system. Patching the application source code can also introduce new errors or vulnerabilities, which can affect the functionality and security of the system. Patching the application source code can also be difficult or impossible, if the system is proprietary or legacy, which can affect the feasibility and compatibility of the patch.
At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?
Link layer
Physical layer
Session layer
Application layer
Data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) is located at the physical layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The physical layer is the lowest layer of the OSI model, and it is responsible for the transmission and reception of raw bits over a physical medium, such as cables, wires, or optical fibers. The physical layer defines the physical characteristics of the medium, such as voltage, frequency, modulation, connectors, etc. The physical layer also deals with the physical topology of the network, such as bus, ring, star, mesh, etc.
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated and block-level data storage. A SAN consists of storage devices, such as disks, tapes, or arrays, that are connected to servers or clients via a network infrastructure, such as switches, routers, or hubs. A SAN allows multiple servers or clients to share the same storage devices, and it provides high performance, availability, scalability, and security for data storage. Data at rest on a SAN is located at the physical layer of the OSI model, because it is stored as raw bits on the physical medium of the storage devices, and it is accessed by the servers or clients through the physical medium of the network infrastructure.
Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?
Packet filtering
Port services filtering
Content filtering
Application access control
Packet filtering operates at the network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across different layers of a network. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The network layer is the third layer from the bottom of the OSI model, and it is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks or subnets. The network layer uses logical addresses, such as IP addresses, to identify the source and destination of the data packets, and it uses protocols, such as IP, ICMP, or ARP, to perform the routing and forwarding functions.
Packet filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the incoming and outgoing data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them. Packet filtering can be performed by devices, such as routers, firewalls, or proxies, that operate at the network layer of the OSI model. Packet filtering typically examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, the protocol type, or the fragmentation flags, and compares them with the predefined rules or policies. Packet filtering can also examine the transport layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination port numbers, the TCP flags, or the sequence numbers, and compare them with the rules or policies. Packet filtering can provide a basic level of security and performance for a network or a host, but it also has some limitations, such as the inability to inspect the payload or the content of the data packets, the vulnerability to spoofing or fragmentation attacks, or the complexity and maintenance of the rules or policies.
The other options are not techniques that operate at the network layer of the OSI model, but rather at other layers. Port services filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the transport layer header of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the port numbers or the services. Port services filtering operates at the transport layer of the OSI model, which is the fourth layer from the bottom. Content filtering is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer payload or the content of the data packets and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the keywords, URLs, file types, or other criteria. Content filtering operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer. Application access control is a technique that controls the access to a network or a host by inspecting the application layer identity or the credentials of the users or the processes and applying a set of rules or policies to allow or deny them based on the roles, permissions, or other attributes. Application access control operates at the application layer of the OSI model, which is the seventh and the topmost layer.
An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?
Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
Require strong authentication for administrators
Implement logical network segmentation at the switches
Implementing logical network segmentation at the switches is the most effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information. Logical network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Logical network segmentation can be implemented at the switches, which are devices that operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and forward data packets based on the MAC addresses. Logical network segmentation can provide several benefits, such as:
Logical network segmentation can mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information by limiting the visibility and access of the sniffer to the segment where it is installed. A sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes the data packets that are transmitted over a network. A sniffer can be used for legitimate purposes, such as troubleshooting, testing, or monitoring the network, or for malicious purposes, such as eavesdropping, stealing, or modifying the data. A sniffer can only capture the data packets that are within its broadcast domain, which is the set of devices that can communicate with each other without a router. By implementing logical network segmentation at the switches, the organization can create multiple broadcast domains and isolate the sensitive or critical data from the compromised segment. This way, the attacker can only see the data packets that belong to the same segment as the sniffer, and not the data packets that belong to other segments. This can prevent the attacker from gaining further information or accessing other resources on the network.
The other options are not the most effective layers of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information, but rather layers that have other limitations or drawbacks. Implementing packet filtering on the network firewalls is not the most effective layer of security, because packet filtering only examines the network layer header of the data packets, such as the source and destination IP addresses, and does not inspect the payload or the content of the data. Packet filtering can also be bypassed by using techniques such as IP spoofing or fragmentation. Installing Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS) is not the most effective layer of security, because HIDS only monitors and detects the activities and events on a single host, and does not prevent or respond to the attacks. HIDS can also be disabled or evaded by the attacker if the host is compromised. Requiring strong authentication for administrators is not the most effective layer of security, because authentication only verifies the identity of the users or processes, and does not protect the data in transit or at rest. Authentication can also be defeated by using techniques such as phishing, keylogging, or credential theft.
Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?
Change management processes
User administration procedures
Operating System (OS) baselines
System backup documentation
Operating System (OS) baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations. OS baselines are standard or reference configurations that define the desired and secure state of an OS, including the settings, parameters, patches, and updates. OS baselines can provide several benefits, such as:
OS baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they can enable the auditors to evaluate and verify the current and actual state of the OS against the desired and secure state of the OS. OS baselines can also help the auditors to identify and report any gaps, issues, or risks in the OS configurations, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, but rather of assistance for other purposes or aspects. Change management processes are processes that ensure that any changes to the system configurations are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management processes can improve the security and reliability of the system configurations by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes. However, change management processes are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the procedures and controls for managing the changes. User administration procedures are procedures that define the roles, responsibilities, and activities for creating, modifying, deleting, and managing the user accounts and access rights. User administration procedures can enhance the security and accountability of the user accounts and access rights by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, user administration procedures are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the rules and tasks for administering the users. System backup documentation is documentation that records the information and details about the system backup processes, such as the backup frequency, type, location, retention, and recovery. System backup documentation can increase the availability and resilience of the system by ensuring that the system data and configurations can be restored in case of a loss or damage. However, system backup documentation is not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because it does not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the backup and recovery of the system configurations.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?
Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken
Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability
Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure. Security testing is a process that involves evaluating and verifying the security posture, vulnerabilities, and threats of a system or a network, using various methods and techniques, such as vulnerability assessment, penetration testing, code review, and compliance checks. Security testing can provide several benefits, such as:
A security testing report is a document that summarizes and communicates the findings and recommendations of the security testing process to the relevant stakeholders, such as the technical and management teams. A security testing report can have various formats and structures, depending on the scope, purpose, and audience of the report. However, a formalized security testing report format and structure is one that follows a standard and consistent template, such as the one proposed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) in the Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment. A formalized security testing report format and structure can have several components, such as:
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, because it can ensure that the security testing report is clear, comprehensive, and consistent, and that it provides the relevant and useful information for the technical and management teams to make informed and effective decisions and actions regarding the system or network security.
The other options are not the primary benefits of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but rather secondary or specific benefits for different audiences or purposes. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the executive summary component of the report, which is a brief and high-level overview of the report, rather than the entire report. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the methodology and results components of the report, which are more technical and detailed parts of the report, rather than the entire report. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the introduction and conclusion components of the report, which are more contextual and strategic parts of the report, rather than the entire report.
Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?
Encryption of audit logs
No archiving of audit logs
Hashing of audit logs
Remote access audit logs
Remote access audit logs could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system. A DoS attack is a type of attack that aims to disrupt or degrade the availability or performance of a system or a network by overwhelming it with excessive or malicious traffic or requests. An authentication system is a system that verifies the identity and credentials of the users or entities that want to access the system or network resources or services. An authentication system can use various methods or factors to authenticate the users or entities, such as passwords, tokens, certificates, biometrics, or behavioral patterns.
