PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Questions and Answers

A product roadmap is a strategic plan that outlines the vision for the product, the business objectives that need to be achieved, and the timeframes for delivering key milestones or features. It provides a high-level overview of the product's development, aligning the team and stakeholders on the product's direction and the expected delivery timeline.

Product vision defines what the product aims to achieve and the value it will deliver to customers or the business.

Business objectives outline what the product aims to accomplish in terms of business impact, like increasing revenue or improving customer satisfaction.

Timeframes indicate when key milestones or releases are planned to occur, ensuring that progress can be tracked and expectations set.

This high-level structure is essential for guiding product development and keeping stakeholders aligned, without delving into the specific details of design or project management, which are more suited for other planning documents.

The correct answer is D — Ask the agile practitioner to facilitate a story-writing workshop.

When stakeholders have conflicting inputs, a collaborative approach such as a story-writing workshop enables the team to converge on a shared understanding. The agile practitioner (Scrum Master or Agile Coach) plays a key role in facilitating these sessions to ensure productive dialogue and alignment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide explains:

“Facilitated workshops, including story-writing workshops, help surface differences in stakeholder needs and create alignment through structured collaboration. Agile practitioners often lead these sessions to ensure neutrality and focus.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 — Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths’ book adds:

“Agile practitioners support product owners in building and refining the backlog, especially when multiple viewpoints or conflicts exist. Facilitated workshops ensure transparency and a collaborative environment.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is incorrect because the practitioner’s role is to facilitate, not write the stories.

B is a good idea, but the product owner should not delegate facilitation to the team.

C may assist with clarification but won’t help resolve conflict or prioritize across stakeholders.

Answer: D

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In agile,information radiators—such as visual boards placed in common areas—are used to make project dataaccessible, transparent, and real-time. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communication), visibility improves coordination across interdependent teams.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)recommends that agile teams usevisible, shared artifactssuch as task boards, burn charts, or Kanban walls to improvecross-team communicationand reduce friction.

Option Bis correct: a physical or virtual board offers transparency and encourages informal communication.

Option Ais useful but not as effective for rapid visibility.

Option Cis one-way and doesn’t support real-time updates.

Option Dis reactive and could cause delays or misalignment.

To prevent the issue of the customer declining to accept the final deliverable after the demo, the project manager should prioritize frequent releases and feedback loops. By releasing new features or updates frequently, customers have the opportunity to provide feedback earlier in the process, which allows for adjustments to be made during development rather than at the end. This iterative process ensures that the final product better aligns with the customer's expectations and requirements.

The correct answer is B – Social awareness. Social awareness includes recognizing and respecting diversity, empathy, and being sensitive to cultural and interpersonal dynamics. It’s essential for fostering inclusion and trust in diverse agile teams.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Social awareness includes being mindful of others’ emotions, needs, and concerns. Agile leaders use empathy and active listening to promote a culture of inclusiveness.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Agile Leadership Skills)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“High-performing agile teams are inclusive. Leaders demonstrate social awareness by recognizing differences and adapting their behavior to support psychological safety and mutual respect.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A is more externally focused.

C is necessary but not specific to handling team diversity.

D is general and doesn’t address interpersonal sensitivity.

Answer: B

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The daily standup is focused on ensuring the team stays synchronized on their commitments for the sprint, and it is meant to be a short meeting where team members quickly discuss what they did the previous day, what they plan to do today, and any blockers they are facing. It is not a forum for external stakeholders to ask detailed questions about the sprint backlog or delivery timelines, as this can disrupt the team's focus and hinder the meeting's efficiency.

By explaining that the standup is about synchronizing commitments, the project manager helps the business partners understand the purpose of the meeting and suggests an appropriate time and place for discussing more detailed or strategic topics.

