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GRE GRE General Test Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Exhibit.

GRE Question 4

In 2017, if 19 percent of the maize production that was used for feed was used for dairy cows, approximately how many tonnes of the maize production was feed used for dairy cows'1

Options:

A.

27 million

B.

70 million

C.

145 million

D.

181 million

E.

215 million

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Questions 5

GRE Question 5

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 6

II cost a certain manufacturer a total of S7.8O0.OO to make and sell 6,500 units of a certain product. If the manufacturer sold each of the 6.500 units for S3.50. what was the manufacturer's profit per unit of the product? (Profit is equal to the selling price minus the cost.)

Options:

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Questions 7

As a part of an environmental study of a river, a random sample of trout was drawn from the river and the lengths of the trout were recorded. The average (arithmetic mean) length was 14.31 inches. If a length of 16.S9 inches was 1.50 standard deviations above the average, what was the standard deviation of the lengths of the trout in the sample?

Options:

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Questions 8

For a certain type of can. the number of grams of aluminum per can decreased by 20 percent from 1994 to 1998. while the cost per gram of aluminum decreased by 60 percent. If the cost of the aluminum in y cans in 1994 was equal to the cost of aluminum in A v cans in 1998. then k =

Options:

A.

3.125

B.

4.25

C.

5.125

D.

6.25

E.

7.875

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Questions 9

GRE Question 9

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 10

The average (arithmetic mean) and the median of a set of 5 numbers is 0. and the set contains at least one number that is not equal to 0. Which of the following statements must be true?

Options:

A.

Exactly one of the numbers is not equal to 0.

B.

Exactly one of the numbers is negative.

C.

Exactly two of the numbers are negative.

D.

The set has the same number of positive numbers as negative numbers.

E.

The sum of the nonzero numbers in the set is 0.

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Questions 11

Exhibit.

GRE Question 11

Hezekiah has a whole number of dollars to purchase fish for his fish tank. He has less than S100. and the cost of each type offish is shown in the table. If he purchases as many fish of type A as he can and no other fish, he will have S4 remaining. If he purchases as many fish of type B as he can and 1 fish of type C. he will have SO remaining. How many dollars does Hezekiah have?

Options:

A.

$52

B.

$64

C.

$66

D.

$72

E.

$75

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Questions 12

Exhibit.

GRE Question 12

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 13

To help the reader understand the actions of and the decisions made by people of another time, the historian's narrative must be_________what they knew; the narrative should not refer to anything not known until later.

Options:

A.

hinted at by

B.

antithetical to

C.

at odds with

D.

circumscribed by

E.

limited to

F.

consistent with

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Questions 14

The_________of biographies of antebellum capitalists is particularly striking in contrast with the abundance of life stones of industrialists in later eras.

Options:

A.

brevity

B.

banality

C.

utility

D.

paucity

E.

triteness

F.

dearth

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Questions 15

What accounts for the low-lying. Hat surface of Mars's north? On Earth's surface, higher- and lower-lying areas have different types of crust: one. thin and dense, is pulled toward Earth's center more strongly by gravity, and the planet's water naturally comes to sit over it. creating oceans. The processes that generate this oceanic crust drive plate tectonics.

Is Mars's north similarly characterized by a sort of crust different from other areas of the planet? Some researchers do see signs of tectonic activity surrounding the northern basin that suggest that it was created through the formation of new crust, like ocean basins on Earth. However. McGill points to northern bedrock structures that predate the features said to mark the start of the tectonic process. McGill instead believes that through some novel mechanism the ancient surface sank to its current depth as a single unit. This would explain why features around the basin's edge. which would have formed as the surface dropped, seem to be younger than structures at its floor.

The third possibility is that the northern lowlands result from impacts. Some researchers suggest they formed as a series of big overlapping impact craters. Others, arguing that the odds against such a pattern of impacts are large, postulate a single event—the impact of an object bigger than any asteroid the solar system now contains.

As presented in the passage. McGill's account of the formation of Mars's northern basin differs from the others mentioned in that it alone

Options:

A.

explains the formation of certain northern bedrock features

B.

does no! specify the force that caused the northern basin to be lower than its surroundings

C.

takes the northern basin to be a landform that is not analogous to any found on Earth

D.

denies that features around the northern basin are the result of tectonic activity

E.

attributes the creation of the northern lowlands to processes occurring within the planet

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Questions 16

A divide between aesthetic and technical considerations has played a crucial role in mapmaking and cartographic scholarship. Some nineteenth-century cartographers, for instance, understood themselves as technicians who did not care about visual effects, while others saw themselves as landscape painters. That dichotomy structured the discipline of the history of cartography. Until the 1980s, in what Blakemore and Harley called "the 'Old is Beautiful' paradigm.* scholars largely focused on maps made before 1800. marveling at their beauty and sometimes regretting the decline of the pre-technical age. Early mapmaking was considered art while modem cartography was located within the realm of engineering utility. Alpers. however, has argued that this boundary would have puzzled mapmakers in the seventeenth century, because they considered themselves to be visual engineers.