Remote access audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur when the users or entities access the system or network remotely, such as via the internet, VPN, or dial-up. Remote access audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the remote access behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents.
Remote access audit logs could cause a DoS against an authentication system, because they could consume a large amount of disk space, memory, or bandwidth on the authentication system, especially if the remote access is frequent, intensive, or malicious. This could affect the performance or functionality of the authentication system, and prevent or delay the legitimate users or entities from accessing the system or network resources or services. For example, an attacker could launch a DoS attack against an authentication system by sending a large number of fake or invalid remote access requests, and generating a large amount of remote access audit logs that fill up the disk space or memory of the authentication system, and cause it to crash or slow down.
The other options are not the factors that could cause a DoS against an authentication system, but rather the factors that could improve or protect the authentication system. Encryption of audit logs is a technique that involves using a cryptographic algorithm and a key to transform the audit logs into an unreadable or unintelligible format, that can only be reversed or decrypted by authorized parties. Encryption of audit logs can enhance the security and confidentiality of the audit logs by preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive information in the audit logs. However, encryption of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or privacy of the audit logs. No archiving of audit logs is a practice that involves not storing or transferring the audit logs to a separate or external storage device or location, such as a tape, disk, or cloud. No archiving of audit logs can reduce the security and availability of the audit logs by increasing the risk of loss or damage of the audit logs, and limiting the access or retrieval of the audit logs. However, no archiving of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the availability or preservation of the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs is a technique that involves using a hash function, such as MD5 or SHA, to generate a fixed-length and unique value, called a hash or a digest, that represents the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs can improve the security and integrity of the audit logs by verifying the authenticity or consistency of the audit logs, and detecting any modification or tampering of the audit logs. However, hashing of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or verification of the audit logs.
In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?
Quarterly access reviews
Security continuous monitoring
Business continuity testing
Annual security training
Security continuous monitoring is the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data. Security process data is the data that reflects the performance, effectiveness, and compliance of the security processes, such as the security policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines. Security process data can include metrics, indicators, logs, reports, and assessments. Security process data can provide several benefits, such as:
Security continuous monitoring is the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is the program that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of the system. Security continuous monitoring can enable the system to detect and respond to any security issues or incidents in a timely and effective manner, and to adjust and improve the security controls and processes accordingly. Security continuous monitoring can also help the system to comply with the security requirements and standards from the internal or external authorities or frameworks.
The other options are not the programs in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, but rather programs that have other objectives or scopes. Quarterly access reviews are programs that involve reviewing and verifying the user accounts and access rights on a quarterly basis. Quarterly access reviews can ensure that the user accounts and access rights are valid, authorized, and up to date, and that any inactive, expired, or unauthorized accounts or rights are removed or revoked. However, quarterly access reviews are not the programs in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because they are not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the user accounts and access rights. Business continuity testing is a program that involves testing and validating the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system. Business continuity testing can ensure that the system can continue or resume its critical functions and operations in case of a disruption or disaster, and that the system can meet the recovery objectives and requirements. However, business continuity testing is not the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the continuity and recovery of the system. Annual security training is a program that involves providing and updating the security knowledge and skills of the system users and staff on an annual basis. Annual security training can increase the security awareness and competence of the system users and staff, and reduce the human errors or risks that might compromise the system security. However, annual security training is not the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the security education and training of the system users and staff.
A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?
Host VM monitor audit logs
Guest OS access controls
Host VM access controls
Guest OS audit logs
Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation. A VM environment is a system that allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical machine, each with its own OS and applications. A VM environment can provide several benefits, such as:
A guest OS is the OS that runs on a VM, which is different from the host OS that runs on the physical machine. A guest OS can have its own security controls and mechanisms, such as access controls, encryption, authentication, and audit logs. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the data files. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents.
Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, because they can provide the most accurate and relevant information about the user’s actions and interactions with the data files on the VM. Guest OS audit logs can also help the administrator to identify and report any unauthorized or suspicious access or disclosure of the data files, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, but rather what an administrator might review for other purposes or aspects. Host VM monitor audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur on the host VM monitor, which is the software or hardware component that manages and controls the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM monitor audit logs can provide information about the performance, status, and configuration of the VMs, but they cannot provide information about the user’s access to data files on the VMs. Guest OS access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the resources and services on the guest OS. Guest OS access controls can provide a proactive and preventive layer of security by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, guest OS access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the data files. Host VM access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM access controls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, host VM access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the VMs.
A vulnerability in which of the following components would be MOST difficult to detect?
Kernel
Shared libraries
Hardware
System application
According to the CISSP CBK Official Study Guide, a vulnerability in hardware would be the most difficult to detect. A vulnerability is a weakness or exposure in a system, network, or application, which may be exploited by threats and cause harm to the organization or its assets. A vulnerability can exist in various components of a system, network, or application, such as the kernel, the shared libraries, the hardware, or the system application. A vulnerability in hardware would be the most difficult to detect, as it may require physical access, specialized tools, or advanced skills to identify and measure the vulnerability. Hardware is the physical or tangible component of a system, network, or application that provides the basic functionality, performance, and support for the system, network, or application, such as the processor, memory, disk, or network card. Hardware may have vulnerabilities due to design flaws, manufacturing defects, configuration errors, or physical damage. A vulnerability in hardware may affect the security, reliability, or availability of the system, network, or application, such as causing data leakage, performance degradation, or system failure. A vulnerability in the kernel would not be the most difficult to detect, although it may be a difficult to detect. The kernel is the core or central component of a system, network, or application that provides the basic functionality, performance, and control for the system, network, or application, such as the operating system, the hypervisor, or the firmware. The kernel may have vulnerabilities due to design flaws, coding errors, configuration errors, or malicious modifications. A vulnerability in the kernel may affect the security, reliability, or availability of the system, network, or application, such as causing privilege escalation, system compromise, or system crash. A vulnerability in the kernel may be detected by using various tools, techniques, or methods, such as code analysis, vulnerability scanning, or penetration testing. A vulnerability in the shared libraries would not be the most difficult to detect, although it may be a difficult to detect. The shared libraries are the reusable or common components of a system, network, or application, that provide the functionality, performance, and compatibility for the system, network, or application, such as the dynamic link libraries, the application programming interfaces, or the frameworks.
Application of which of the following Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards will prevent an unauthorized wireless device from being attached to a network?
IEEE 802.1F
IEEE 802.1H
IEEE 802.1Q
IEEE 802.1X
IEEE 802.1X is a standard for port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN, preventing unauthorized devices from gaining network access.
References: CISSP For Dummies, Seventh Edition, Chapter 4, page 97; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, page 247
Which of the following command line tools can be used in the reconnaisance phase of a network vulnerability assessment?
dig
ifconfig
ipconfig
nbtstat
Dig is a command line tool that can be used in the reconnaissance phase of a network vulnerability assessment. Dig stands for domain information groper, and it is used to query Domain Name System (DNS) servers and obtain information about domains, hosts, and records. Dig can help discover the network topology, the IP addresses, and the services running on the target network.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, page 411; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, page 365
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?