The correct answer is A – Conduct regular one-on-one meetings to review development features and trace them back to the product roadmap. Close collaboration between the agile leader (e.g., Scrum Master or Project Lead) and the Product Owner ensures alignment between the product strategy and development execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent and open collaboration between the Product Owner and agile project leader helps maintain alignment between delivery and business objectives. These discussions link work to roadmap-level planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile leadership includes partnering with the Product Owner to ensure that work being done contributes to overall product goals. Roadmap alignment is critical.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

B is more appropriate for the Product Owner, not the project leader.

C implies waterfall-style communication.

D oversteps the Product Owner’s authority in setting feature priorities.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – A product backlog should be created to list the project requirements from all of the project stakeholders.

In Agile, the product backlog serves as a living document where requirements, user stories, and stakeholder feedback are continuously refined. It is the central mechanism for capturing and prioritizing stakeholder needs and ensuring that business value is delivered incrementally.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product backlog is a prioritized list of work for the development team that is derived from stakeholder input, user stories, and emerging needs. It evolves as the project progresses and stakeholder feedback is incorporated.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Product backlogs provide transparency into stakeholder priorities. They enable the team to continuously align work with customer expectations and business needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A refers to the traditional project charter, which is not commonly updated throughout the agile life cycle.

C is a misunderstanding—the Agile Manifesto is a set of principles, not a project-specific document.

D misuses user stories; stories are used for functional requirements, not stakeholder profiles.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is A — Stakeholders should have regularly been engaged to obtain feedback and reduce the functionality risk.

In Agile, stakeholder engagement and iterative feedback loops ensure that the solution being built is aligned with business value. Simply meeting documented requirements is insufficient. Agile practices such as demos and user feedback sessions minimize the risk of building features that fail to deliver value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile emphasizes ongoing stakeholder engagement. Demonstrating working software at the end of each iteration and gathering feedback ensures that the product is delivering business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Value-driven delivery is achieved not just by delivering what was asked for, but by ensuring it actually meets customer needs. Regular feedback from stakeholders is critical to avoid building low-value features.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to the lean principle of “decide as late as possible,” but feedback, not delay, would have addressed the issue.

C is unrelated to this context.

D lacks the collaborative engagement approach emphasized in Agile.

Answer: A

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In Agile, changes are expected and are part of the iterative process. The product owner should take the opportunity to coach the stakeholder on agile principles, explaining how continuous feedback, flexibility, and adaptability are core to delivering value in an Agile project. Instead of pushing back on changes, the product owner can help the stakeholder understand that responding to change helps improve the product and better meet user needs. This helps align the stakeholder's expectations with Agile practices and fosters better collaboration throughout the project.

A team charter with clearly defined norms, rules, and agreements is a critical tool for promoting trust and collaboration, especially in a globally distributed team. It establishes a shared understanding of how the team will work together, addresses potential communication challenges, and helps create a collaborative and respectful environment. By having these norms in place, team members from different cultures and time zones can align their expectations and behaviors, which is essential for overcoming challenges and preventing conflicts. This approach helps to foster a positive and productive team dynamic.

One of the pillars of agile isearly and continuous customer feedbackto ensure that the product being delivered meets stakeholder expectations. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Reviews and Feedback Loops)andMike Griffiths' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement),frequent customer reviews (e.g., sprint reviews)ensure alignment and early identification of quality or value issues.

Option Dis correct: regular customer engagement during reviews ensures delivery effectiveness and customer satisfaction.

Option Ais inappropriate—daily stand-ups are for internal team coordination.

Option Breflects a waterfall approach.

Option Cmisplaces the responsibility—requirements evolve and are refined throughout, not fixed up front.

The correct answer is C – Ask the team to collaboratively work out a solution. Agile teams are self-organizing, and problem-solving is most effective when handled collaboratively. The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate discussions and remove impediments—not to impose solutions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Problem detection and resolution is a continuous process. Agile teams regularly identify and resolve problems as part of the team’s responsibility. The Scrum Master supports the team by facilitating resolution discussions rather than solving problems directly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When technical challenges arise, the team should collaborate to assess the issue and determine the best course of action. The Scrum Master enables this by fostering open communication and guiding the team through the problem-solving process.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A delays resolution and pushes it into the future unnecessarily.