According to the passage. Alpers would say that the assumptions underlying the "paradigm" were

Options:

A.

inconsistent with the way some mapmakers prior to 1800 understood their own work

B.

dependent on a seventeenth-century conception of mapmaking as visual engineering

C.

unconcerned with the difference between the aesthetic and the technical qualities of mapmaking

D.

insensitive to divisions among cartographers working in the period after 1S00

E.

supported by the demonstrable technical superiority of maps made after 1S00

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Questions 17

Which of the following most logically completes the explanation provided?

Options:

A.

birds that start out sitting on power lines cannot dive to the ground as quickly as birds that have been circling in the air before their dive

B.

sage grouse are less likely to come out in the open when they sense something moving in the air than when they do not

C.

sage grouse, when disturbed, do not move very swiftly on the ground

D.

the birds that prey on sage grouse can spot sage grouse that are out in the open from a considerable distance

E.

individual sage grouse do all their foraging in relatively small areas

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Questions 18

The importance of the Bill of Rights in twentieth-century United States law and politics has led some historians to search for the "original meaning" of its most controversial clauses. This approach. known as "originalism." presumes that each right codified in the Bill of Rights had au independent history that can be studied in isolation from the histories of other rights, and its proponents ask how formulations of the Bill of Rights in 1791 reflected developments in specific areas of legal thinking at that time. Legal and constitutional historians, for example, have found originalism especially useful in the study of provisions of the Bill of Rights that were innovative by eighteenth-century standards, such as the Fourth Amendment's broadly termed protection against "unreasonable searches and seizures." Recent calls in the legal and political arena for a return to a "jurisprudence of original intention." however, have made it a matter of much more than purely scholarly interest when originalists insist that a clause's true meaning was fixed at the moment of its adoption, or maintain that only those rights explicitly mentioned in the United States Constitution deserve constitutional recognition and protection. These two claims seemingly lend support to the notion that an interpreter must apply fixed definitions of a fixed number of rights to contemporary issues, for the claims imply that the central problem of rights in the Revolutionary era was to precisely identity, enumerate, and define those rights that Americans felt were crucial to protecting their liberty.

Both claims, however, are questionable from the perspective of a strictly historical inquiry, however sensible they may seem from the vantage point of contemporary jurisprudence. Even though originalists are correct in claiming that the search for original meaning is inherently historical, historians would not normally seek.

Which of the following historical documents, if they existed, would most strengthen the author's characterization of Revolutionary

constitutionalism?

Options:

A.

Placards from 1791 urging people to ratify the Bill of Rights because it explicitly mentions all rights deserving of constitutional protection

B.

Personal letters of a framer of the Bill of Rights complaining about his colleagues' failure to reach consensus about which rights to protect and how to protect them

C.

Minutes of a meeting during which the precise wording of a right was worked out in order to ensure that the right had a single meaning

D.

The diary of a framer of the BUI of Rights that details a

discussion concerning why one particular clause should be included in the Bill of Rights

E.

Newspaper editorials asserting that the framers of the Bill of Rights failed to develop creative or innovative ideas about rights

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Questions 19

Her tendency toward_________made her willingness to step up and lead the turbulent group all the more impressive.

Options:

A.

guilelessness

B.

diffidence

C.

forbearance

D.

rectitude

E.

assiduousness

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Questions 20

Recent research has questioned the long-standing view of pearly mussels as exclusively suspension feeders (animals that strain suspended particles from water) that subsist on phytoplankton (mostly algae). Early studies of mussel feeding were based on analyses of gut contents, a method that has three weaknesses. First, material in mucus-bound gut contents is difficult to identify and quantify. Second, material found in the gut may pass undigested out of the mussel, not contributing to its nutrition. Finally, examination of gut contents offers limited insight into the mechanisms and behaviors by which mussels acquire food. Modem studies suggest that pearly mussels feed on more than just algae and may use other means than suspension feeding. Pedal feeding (sweeping up edible material with a muscular structure called the foot) has been observed in juvenile pearly mussels.