Implement full-disk encryption
Enable multifactor authentication
Deploy file integrity checkers
Disable use of portable devices
The most effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation is to disable use of portable devices. Portable devices are the devices that can be easily connected to or disconnected from a workstation, such as USB drives, external hard drives, flash drives, or smartphones. Portable devices can pose a risk of data theft from an active user workstation, as they can be used to copy, transfer, or exfiltrate data from the workstation, either by malicious insiders or by unauthorized outsiders. By disabling use of portable devices, the data theft from an active user workstation can be prevented or reduced.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 6, page 330; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 6, page 291
An organization has developed a major application that has undergone accreditation testing. After receiving the results of the evaluation, what is the final step before the application can be accredited?
Acceptance of risk by the authorizing official
Remediation of vulnerabilities
Adoption of standardized policies and procedures
Approval of the System Security Plan (SSP)
The final step before the application can be accredited is the acceptance of risk by the authorizing official, who is responsible for making the final decision on whether to authorize the operation of the system or not. The authorizing official must review the results of the evaluation, the System Security Plan (SSP), and the residual risks, and determine if the risks are acceptable or not. The other options are not the final step, but rather part of the accreditation process. Remediation of vulnerabilities is done before the evaluation, adoption of standardized policies and procedures is done during the development, and approval of the SSP is done by the system owner, not the authorizing official. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 245; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2, p. 63.
In general, servers that are facing the Internet should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ). What is MAIN purpose of the DMZ?
Reduced risk to internal systems.
Prepare the server for potential attacks.
Mitigate the risk associated with the exposed server.
Bypass the need for a firewall.
According to the CISSP CBK Official Study Guide1, the main purpose of the demilitarized zone (DMZ) is to reduce the risk to internal systems. A DMZ is a network segment that is located between the external network (such as the Internet) and the internal network (such as the intranet) of an organization, and that contains servers or systems that are exposed or accessible to the external network, such as web servers, email servers, or DNS servers. A DMZ is used to isolate and protect the internal network from the external network, as it acts as a buffer or a barrier that prevents or limits the direct communication or connection between the external and the internal networks. A DMZ also helps to filter and monitor the traffic or the data that passes through the DMZ, as it is usually controlled and secured by firewalls, routers, or other security devices or mechanisms. By placing the servers or systems that are facing the Internet in the DMZ, the organization can reduce the risk to the internal systems, as it can prevent or mitigate the potential attacks or threats that may originate from the external network, such as the denial-of-service, the malware, or the hacking attacks. Prepare the server for potential attacks is not the main purpose of the DMZ, although it may be a benefit or a consequence of the DMZ. Preparing the server for potential attacks is the process of hardening or strengthening the server or the system that is facing the Internet, by applying the appropriate security measures or controls, such as the encryption, the authentication, or the patching of the server or the system. Preparing the server for potential attacks helps to increase the resilience or the resistance of the server or the system against the attacks or threats that may come from the external network, such as the denial-of-service, the malware, or the hacking attacks. Preparing the server for potential attacks may be a benefit or a consequence of the DMZ, as the DMZ may provide an additional layer of security or protection for the server or the system, as well as an opportunity or a platform for testing or evaluating the security or the performance of the server or the system. However, preparing the server for potential attacks is not the main purpose of the DMZ, as it is not the primary reason or the objective for creating or implementing the DMZ. Mitigate the risk associated with the exposed server is not the main purpose of the DMZ, although it may be a benefit or a consequence of the DMZ. Mitigating the risk associated with the exposed server is the process of reducing or minimizing the impact or the consequence of the attacks or threats that may target or affect the server or the system that is facing the Internet, by applying the appropriate security measures or controls, such as the backup, the recovery, or the contingency of the server or the system. Mitigating the risk associated with the exposed server helps to ensure the availability or the continuity of the server or the system, as well as the services or the functions that are provided or supported by the server or the system, in the event of the attacks or threats that may come from the external network, such as the denial-of-service, the malware, or the hacking attacks. Mitigating the risk associated with the exposed server may be a benefit or a consequence of the DMZ, as the DMZ may provide an additional layer of security or protection for the server or the system, as well as an opportunity or a platform for restoring or recovering the server or the system. However, mitigating the risk associated with the exposed server is not the main purpose of the DMZ, as it is not the primary reason or the objective for creating or implementing the DMZ. Bypass the need for a firewall is not the main purpose of the DMZ, in fact, it is the opposite or the contrary of the main purpose of the DMZ. Bypassing the need for a firewall is the process of avoiding or eliminating the use or the implementation of a firewall, which is a security device or mechanism that controls and secures the traffic or the data that passes through the network, by applying the rules or the policies that grant or deny the access or the communication between the networks, such as the external and the internal networks. Bypassing the need for a firewall may expose or compromise the security or the integrity of the network, as well as the servers or the systems that are connected or accessible to the network, as it may allow or enable the unauthorized or unintended traffic or data to enter or exit the network, which may lead to the attacks or threats that may come from the external network, such as the denial-of-service, the malware, or the hacking attacks. Bypassing the need for a firewall is not the main purpose of the DMZ, in fact, it is the opposite or the contrary of the main purpose of the DMZ, as the DMZ is usually controlled and secured by firewalls, routers, or other security devices or mechanisms, which are essential or integral components or elements of the DMZ. The DMZ does not bypass the need for a firewall, rather, it relies on or utilizes the firewall to achieve its main purpose, which is to reduce the risk to the internal systems.
The BEST example of the concept of "something that a user has" when providing an authorized user access to a computing system is
the user's hand geometry.
a credential stored in a token.
a passphrase.
the user's face.
Determining outage costs caused by a disaster can BEST be measured by the
cost of redundant systems and backups.
cost to recover from an outage.
overall long-term impact of the outage.
revenue lost during the outage.
Determining outage costs caused by a disaster can best be measured by the overall long-term impact of the outage, which includes both direct and indirect costs. Direct costs are the expenses incurred to restore the normal operations, such as the cost of repair, replacement, recovery, or relocation. Indirect costs are the losses or damages that result from the interruption of business activities, such as the loss of revenue, productivity, reputation, customer loyalty, market share, or competitive advantage. The overall long-term impact of the outage can be estimated by using methods such as business impact analysis (BIA), return on investment (ROI), or total cost of ownership (TCO). The cost of redundant systems and backups, the cost to recover from an outage, and the revenue lost during the outage are all examples of direct costs, but they do not capture the full extent of the outage costs caused by a disaster.
An organization lacks a data retention policy. Of the following, who is the BEST person to consult for such requirement?
Application Manager
Database Administrator
Privacy Officer
Finance Manager
The best person to consult for a data retention policy requirement is the privacy officer, who is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable privacy laws, regulations, and standards. A data retention policy defines the criteria and procedures for retaining, storing, and disposing of data, especially personal data, in accordance with the legal and business requirements. The privacy officer can advise on the data retention policy by identifying the relevant privacy mandates, assessing the data types and categories, determining the retention periods and disposal methods, and implementing the appropriate controls and measures. The other options are not the best person to consult, but rather stakeholders or contributors to the data retention policy. An application manager is responsible for managing the development, maintenance, and operation of applications, but not the data retention policy. A database administrator is responsible for managing the design, implementation, and performance of databases, but not the data retention policy. A finance manager is responsible for managing the financial resources and activities of the organization, but not the data retention policy. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3, p. 118; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 292; CISSP practice exam questions and answers, Question 8.
A proxy firewall operates at what layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?