B undermines team autonomy and ownership.

D introduces unnecessary hierarchy into team-level problem-solving.

Answer: C

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When the team determines that the highest-priority item will take longer than expected in the current sprint, it is essential to engage the product owner. The product owner is responsible for maintaining the product backlog and defining the priority of work items. By scheduling a meeting with the product owner, the team can collaboratively reassess the priorities and make adjustments based on the evolving understanding of the work required.

The product owner can help determine if the current high-priority item should be moved to the next sprint or if other adjustments to the backlog are needed. This ensures that the team is always focused on delivering the most valuable work within the given sprint time frame. Engaging with the product owner fosters collaboration and ensures alignment between the team and stakeholders, maintaining flexibility and focus on delivering customer value.

The correct answer is D – Have the Product Owner explain the product vision and review the release plan with the team. One of the Product Owner’s key responsibilities is to communicate the product vision and ensure the team understands how their work aligns with business value. This fosters alignment and motivation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner is responsible for communicating the product vision and roadmap. This ensures that the team understands the ‘why’ behind the work and how each piece contributes to overall business goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and Product Vision)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams need context for their work. The product owner provides this by clearly sharing the vision and maintaining a transparent roadmap.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is useful but doesn’t address the larger product context.

B may help with story structuring but doesn’t clarify vision.

C delays resolving an immediate misunderstanding.

Answer: D

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In an adaptive environment, the project manager’s role is focused on facilitating collaboration and communication among stakeholders, teams, and sponsors to ensure that decisions are made quickly and effectively as circumstances change. This aligns with the agile principle of collaboration over contract negotiation and emphasizes adaptability and the ability to respond to changing needs. While project managers may still contribute to planning and other activities, fostering a collaborative and flexible decision-making process is key in an adaptive environment.

The correct answer is B — Organize training and development workshops to help all stakeholders form a shared understanding of agile practices.

Agile transformation requires not only role assignment but a cultural shift and shared mindset. Providing training and development for all stakeholders—including team members, managers, and leadership—builds a common understanding of agile principles, frameworks, and expectations.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile adoption requires training, mentoring, and coaching. It is critical that all team members and stakeholders share an understanding of agile principles and practices to foster alignment and collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Organizational Change and Culture)

Mike Griffiths:

“Effective adoption of agile requires both technical and cultural onboarding. Training everyone—not just technical team members—is essential for creating a cohesive, aligned agile environment.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A focuses only on assigning roles, which is insufficient without foundational understanding.

C is a good long-term step but doesn’t directly support the immediate team-level transition.

D limits agile adoption and fails to support holistic team capability-building.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D — Discuss the issue with the team at the next project retrospective.

Fatigue and declining productivity are ideal topics for the sprint retrospective. Retrospectives provide a dedicated time for the team to reflect on what's working and what's not, and they promote continuous improvement in a psychologically safe environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives allow teams to reflect on how they work and to continuously improve their practices, processes, and team dynamics.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Retrospectives are opportunities to openly discuss issues such as burnout or fatigue and decide as a team what improvements to implement.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A (daily standup) is focused on immediate blockers, not deep reflection.

B might help but creates unnecessary ceremony; the retrospective is the correct venue.

C escalates the issue outside the team prematurely.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C — Ask the team member to update daily progress on the information radiators.

In Agile, transparency and self-organization are key. Information radiators (e.g., task boards, digital dashboards) allow all team members and stakeholders to see the current state of work at any time. If a team member cannot attend stand-ups, they should still update their tasks on the board so that others are informed.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators ensure transparent communication of progress, risks, and blockers to all team members and stakeholders. These should be updated in real-time or daily by those responsible.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths:

“Task boards and progress charts allow anyone to see project status without waiting for meetings. Team members must take responsibility for keeping them current.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A punishes the team for one member’s lack of participation and doesn’t solve the communication issue.