Besides the phytoplankton pearly mussels capture from the water column, their guts also contain small animals, protozoans, and detritus (nonliving particulate organic material). Recent studies show that mussels can capture and assimilate bacteria as well, a potentially important source of food in many fresh waters. Another potential source of food for mussels is dissolved organic matter. Early studies showing that pearly mussels could take up simple organic compounds were largely discounted because such labile (unstable) compounds are rarely abundant in nature. Nevertheless, recent work on other bivalves suggests that dissolved organic matter may be a significant source of nutrition.

Of this complex mix of materials that pearly mussels acquire, what is actually required and assimilated? Stable-isotope analyses of mussels taken from nature and of captive-reared mussels are beginning to offer some insight into this question. Nichols and Garling showed that pearly mussels in a small river were omnivorous, subsisting mainly on particles less than 2S micrometers in diameter, including algae, detritus, and bacteria. Bacterially derived carbon was apparently the primary source of soft-tissue carbon. However, bacteria alone cannot support mussel growth, because they lack the necessary long-chain fatty acids and sterols and are deficient in some amino acids. Bacteria may supplement other food resources, provide growth factors, or be the primary food In habitats such as headwater streams, where phytoplankton is scarce. Juvenile mussels have been most successfully reared m the laboratory on diets containing algae high in polyunsaturated fatty acids. Thus, it appears that the pearly mussel diet in nature may consist of algae, bacteria, detritus, and small animals and that at least some algae and bacteria may be required as a source of essential biochemicals.

The passage mentions which of the following as a factor that limits the information researchers can glean from analyzing gut contents?

Options:

A.

Mussels may ingest material that is not essential to their nutrition.

B.

The mechanisms mussels use to acquire food are not well understood.

C.

Juvenile mussels are able to acquire edible material through pedal feeding.

D.

Mussels appear to feed on more than one kind of food.

E.

Captive-reared mussels ingest substances that wild mussels do not eat.

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Questions 21

Although its gray text blocks and black-and-white illustrations give it a sober mien, this one-stop resource can take the place of a dozen less_________texts.

Options:

A.

exhaustive

B.

interesting

C.

appealing

D.

original

E.

educational

F.

comprehensive

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Questions 22

The following appeared as a letter to the editor from the owner of a skate shop in Central Plaza.

"Two years ago the city council voted to prohibit skateboarding in Central Plaza. They claimed that skateboard users were responsible for litter and vandalism that were keeping other visitors from coming to the plaza. In the past two years, however, there has been only a small increase in the number of visitors to Central Plaza. and litter and vandalism are still problematic. Skateboarding is permitted in Monroe Park, however, and there is no problem with litter or vandalism there. In order to restore Central Plaza to its former glory, then, we recommend that the city lift its prohibition on skateboarding in the plaza."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the recommendation.

Options:

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Questions 23

The following appeared in a letter from the owner of the Sunnyside Towers apartment complex to its manager.

"Last week, all the showerheads in the first three buildings of the Sunnyside Towers complex were modified to restrict maximum water flow to one-third of what it used to be. Although actual readings of water usage before and after the adjustment are not yet available, the change will obviously result in a considerable savings for Sunnyside Corporation, since the corporation must pay for water each month. Except for a few complaints about low water pressure, no problems with showers have been reported since the adjustment. Clearly, modifying showerheads to restrict water flow throughout all twelve buildings in the Sunnyside Towers complex will increase our profits further."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Options:

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Questions 24

The following appeared in a memo from the president of Bower Builders, a company that constructs new homes.

"A nationwide survey reveals that the two most-desired home features are a large family room and a large, well-appointed kitchen. A number of homes in our area built by our competitor Domus Construction have such features and have sold much faster and at significantly higher prices than the national average. To boost sales and profits, we should increase the size of the family rooms and kitchens in all the homes we build and should make state-of-the-art kitchens a standard feature. Moreover, our larger family rooms and kitchens can come at the expense of the dining room, since many of our recent buyers say they do not need a separate dining room for family meals."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Options:

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Questions 25

Claim: Governments must ensure that their major cities receive the financial support they need in order to thrive.

Reason: It is primarily in cities that a nation's cultural traditions are preserved and generated.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim and the reason on which that claim is based.

Options:

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Questions 26

The following appeared in a letter to the editor of a Batavia newspaper

"The department of agriculture in Batavia reports that the number of dairy farms throughout the country is now 25 percent greater than it was 10 years ago. Dunne this same time period, however, the price of milk at the local Excello Food Market has increased from SI.50 to over S3.00 per gallon. To prevent farmers from continuing to receive excessive profits on an apparently increased supply of milk, the Batavia government should begin to regulate retail milk prices Such regulation is necessary to ensure fair prices for consumers."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the recommendation is likely to have the predicted result Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the recommendation

Options:

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Questions 27

Exhibit.