Transport
Data link
Network
Application
According to the CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests2, a proxy firewall operates at the application layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. The OSI model is a conceptual framework that describes how data is transmitted and processed across a network, by dividing the functions into seven layers: physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and application. A proxy firewall is a type of firewall that acts as an intermediary between the source and the destination of a network connection, by intercepting and inspecting the data packets at the application layer, which is the highest layer of the OSI model. The application layer is responsible for providing the interface and services for the applications and processes that communicate over the network, such as HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and DNS. A proxy firewall can filter and control the network traffic based on the content and context of the application layer protocols and messages, as well as perform caching, authentication, encryption, and logging functions. A proxy firewall does not operate at the transport layer, the data link layer, or the network layer of the OSI model, as these are lower layers that provide different functions, such as reliable and ordered delivery of data, physical and logical addressing of devices, and routing and forwarding of packets. References: 2
Which of the following is the FIRST step an organization's security professional performs when defining a cyber-security program based upon industry standards?
Map the organization's current security practices to industry standards and frameworks.
Define the organization's objectives regarding security and risk mitigation.
Select from a choice of security best practices.
Review the past security assessments.
The first step an organization’s security professional performs when defining a cybersecurity program based on industry standards is to define the organization’s objectives regarding security and risk mitigation. A cybersecurity program is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to protect the organization’s information assets and systems from cyber threats and attacks. A cybersecurity program should be based on industry standards and frameworks, such as ISO/IEC 27001, NIST SP 800-53, or COBIT, that provide best practices and guidelines for establishing and maintaining an effective and efficient cybersecurity program. The first step in defining a cybersecurity program based on industry standards is to define the organization’s objectives regarding security and risk mitigation, which are the goals or outcomes that the organization wants to achieve or accomplish through the cybersecurity program. The objectives should be aligned with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and they should reflect the organization’s risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk management approach. The objectives should also be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART), and they should be communicated and agreed upon by the relevant stakeholders, such as the management, the staff, or the customers. The other options are not the first step in defining a cybersecurity program based on industry standards. Mapping the organization’s current security practices to industry standards and frameworks is a subsequent step in defining a cybersecurity program based on industry standards, and it involves assessing and evaluating the organization’s existing security posture and capabilities, and identifying the gaps, issues, or improvements that need to be addressed or implemented. Selecting from a choice of security best practices is not a specific step in defining a cybersecurity program based on industry standards, although it may be part of the process of designing and implementing the cybersecurity program, based on the organization’s objectives and the industry standards and frameworks. Reviewing the past security assessments is not a specific step in defining a cybersecurity program based on industry standards, although it may be part of the process of monitoring and improving the cybersecurity program, based on the organization’s objectives and the industry standards and frameworks. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 23. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter
Clothing retailer employees are provisioned with user accounts that provide access to resources at partner businesses. All partner businesses use common identity and access management (IAM) protocols and differing technologies. Under the Extended Identity principle, what is the process flow between partner businesses to allow this TAM action?
Clothing retailer acts as identity provider (IdP), confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service
Provider and allows access to services.
Clothing retailer acts as User Self Service, confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service
Provider and allows access to services.
Clothing retailer acts as Service Provider, confirms identity of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as an identity
provider (IdP) and allows access to resources.
Clothing retailer acts as Access Control Provider, confirms access of user using industry standards, then sends credentials to partner businesses that act as a Service
Provider and allows access to resources.
The Extended Identity principle is a concept that describes how an organization can extend its identity and access management (IAM) capabilities to external entities, such as customers, partners, or suppliers, by using common standards and protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, or OpenID Connect. Under this principle, the clothing retailer acts as an identity provider (IdP), which is the entity that authenticates and verifies the identity of the user using industry standards, such as passwords, tokens, or biometrics. The partner businesses act as service providers (SPs), which are the entities that provide access to the resources or services that the user requests, such as inventory, shipping, or payment. The clothing retailer sends the credentials of the user, such as a SAML assertion or an OAuth token, to the partner businesses, which use them to grant access to the user. This way, the user does not need to create or manage multiple accounts or passwords for each partner business, and the clothing retailer can maintain control and visibility over the user’s identity and access. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 12: Identity and Access Management, pp. 1179-1180; [Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition], Domain 5: Identity and Access Management, pp. 853-854.
Additional padding may be added to the Encapsulating security protocol (ESP) trailer to provide which of the following?
Data origin authentication
Partial traffic flow confidentiality
protection ao>ainst replay attack
Access control
Additional padding may be added to the Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) trailer to provide partial traffic flow confidentiality. ESP is a protocol that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for IP packets. ESP uses encryption to protect the payload of the IP packets, and optionally the IP header as well. ESP also adds a trailer at the end of the IP packet, which contains a padding field, a pad length field, and a next header field. The padding field is used to align the encrypted data to the block size of the encryption algorithm, and to provide partial traffic flow confidentiality by obscuring the actual length of the data. The pad length field indicates the number of bytes in the padding field. The next header field indicates the type of the payload that follows the ESP trailer. Data origin authentication, protection against replay attack, and access control are not provided by the ESP trailer, but by other components of ESP, such as the ESP header, the ESP authentication data, and the security association. References:
What is the benefit of using Network Admission Control (NAC)?
Operating system (OS) versions can be validated prior to allowing network access.
NAC supports validation of the endpoint's security posture prior to allowing the session to go into an authorized state.
NAC can require the use of certificates, passwords, or a combination of both before allowing network admission.
NAC only supports Windows operating systems (OS).
Network Admission Control (NAC) is a security technique that verifies the identity and compliance of the endpoints (devices or users) that attempt to access a network. NAC supports validation of the endpoint’s security posture prior to allowing the session to go into an authorized state, which means that NAC checks whether the endpoint meets the predefined security policies and requirements, such as having the latest patches, antivirus software, firewall settings, or encryption standards, before granting network access. NAC can also enforce remediation actions, such as updating, quarantining, or blocking the endpoint, if it does not comply with the security policies and requirements. NAC can prevent unauthorized, infected, or vulnerable endpoints from compromising the network security and performance. References: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 4: Communication and Network Security, pp. 685-686; CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Communication and Network Security, pp. 785-786.
Which algorithm gets its security from the difficulty of calculating discrete logarithms in a finite field and is used to distribute keys, but cannot be used to encrypt or decrypt messages?
Diffie-Hellman
Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA)
Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)
Kerberos
Diffie-Hellman is an algorithm that gets its security from the difficulty of calculating discrete logarithms in a finite field and is used to distribute keys, but cannot be used to encrypt or decrypt messages. Diffie-Hellman is a key exchange protocol that allows two parties to establish a shared secret key over an insecure channel, without any prior knowledge or communication. The shared secret key can then be used for symmetric encryption or authentication. Diffie-Hellman does not perform any encryption or decryption by itself, and it does not provide any authentication or integrity guarantees3 . References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5, page 317; [CISSP Practice Exam – FREE 20 Questions and Answers, Question 14].