B reintroduces a command-and-control model, reducing team ownership.

D is dishonest and violates agile principles of transparency.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – Fishbone diagram. Also known as an Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, this analysis tool helps teams identify root causes of delays or inefficiencies. In this scenario, the team needs to understand the causes of delayed release cycles to make process improvements.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Root cause analysis tools such as fishbone diagrams can help teams identify underlying causes of inefficiencies or failures, supporting continuous improvement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths also writes:

“A fishbone diagram helps the team brainstorm and categorize the potential causes of a problem, enabling a structured investigation into delays or bottlenecks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is for identifying and managing risks, not diagnosing root causes.

B analyzes progress metrics but doesn’t provide root cause insights.

C is for understanding customer satisfaction, not operational delays.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Meet with the team to discuss the issue and identify specific actions to reduce or eliminate the issue. Agile coaches facilitate team self-management, guide reflection, and encourage the team to solve performance issues collaboratively. Open discussion fosters ownership and accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches guide teams through self-reflection and help them identify root causes of issues. Coaches support team-driven resolutions to behavioral and performance problems.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Agile Coaching and Team Performance)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Effective agile leadership involves enabling the team to identify and resolve their own challenges. Top-down directives may harm morale and self-organization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance and Coaching)

Incorrect options:

A and B bring in external control, undermining team autonomy.

D is punitive and contradicts agile principles of empowerment and trust.

Answer: C

Pull communication is most effective for a distributed team working across multiple locations, especially when task-oriented communications and discussion boards are involved. With pull communication, team members can access information when needed, such as through shared documents, wikis, or discussion boards. This ensures that communication is effective and available asynchronously, allowing the team to collaborate and stay informed without needing to be online at the same time. This method is particularly useful when managing a geographically dispersed team.

Technical debtrefers to the accumulated cost of suboptimal design or code, often due to shortcuts or lack of refactoring. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality and Technical Debt)recommends treating technical debt as animpedimentthat should be logged, tracked, and discussed openly so it can be prioritized and addressed.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)advises teams to be transparent about technical debt and elevate its visibility so that product owners and stakeholders can make informed decisions.

Option Cis correct: logging technical debt as animpedimentbrings visibility and ensures discussion.

Option Amay indicate a problem, but it’s indirect.

Option Bdistorts estimation metrics and is not advised.

Option Dcould help but does not communicate impact explicitly.

The correct answer is A – Prioritize the stakeholder feedback, considering the impact on strategic objectives and current workload, and discuss these priorities with the team in the next sprint planning meeting to collaboratively decide on the next steps.

Agile promotes adaptive planning and continuous stakeholder engagement. While feedback is highly valuable, especially from a sprint review, changes to the product backlog must be carefully prioritized and collaboratively discussed with the team. The product owner’s responsibility is to maintain and refine the backlog, ensuring alignment with stakeholder needs while also preserving team focus and avoiding unnecessary disruption during an ongoing sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product backlog refinement is an ongoing process in which the product owner and the team collaborate on the details of backlog items. This includes analyzing, estimating, and prioritizing items to reflect the latest feedback and business needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Refinement)

“Agile teams embrace change, especially when it delivers value. However, they also maintain sustainable pace and focus by avoiding mid-sprint scope changes unless absolutely necessary. Backlog items are reviewed and reprioritized before the next sprint begins.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“While agile encourages responding to change, disrupting sprint commitments can erode team trust and productivity. Sprint planning is the correct forum to reprioritize work based on new stakeholder insights.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

B introduces mid-sprint disruption and disregards agile best practices for maintaining sprint integrity and team focus.

C eliminates team collaboration and risks breakdowns in communication, violating agile’s emphasis on transparency and teamwork.

D disregards valuable feedback and delays addressing important stakeholder needs, which could compromise customer satisfaction and strategic alignment.