GRE Question 27

What is the total number of cats and the total number of dogs in the households with 4 pets per household if 2 households have 3 cats and 1 dog per household and 2 households have 2 cats and 2 dogs per household?

Options:

A.

10 cats and 6 dogs

B.

16 cats and 8 dogs

C.

20 cats and 20 dogs

D.

26 cats and 14 dogs

E.

30 cats and 10 does

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Questions 28

The following appeared in a letter to the editor of a Batavia newspaper

"The department of agriculture in Batavia reports that the number of dairy farms throughout the country is now 25 percent greater than it was 10 years ago. During this same time period, however, the price of milk at the local Excello Food Market has increased from SI.50 to over $3.00 per gallon. To prevent farmers from continuing to receive excessive profits on an apparently increased supply of milk, the Batavia government should begin to regulate retail milk prices Such regulation is necessary to ensure fair prices for consumers."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the recommendation is likely to have the predicted result Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the recommendation

Options:

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Questions 29

The danger often facing authors of satirical works is that if the audience is not (i)_________the joke, the piece may

end up (ii)_________the behavior it was trying to (iii)_________.

Options:

A.

already frustrated by

B.

willing to laugh at

C.

discerning enough to get

D.

reinforcing

E.

depicting

F.

elucidating

G.

conceal

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Questions 30

Colleges and universities should require their students to spend at least one semester studying in a foreign country.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with (lie claim. In developing and supporting your position- be sure to address the most compelling reasons and or examples that could be used to challenge your position.

Options:

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Questions 31

No act is done purely for the benefit of

Claim: others

All actions—even those that seem to be done

for other people—are based on self-interest.

Reason-

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim and the reason on which that claim is based.

Options:

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Questions 32

Even the most complex models used in fishery management are cartoons of reality. They reduce hundreds of links in food webs to a handful and inadequately represent processes operating over space. Many of their assumptions are as flawed today as those of the simplest models of the past. Fish stocks, for one. are still assumed to be populations of a species that are isolated from one another. Yet many populations mix at their edges and some even migrate through areas occupied by other populations. Furthermore, the more complex models suffer from a "crisis of complexity"—more is really less. Adding layers of detail, each carrying its own set of assumptions, produces instability. The model's behavior becomes erratic, and conclusions drawn from it can be downright misleading.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about "models of the past"?

Options:

A.

They depended on more assumptions than do most of today's models.

B.

They often behaved less predictably than do today's more complex models.

C.

At least some of the assumptions they made are still used in models today.

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Questions 33

The inventory of confirmed planets outside our solar system is growing rapidly, although it is_________by the fact that it is easier to detect big planets than small ones and planets close to their parent stars than those farther away.

Options:

A.

encumbered

B.

reinforced

C.

belied

D.

biased

E.

distorted

F.

corroborated

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Questions 34

Many people eschewed botany as merely the_________business of renaming and reclassifying plants until the concern over Earth's loss of biodiversity brought botany into everyday discussions.

Options:

A.

arcane

B.

stodgy

C.

enlightening

D.

esoteric

E.

essential

F.

indispensable

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Questions 35

Exhibit.

GRE Question 35

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 36

GRE Question 36

A)

GRE Question 36

B)

GRE Question 36

C)

GRE Question 36

D)

GRE Question 36

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 37

GRE Question 37

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 38

GRE Question 38

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 39

Of the S3 members of a certain club. 48 members enjoy boating and $3 members enjoy fishing. If all except 10 of the members of the club enjoy boating or fishing or both, how many members enjoy boating but not fishing?

Options:

A.

15

B.

25

C.

38

D.

40

E.

48

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Questions 40

A continuous random variable R has a mean of 77 and a standard deviation of 8. What is the value of R that is 2.5 standard deviations above the mean?

Options:

A.

79.5

B.

85

C.

87.5

D.

93

E.

97

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Questions 41

In the xy-plane. what is the slope of the line that passes through the points (2,-3) and (5. -4)? Give your answer as a fraction.

Options:

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Questions 42

GRE Question 42

In the figure shown. ABCD is a square and E. F. G.and H are the midpoints of ihe respective sides. If AD = I, what is the sum of the areas of the shaded regions?

Give your answer as a fraction.

GRE Question 42

Options:

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Exam Code: GRE
Exam Name: GRE General Test
Last Update: Mar 24, 2024
Questions: 407

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