When designing on Occupent Emergency plan (OEP) for United states (US) Federal government facilities, what factor must be considered?
location of emergency exits in building
Average age of the agency employees
Geographical location and structural design of building
Federal agency for which plan is being drafted
When designing an Occupant Emergency Plan (OEP) for US Federal government facilities, the geographical location and structural design of the building must be considered, as they may affect the type and severity of the potential emergencies, such as fire, earthquake, flood, or terrorist attack. The OEP should be tailored to the specific characteristics and vulnerabilities of the building. Option A, location of emergency exits in building, is an important factor, but it is not the only one that must be considered. Option B, average age of the agency employees, is not a relevant factor, as the OEP should be designed to protect all occupants regardless of their age. Option D, federal agency for which plan is being drafted, is not a relevant factor, as the OEP should be based on the physical and environmental factors of the building, not the organizational factors of the agency. References: CISSP Testking ISC Exam Questions - CISSP Certification with CISSP Answers, CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition
What is a warn site when conducting Business continuity planning (BCP)
A location, other than the normal facility, used to process data on a daily basis
An area partially equipped with equipment and resources to recover business functions
A place void of any resources or equipment except air conditioning and raised flooring
An alternate facility that allows for Immediate cutover to enable continuation of business functions
Business continuity planning (BCP) is a process of identifying, analyzing, and preparing for the potential impacts of disruptive events on the organization’s critical business functions and processes. BCP involves developing and implementing strategies and plans to ensure the continuity and recovery of the organization’s operations in the event of a disaster or disruption. One of the strategies and plans for BCP is to establish an alternate facility, which is a location, other than the normal facility, that can be used to resume the business functions and processes in case the normal facility is unavailable or unusable. There are different types of alternate facilities, depending on the level of readiness and resources they provide. A warm site is an area partially equipped with equipment and resources to recover business functions, but it requires some additional setup and configuration before it can be fully operational. A warm site typically has some hardware, software, network, and backup systems in place, but it may not have the most current data or applications. A warm site can usually become operational within a few hours or days. Therefore, the correct answer is B. The other options are incorrect because they describe different types of alternate facilities. A hot site is an alternate facility that allows for immediate cutover to enable continuation of business functions. A hot site is fully equipped and configured with the most current data and applications, and it can be activated within minutes or seconds. A cold site is a place void of any resources or equipment except air conditioning and raised flooring. A cold site requires a lot of setup and installation before it can be used to recover business functions, and it can take several days or weeks to become operational. A mobile site is a location, other than the normal facility, used to process data on a daily basis. A mobile site is a portable facility that can be moved and deployed quickly to any location, and it usually has limited capacity and functionality. References: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8: Security Operations, Section: Foundational Security Operations Concepts, Subsection: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning; CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Security Operations, Section: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning.
Which security evaluation model assesses a product's Security Assurance Level (SAL) in comparison to similar solutions?
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001
Common criteria (CC)
Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)
Common criteria (CC) is an international standard (ISO/IEC 15408) for evaluating the security properties and capabilities of information technology (IT) products and systems. CC defines a common framework and methodology for expressing security requirements, conducting security evaluations, and certifying security assurance levels. CC allows vendors, customers, and evaluators to compare and contrast the security features and functions of different IT products and systems based on their security assurance levels (SALs). SALs range from EAL1 (functionally tested) to EAL7 (formally verified design and tested). References: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Chapter 3: Security Architecture and Engineering, Section: Security Evaluation Models, pp. 331-334.
Which of the following is the top barrier for companies to adopt cloud technology?
Migration period
Data integrity
Cost
Security
The top barrier for companies to adopt cloud technology is security. Cloud technology is a technology that enables the delivery or consumption of computing resources or services over the internet, such as servers, storage, databases, networks, applications, or analytics. Cloud technology can offer many benefits to companies, such as cost reduction, scalability, flexibility, or efficiency. However, cloud technology also poses many challenges or risks to companies, such as security, compliance, performance, or reliability. Security is the top barrier for companies to adopt cloud technology, as it is the most critical and complex issue that companies face when moving to or using the cloud. Security is the barrier that prevents or hinders the companies from adopting cloud technology, as it involves the protection of the data, the systems, and the users from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or disruption, and the compliance with the legal, regulatory, or contractual obligations. Security is the barrier that requires or demands the most attention, effort, or resources from the companies when adopting cloud technology, as it involves the assessment, evaluation, or verification of the security posture, capabilities, or controls of the cloud provider, the cloud service, and the cloud customer, and the implementation, management, or monitoring of the security policies, procedures, or measures for the cloud environment. Migration period, data integrity, or cost are not the top barriers for companies to adopt cloud technology, as they are not the most critical or complex issues that companies face when moving to or using the cloud. Migration period is the time or the duration that it takes for the companies to transfer or migrate their data, systems, or applications from their on-premises or legacy environment to the cloud environment. Data integrity is the quality or the condition of the data that ensures that the data is accurate, complete, or consistent, and that the data is not corrupted, altered, or lost. Cost is the amount or the value of the money or the resources that the companies spend or invest in adopting or using the cloud technology. Migration period, data integrity, or cost are important or relevant issues that companies face when adopting cloud technology, but they are not the top barriers, as they are not the most critical or complex issues, and they can be addressed or resolved by using proper planning, testing, or optimization techniques or methods. References: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 287.
What is the MINIMUM standard for testing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
Semi-annually and in alignment with a fiscal half-year business cycle
Annually or less frequently depending upon audit department requirements
Quarterly or more frequently depending upon the advice of the information security manager
As often as necessary depending upon the stability of the environment and business requirements
The minimum standard for testing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) is to test it as often as necessary depending on the stability of the environment and the business requirements. A DRP is a document that outlines the procedures and steps to restore the critical functions and operations of an organization in the event of a disaster or disruption. A DRP should be tested regularly to ensure its effectiveness, validity, and alignment with the current environment and business needs. The frequency of testing may vary depending on the changes in the environment, such as new technologies, threats, regulations, or processes, and the business requirements, such as recovery objectives, service levels, or risk appetite. Testing a DRP semi-annually, annually, or quarterly may not be sufficient or appropriate for some organizations, as it may not reflect the current state of the environment or the business. Testing a DRP based on the audit department requirements may not be optimal or realistic, as it may not consider the operational or technical aspects of the DRP. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 19: Security Operations, page 1869.
A vehicle of a private courier company that transports backup data for offsite storage was robbed while in transport backup data for offsite was robbed while in transit. The incident management team is now responsible to estimate the robbery, which of the following would help the incident management team to MOST effectively analyze the business impact of the robbery?
Log of backup administrative actions
Log of the transported media and its classification marking
Log of the transported media and Its detailed contents
Log of backed up data and their respective data custodians
The log of the transported media and its classification marking would help the incident management team to most effectively analyze the business impact of the robbery. A log is a record of events or activities that occur on a system or a process, such as backup or transport. A classification marking is a label or a tag that indicates the level of sensitivity or confidentiality of the data or the media, such as public, internal, confidential, or secret. A log of the transported media and its classification marking would provide the incident management team with the information about what type of media and data was stolen, how sensitive or critical the data was, and what potential consequences or damages the data loss could cause to the organization or its customers. This information would help the incident management team to assess the severity and scope of the incident, and to prioritize and implement the appropriate response and recovery actions. A log of backup administrative actions, a log of the transported media and its detailed contents, and a log of backed up data and their respective data custodians are not as helpful as a log of the transported media and its classification marking, as they may not provide the relevant or sufficient information to analyze the business impact of the robbery, or they may be too cumbersome or impractical to maintain or access. References:
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in selecting a security testing method based on different Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) vulnerability types?