Answer: A

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In Agile, estimates are initially based on previous experiences or expert opinions, but as the team progresses through sprints, they gain more insight into the project’s actual complexity and the team's capacity. Agile estimates evolve over time based on the team's velocity, which reflects how much work the team can realistically handle. This is why the actual scope and timelines can differ from initial estimates. The agile lead should emphasize that the initial estimates were helpful for understanding feasibility, but the true estimates are refined continuously as the team gains more experience and understanding of the work, and as complexities or dependencies become clearer during each sprint.

Spikes are meant forexperimentation and learning, not guaranteed outcomes. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes), if a spike does not lead to a clear solution, the team can extend or reframe it, especially when aiming for asustainable long-term solution. Agile supportsencouraging experimentationand learning from failure.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution) recommends adapting when a spike’s results are inconclusive—redefining the scope and collaborating as a teamincreases the chance of a valuable outcome.

Option Bis correct: it continues learning and promotes team collaboration.

Option Aundercuts team ownership.

Option Cprioritizes a short-term fix and undermines agile values.

Option Dis not needed at this early stage—root cause analysis is better for recurring or systemic issues.

In agile environments, planning should be flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Just-in-time (JIT) refinement refers to the practice of refining the backlog and details of the product features as they become more relevant, rather than attempting to plan everything upfront. This allows the team to respond to changes and new information as they emerge, which aligns with agile principles of iterative development and adaptability.

The correct answer is A — Provide feedback for completed user stories.

Stakeholder involvement in Agile is ongoing. Their primary role is to give timely and actionable feedback on delivered product increments to ensure alignment with their expectations and business value goals. This feedback is then used to refine the product backlog and guide future iterations.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholders should engage regularly to inspect product increments and provide feedback to guide value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“In agile projects, stakeholders ensure their needs are met by actively reviewing completed work and providing feedback to influence upcoming work.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B is the team's responsibility; stakeholders should focus on the “what,” not the “how.”

C is the product owner's responsibility.

D is a collaborative task but not solely a stakeholder responsibility.

Answer: A

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The in-person demonstration meeting is crucial because it allows the team to directly engage with the product owner, ask clarifying questions, and immediately address any feedback or concerns. This fosters better communication, understanding, and collaboration between the team and the product owner. Being able to have a real-time conversation helps the team ensure they are building the right product, and it allows the product owner to provide nuanced feedback that might not be as clear through asynchronous communication (like sending a link).

The face-to-face interaction provides an opportunity for both parties to align more effectively on the product vision, avoid misunderstandings, and prevent misalignment on priorities, ultimately ensuring that the product being developed meets expectations.

The correct answer is B — Prioritize the most valuable product features in the backlog first.

Agile prioritization focuses on delivering value early and frequently. Coaching the product owner to understand value-based prioritization ensures that the most critical features are built and validated first.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams focus on delivering the highest value items first. The product owner prioritizes the backlog based on business value, risk, and stakeholder input.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.3 – Backlog Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Product backlog prioritization is value-driven. The product owner should assess each item’s value and prioritize those that deliver the greatest return or strategic impact.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A misinterprets story points as a priority metric—story points measure effort, not value.

C addresses risk but not value.

D refers to Minimum Viable Product (MVP), which is a release planning technique, not a backlog sorting method.

Answer: B

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The information radiator is a key tool in Agile that provides a real-time, visual display of the project's current status, including progress, completed tasks, blockers, and upcoming work. This is typically made accessible to all stakeholders and is updated regularly to ensure transparency and communication. Instead of relying on emails or meeting invites, the Scrum Master should direct the customer representative to the information radiator, as it provides the most up-to-date and easily accessible information about the project’s progress. This encourages transparency and aligns with Agile principles of open communication and visibility.

The correct answer is C – Facilitate a retrospective to identify areas of improvement.