The performance and resource utilization of tools
The quality of results and usability of tools
An understanding of the attack surface
Adaptability of testing tools to multiple technologies
The attack surface of an RFID system is the set of points where an attacker can interact with or influence the system. Different types of RFID vulnerabilities may affect different parts of the system, such as the tags, the readers, the middleware, or the backend database. Therefore, the most important consideration in selecting a security testing method based on different RFID vulnerability types is to have an understanding of the attack surface and the potential threats and risks associated with each part of the system. This will help to choose the most appropriate and effective testing method, such as passive or active scanning, tag cloning or spoofing, replay or relay attacks, or cryptographic analysis. References: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 6: Security Assessment and Testing, pp. 1055-1056; CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10: Security Assessment and Testing, pp. 1039-1040.
Which of the following is performed to determine a measure of success of a security awareness training program designed to prevent social engineering attacks?
Employee evaluation of the training program
Internal assessment of the training program's effectiveness
Multiple choice tests to participants
Management control of reviews
Internal assessment of the training program’s effectiveness is the action that is performed to determine a measure of success of a security awareness training program designed to prevent social engineering attacks. A security awareness training program is a program that educates and trains the employees and users of an organization on the security policies, procedures, and best practices, and that aims to improve the security culture and behavior of the organization. A social engineering attack is an attack that exploits the human factors, such as the emotions, trust, or curiosity, of the employees and users, and that manipulates them to perform actions or disclose information that may compromise the security of the organization, such as clicking on a malicious link, opening an infected attachment, or providing credentials or sensitive data. Internal assessment of the training program’s effectiveness is the action that involves measuring and evaluating the outcomes and impacts of the training program, and that compares them with the objectives and expectations of the training program. Internal assessment of the training program’s effectiveness can help to determine a measure of success of a security awareness training program designed to prevent social engineering attacks, by providing indicators and metrics such as:
Which attack defines a piece of code that is inserted into software to trigger a malicious function?
Phishing
Salami
Back door
Logic bomb
A logic bomb is a piece of code that is inserted into software to trigger a malicious function when a certain condition is met, such as a specific date, time, or event. A logic bomb can cause various types of damage, such as deleting or encrypting data, crashing the system, or launching other attacks. A logic bomb is often hidden or disguised within legitimate software, making it difficult to detect or prevent. A logic bomb is different from phishing, salami, or back door attacks, which are defined as follows:
What is the MAIN purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?
To determine the critical resources required to recover from an incident within a specified time period
To determine the effect of mission-critical information system failures on core business processes
To determine the cost for restoration of damaged information system
To determine the controls required to return to business critical operations
The main purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is to determine the effect of mission-critical information system failures on core business processes. A BIA is a process that identifies and evaluates the critical business functions and their dependencies, and determines the impact of a disruption on them. A BIA helps to quantify the potential loss of revenue, reputation, productivity, or customer satisfaction due to an information system failure, as well as the recovery time and resources needed to resume the normal operations. A BIA does not determine the critical resources required to recover from an incident, as this is the role of a disaster recovery plan or a business continuity plan. A BIA does not determine the cost for restoration of damaged information system, as this is the role of a risk analysis or a cost-benefit analysis. A BIA does not determine the controls required to return to business critical operations, as this is the role of a contingency plan or a crisis management plan.
A recent security audit is reporting several unsuccessful login attempts being repeated at specific times during the day on an Internet facing authentication server. No alerts have been generated by the security information and event management (SIEM) system. What PRIMARY action should be taken to improve SIEM performance?
Implement role-based system monitoring
Audit firewall logs to identify the source of login attempts
Enhance logging detail
Confirm alarm thresholds
The primary action that should be taken to improve SIEM performance in a situation where several unsuccessful login attempts are reported by a security audit but not by the SIEM system is to confirm alarm thresholds. A SIEM system is a tool that collects, correlates, analyzes, and reports on security events and incidents from various sources, such as logs, sensors, or agents. A SIEM system can also generate alerts or alarms based on predefined rules or thresholds that indicate a potential security issue or violation. However, if the SIEM system is not configured properly, it may miss some important events or incidents, or generate too many false positives or negatives. Therefore, it is important to confirm that the alarm thresholds are set appropriately, based on the risk appetite, the baseline behavior, and the security objectives of the organization. The alarm thresholds should be neither too high nor too low, to avoid missing or ignoring real threats, or overwhelming or desensitizing the security analysts. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 7: Security Operations, Section: Security Information and Event Management, pp. 837-838.
When are security requirements the LEAST expensive to implement?
When identified by external consultants
During the application rollout phase
During each phase of the project cycle
When built into application design
Security requirements are the least expensive to implement when they are built into application design. Security requirements are the specifications or criteria that define the security objectives, functions, features, or attributes of an application, system, or network. Security requirements can help to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and accountability of the application, system, or network, as well as to protect the application, system, or network from various security threats and risks. Security requirements should be identified, analyzed, and documented in the early stages of the application development life cycle, such as the planning, analysis, or design phases. Security requirements are the least expensive to implement when they are built into application design, as it means that the security requirements are integrated and incorporated into the architecture, structure, and logic of the application, rather than added or modified later in the development life cycle, such as the implementation, testing, or deployment phases. Building security requirements into application design can help to reduce the cost and complexity of the security implementation, as well as to improve the quality and performance of the security of the application. Building security requirements into application design can also help to prevent or minimize the security issues or defects that may arise in the later stages of the development life cycle, such as the security vulnerabilities, weaknesses, or flaws that may compromise the security of the application. When identified by external consultants, during the application rollout phase, or during each phase of the project cycle are not the situations when security requirements are the least expensive to implement, as they are either more dependent, reactive, or iterative than building security requirements into application design. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 21: Software Development Security, page 1151; CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Third Edition, Domain 8: Software Development Security, Question 8.10, page 304.
Which of the following is a key responsibility for a data steward assigned to manage an enterprise data lake?
Ensure proper business definition, value, and usage of data collected and stored within the enterprise data lake.
Ensure proper and identifiable data owners for each data element stored within an enterprise data lake.
Ensure adequate security controls applied to the enterprise data lake.
Ensure that any data passing within remit is being used in accordance with the rules and regulations of the business.
A data steward is responsible for ensuring the quality, consistency, and usability of data within an enterprise data lake. This includes defining the business context, purpose, and value of the data, as well as ensuring that the data is properly documented, classified, and governed. A data steward also facilitates the communication and collaboration between data producers, consumers, and owners within the organization. References:
What is the PRIMARY benefit of relying on Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)?
Save security costs for the organization.
Improve vulnerability assessment capabilities.
Standardize specifications between software security products.
Achieve organizational compliance with international standards.
The primary benefit of relying on Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is to standardize specifications between software security products. SCAP is a suite of specifications that enable the automated and interoperable assessment, measurement, and reporting of the security posture and compliance of systems and networks. SCAP consists of six components: Common Platform Enumeration (CPE), Common Configuration Enumeration (CCE), Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE), Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS), Extensible Configuration Checklist Description Format (XCCDF), and Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL). SCAP enables different software security products, such as scanners, analyzers, or auditors, to use a common language and format to describe and exchange information about the security configuration, vulnerabilities, and risks of systems and networks. This can improve the accuracy, consistency, and efficiency of the security assessment and remediation processes, and reduce the complexity and cost of managing multiple security products. Saving security costs for the organization, improving vulnerability assessment capabilities, and achieving organizational compliance with international standards are also benefits of relying on SCAP, but they are not the primary benefit. Saving security costs for the organization is a benefit of relying on SCAP, as it can reduce the need for manual and labor-intensive security tasks, and increase the reuse and integration of security data and tools. Improving vulnerability assessment capabilities is a benefit of relying on SCAP, as it can provide more comprehensive, timely, and reliable information about the security weaknesses and exposures of systems and networks, and enable more effective and proactive mitigation and response actions. Achieving organizational compliance with international standards is a benefit of relying on SCAP, as it can help to demonstrate and verify the alignment of the security policies and practices of the organization with the established benchmarks and baselines, such as the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53 or the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001. References:
Configuring a Wireless Access Point (WAP) with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as another WAP in order to have users unknowingly connect is referred to as which of the following?
Jamming
Man-irHht-Middk (MITM)
War driving
Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing
Configuring a Wireless Access Point (WAP) with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as another WAP in order to have users unknowingly connect is referred to as a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack. A MITM attack is a type of attack where an attacker intercepts and alters the communication between two parties. By setting up a rogue WAP with the same SSID as a legitimate one, an attacker can trick users into connecting to the malicious WAP and then monitor, modify, or redirect their network traffic. Jamming, war driving, and IP spoofing are other types of wireless attacks, but they do not involve configuring a WAP with the same SSID as another WAP. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, p. 237-238; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 4: Communication and Network Security, p. 467-468.
As users switch roles within an organization, their accounts are given additional permissions to perform the duties of their new position. After a recent audit, it was discovered that many of these accounts maintained their old permissions as well. The obsolete permissions identified by the audit have been remediated and accounts have only the appropriate permissions to complete their jobs.
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent access privilege creep?
Implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution
Time-based review and certification
Internet audit
Trigger-based review and certification
Trigger-based review and certification is the best way to prevent access privilege creep. Access privilege creep is the accumulation of unnecessary or excessive permissions by a user or an account over time, due to changes in roles, responsibilities, or assignments. Access privilege creep can pose a security risk, as it may violate the principle of least privilege and increase the attack surface or the potential for misuse. Trigger-based review and certification is a process of reviewing and validating the access privileges of a user or an account whenever a triggering event occurs, such as a role change, a project completion, a transfer, or a termination. Trigger-based review and certification can help prevent access privilege creep by ensuring that the access privileges are updated and aligned with the current needs and duties of the user or the account. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management, page 206. CISSP Practice Exam – FREE 20 Questions and Answers, Question 19.
What protocol is often used between gateway hosts on the Internet’ To control the scope of a Business Continuity Management (BCM) system, a security practitioner should identify which of the following?
Size, nature, and complexity of the organization
Business needs of the security organization
All possible risks
Adaptation model for future recovery planning
A Business Continuity Management (BCM) system is a system that enables an organization to plan, prepare, and respond to disruptions or disasters that may affect its normal operations and functions. A BCM system consists of various components, such as business impact analysis, risk assessment, business continuity plan, disaster recovery plan, incident response plan, and testing and maintenance. To control the scope of a BCM system, a security practitioner should identify the size, nature, and complexity of the organization. The size, nature, and complexity of the organization can help to determine the scope, objectives, and requirements of the BCM system, as well as the resources, roles, and responsibilities involved in the BCM system. The size, nature, and complexity of the organization can also help to identify the critical business functions, processes, and assets that need to be protected and recovered by the BCM system. Business needs of the security organization, all possible risks, or adaptation model for future recovery planning are not the best factors to control the scope of a BCM system, as they are more related to the security strategy, risk management, or improvement aspects of the BCM system. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 10: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning, page 617; CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Third Edition, Domain 7: Security Operations, Question 7.3, page 270.
When performing an investigation with the potential for legal action, what should be the analyst's FIRST consideration?
Chain-of-custody
Authorization to collect
Court admissibility
Data decryption
The analyst’s first consideration when performing an investigation with the potential for legal action is authorization to collect. Authorization to collect is the process of obtaining the necessary permissions and approvals to collect the evidence from the relevant sources, such as the owners, custodians, or authorities. Authorization to collect is essential to ensure the legality, validity, and admissibility of the evidence, as well as to protect the rights and privacy of the parties involved. Authorization to collect can also prevent any legal or ethical issues that may arise from unauthorized or improper collection of evidence. The other options are not the first considerations when performing an investigation with the potential for legal action, as they either come after the collection of evidence, or do not relate to the legal aspect. References: CISSP - Certified Information Systems Security Professional, Domain 7. Security Operations, 7.3 Conduct or support investigations, 7.3.1 Collect evidence, 7.3.1.1 Authorization to collect; CISSP Exam Outline, Domain 7. Security Operations, 7.3 Conduct or support investigations, 7.3.1 Collect evidence, 7.3.1.1 Authorization to collect
Using Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR) reduces the potential for which of the following attacks?
SQL injection (SQLi)
Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Heap overflow
Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR) is a security technique that randomizes the memory locations of the executable code, data, and libraries of a software application or system, making it harder for attackers to predict or manipulate the memory addresses of the target. ASLR reduces the potential for heap overflow attacks, which are a type of buffer overflow attack that exploit the memory allocation and deallocation functions of the heap, which is a dynamic memory area where variables and objects are stored during the execution of a program. Heap overflow attacks can result in arbitrary code execution, denial of service, or privilege escalation. ASLR makes heap overflow attacks more difficult by changing the base address of the heap each time the program runs, making it less likely for the attacker to find or overwrite the memory locations of the heap variables or objects. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 21: Software Development Security, pp. 2071-2072; [Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition], Domain 8: Software Development Security, pp. 1439-1440.
The European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires organizations to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a
level of security appropriate to the risk. The Data Owner should therefore consider which of the following requirements?
Data masking and encryption of personal data
Only to use encryption protocols approved by EU
Anonymization of personal data when transmitted to sources outside the EU
Never to store personal data of EU citizens outside the EU
The GDPR is a regulation that aims to protect the privacy and security of the personal data of individuals in the EU. The GDPR requires organizations to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk. The data owner, who is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for the personal data, should therefore consider data masking and encryption of personal data as possible technical measures. Data masking is a technique that replaces or obscures sensitive or identifying information in the personal data with fictitious or random data, such as replacing names with pseudonyms or masking credit card numbers with asterisks. Data encryption is a technique that transforms the personal data into an unreadable or unintelligible form using a secret key, such that only authorized parties with the correct key can access or decrypt the personal data. Data masking and encryption can protect the personal data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification, and reduce the impact of data breaches or leaks. References: Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 2: Asset Security, pp. 323-324; CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3: Asset Security, pp. 269-270.
Which Redundant Array c/ Independent Disks (RAID) Level does the following diagram represent?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10
The diagram likely represents RAID 10 (also known as RAID 1+0), which combines the features of RAID 1 and RAID 0. It provides the redundancy of RAID 1 along with the increased performance of RAID 0. It’s often used in environments where both high performance and security are required.
A hacker can use a lockout capability to start which of the following attacks?
Denial of service (DoS)
Dictionary
Ping flood
Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
A denial of service (DoS) attack is an attempt to prevent legitimate users from accessing a service or a resource by overwhelming it with malicious traffic or requests. A hacker can use a lockout capability to start a DoS attack by repeatedly sending invalid authentication attempts to a system or an application that has a policy of locking out accounts after a certain number of failed attempts. This can result in locking out legitimate users from accessing the system or the application, or consuming the system’s resources and slowing down its performance. A dictionary attack is a type of brute force attack that tries to guess passwords or encryption keys by using a list of common or likely words. A ping flood attack is a type of DoS attack that sends a large number of ping packets to a target system, hoping to consume its bandwidth or processing power. A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack is a type of attack that intercepts and alters the communication between two parties, without their knowledge or consent. References: CISSP CBK Reference, 5th Edition, Chapter 6, page 323; CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 8th Edition, Chapter 6, page 293
An employee receives a promotion that entities them to access higher-level functions on the company’s accounting system, as well as keeping their access to the previous system that is no longer needed or applicable. What is the name of the process that tries to remove this excess privilege?
Access provisioning
Segregation of Duties (SoD)
Access certification
Access aggregation
Access certification is the name of the process that tries to remove the excess privilege that an employee may have after receiving a promotion. Access certification is a process that involves reviewing and verifying the access rights and the privileges that are assigned to the users, and ensuring that they are appropriate and necessary for their roles and responsibilities. Access certification can help prevent or reduce the risk of unauthorized or excessive access, and improve the security and the compliance of the organization’s information systems and assets. Access certification is especially important when an employee receives a promotion, as they may have access to higher-level functions on the system, as well as keeping their access to the previous system that is no longer needed or applicable. This may create a situation where the employee has more access than they need, which may violate the principle of least privilege, or the segregation of duties. Therefore, access certification is the name of the process that tries to remove the excess privilege that an employee may have after receiving a promotion, by reviewing and updating their access rights and privileges, and by revoking or modifying the access that is no longer required or appropriate. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management, page 224. CISSP Testking ISC Exam Questions, Question 16.
Which of the following protection is provided when using a Virtual Private Network (VPN) with Authentication Header (AH)?
Payload encryption
Sender confidentiality
Sender non-repudiation
Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
A VPN is a secure tunnel that connects two or more networks over a public network, such as the internet. VPNs use encryption and authentication protocols to protect the data in transit from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure. AH is one of the protocols used by IPsec, which is a suite of protocols for securing IP traffic. AH provides integrity, authentication, and anti-replay protection for the entire IP packet, including the header and the payload. AH does not provide payload encryption or sender confidentiality, which are provided by another IPsec protocol called Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP). AH also does not provide multi-factor authentication (MFA), which is a method of verifying the identity of a user or a device by requiring two or more factors, such as something you know, something you have, or something you are. AH does provide sender non-repudiation, which is the assurance that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it, because the message is authenticated with a digital signature or a keyed hash that only the sender can generate. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 215. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 4: Communication and Network Security, page 463.
Which of the following is MOST critical in a contract in a contract for data disposal on a hard drive with a third party?
Authorized destruction times
Allowed unallocated disk space
Amount of overwrites required
Frequency of recovered media
The most critical factor in a contract for data disposal on a hard drive with a third party is the amount of overwrites required. Data disposal is a process of permanently and securely deleting or destroying data from a storage device, such as a hard drive, a flash drive, or a CD-ROM. Data disposal is necessary to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or recovery of the data, and to comply with the legal or regulatory requirements for data protection and privacy. Data disposal can be performed by various methods, such as physical destruction, degaussing, encryption, or overwriting. Overwriting is a method of data disposal that replaces the existing data on the storage device with random or meaningless data, making the original data unreadable or unrecoverable. Overwriting can be done by using software tools or commands that overwrite the data on the storage device one or more times. The amount of overwrites required is the number of times that the data on the storage device needs to be overwritten to ensure that the data is completely and irreversibly erased. The amount of overwrites required depends on various factors, such as the type and size of the storage device, the sensitivity and value of the data, and the security standards or guidelines that apply to the data. The amount of overwrites required is the most critical factor in a contract for data disposal on a hard drive with a third party, as it determines the level of assurance and confidence that the data is properly and securely disposed of, and that the organization and the third party meet their obligations and responsibilities for data protection and privacy. Authorized destruction times, allowed unallocated disk space, and frequency of recovered media are not as critical as the amount of overwrites required in a contract for data disposal on a hard drive with a third party, as they are either not directly related to the effectiveness or efficiency of the data disposal method, or they may not be applicable or feasible in all cases. References:
Which of the following techniques is MOST useful when dealing with Advanced persistent Threat (APT) intrusions on live virtualized environments?
Antivirus operations
Reverse engineering
Memory forensics
Logfile analysis
Memory forensics is the most useful technique when dealing with Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) intrusions on live virtualized environments. Memory forensics is the analysis of the volatile memory of a system, such as RAM, cache, or registers. Memory forensics can reveal valuable information about the state and activities of the system, such as running processes, open files, network connections, encryption keys, malware signatures, and user credentials. Memory forensics is especially useful for detecting and investigating APTs, which are stealthy and persistent attacks that often evade traditional security measures and leave little or no traces on the disk. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 13: Legal, Regulations, Investigations, and Compliance, page 699. CISSP Testking ISC Exam Questions, Question 11.
What is the most effective form of media sanitization to ensure residual data cannot be retrieved?
Clearing
Destroying
Purging
Disposal
The most effective form of media sanitization to ensure residual data cannot be retrieved is destroying. Media sanitization is the process of removing or destroying the data stored on a physical or logical media, such as a hard drive, a flash drive, or a cloud storage, to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure. Destroying is the most extreme form of media sanitization, which involves the physical destruction of the media, such as shredding, crushing, melting, or incinerating. Destroying can ensure that the residual data cannot be retrieved by any means, as the media is rendered unusable and irreparable. Destroying is usually applied to the media that contains highly sensitive or classified data, or the media that is no longer needed or functional. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 2: Asset Security, page 69; [Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 2: Asset Security, page 131]
An organization is planning a penetration test that simulates the malicious actions of a former network administrator. What kind of penetration test is needed?
Functional test
Unit test
Grey box
White box
A grey box penetration test is one that simulates the actions of an attacker who has some knowledge of the target system, such as a former network administrator. A grey box test is more realistic than a white box test, which assumes complete knowledge of the system, and more efficient than a black box test, which assumes no knowledge of the system. A functional test and a unit test are types of software testing, not penetration testing. References: CISSP Official Study Guide, 9th Edition, page 414; CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 8th Edition, page 1130
A software engineer uses automated tools to review application code and search for application flaws, back doors, or other malicious code. Which of the following is the
FIRST Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) phase where this takes place?
Design
Test
Development
Deployment
The development phase is the first Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) phase where a software engineer uses automated tools to review application code and search for application flaws, back doors, or other malicious code. The development phase is the phase where the software engineer writes, compiles, and tests the application code, based on the design specifications and requirements. The development phase is also the phase where the software engineer performs code review and analysis, using automated tools, such as static or dynamic analysis tools, to identify and eliminate any errors, vulnerabilities, or malicious code in the application code. Code review and analysis is an important security activity in the development phase, as it can help to improve the quality, functionality, and security of the application, and to prevent or mitigate any potential attacks or exploits on the application12. References: CISSP CBK, Fifth Edition, Chapter 3, page 217; CISSP Practice Exam – FREE 20 Questions and Answers, Question 11.
DumpsMate's team of experts is always available to respond your queries on exam preparation. Get professional answers on any topic of the certification syllabus. Our experts will thoroughly satisfy you.
TESTED 26 Apr 2024
Copyright © 2014-2024 DumpsMate. All Rights Reserved