In Agile, mistakes are viewed as learning opportunities. The Scrum Master should create a safe environment where the team can reflect, discuss issues openly, and identify ways to prevent similar mistakes in the future.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives provide a regular forum for teams to inspect and adapt. Teams discuss what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve. This supports continuous learning and performance enhancement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Iteration Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Mistakes are inevitable; agile teams embrace them to improve. Retrospectives are essential for structured reflection and action planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options are less appropriate:

A may reinforce outdated or flawed processes.

B may help in quality control but does not address the mistake constructively.

D promotes fear and competition, which undermines team trust and collaboration.

Answer: C

In an Agile environment, fostering a culture of collaboration and effective communication is key to success, especially when working with a diverse team. By creating a shared vision, the project manager aligns the team towards common goals, which helps reduce misunderstandings. Using techniques to increase empathy and positive interaction ensures that team members understand and respect each other's different perspectives. This approach promotes a collaborative environment where diverse ideas can be valued and conflicts can be addressed constructively.

The act ofsharing iteration charts and progress metricsreflects a core agile value:transparency. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1: Communication and Transparency)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), transparency enables stakeholders to participate constructively in decision-making and promotestrust and visibility.

Option Ais correct: sharing charts buildsopenness and visibilityon the project's progress.

Option Bmay occur, but it’s not theprimary practicedescribed.

Option Cfocuses ondelivery method, not transparency.

Option Dis part of agile, but the emphasis here is onproject health visibility.

The correct answer is C – The team should discuss their definition of done (DoD) and make changes to ensure there is common understanding of the acceptance criteria.

A shared understanding of what “done” means ensures consistent quality across team members. When this understanding is missing, defects and inconsistencies arise. The Definition of Done (DoD) should be reviewed and updated collaboratively to set a clear standard for completeness and quality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Definition of Done provides a shared understanding of when work is complete. This includes quality criteria, testing, and documentation. It should be revisited regularly to maintain alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Quality issues often result from unclear or inconsistent DoD. Revisiting and refining it ensures consistent expectations across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A (TDD) may help, but won’t solve the fundamental alignment issue.

B accepts a problem without resolving it.

D imposes a process without team collaboration, which is not agile.

Answer: C

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Thefirst step for a new Scrum Masteris to gaincontext and alignment. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.3: Agile Mindset), agile leaders must understand theproduct vision and goalsto provide proper support to the team and align delivery efforts with organizational objectives.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset)emphasizes that new leaders should start byunderstanding stakeholder expectations, enterprise context, and business driversbefore making operational decisions like backlog setup or sprint planning.

Option Bis correct: understanding the project vision provides critical context.

Option Ais premature without first understanding the broader organizational objectives.

Option C(sprint 0) can be useful but should follow alignment on vision and context.

Option Dskips necessary discovery and planning.

The correct answer is A – Educate the QA manager that in agile, quality is integrated from the beginning to the end of the project. Agile emphasizes “built-in” quality through test-first approaches, continuous integration, and Definition of Done. Addressing resistance through education helps clarify that quality is a core part of Agile—not an afterthought.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile does not remove quality controls; rather, it integrates them throughout the development process. Quality is everyone’s responsibility and is embedded through practices such as TDD, automated testing, and continuous feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Quality and Agile)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“In Agile, quality is not sacrificed. It is a fundamental principle. Teams ensure quality by defining acceptance criteria, using continuous integration, and practicing test-first development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B may be helpful tactically, but doesn’t address the underlying concern.

C misrepresents technical debt.

D places too much QA responsibility on the product owner.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Request that the Product Owner include a spike in the next iteration's backlog so they can perform an initial investigation.

A spike is a time-boxed activity that allows teams to research or experiment to gain knowledge about technical or functional aspects of an upcoming feature or integration. Since the team lacks experience with the new component, using a spike will allow them to explore and reduce uncertainty before actual development begins.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are research activities that help teams gain the knowledge needed to reduce uncertainty and risk in upcoming stories.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Spikes are used when the team is not confident about how to implement a story due to technical or domain uncertainty. Spikes help mitigate risk and inform estimation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options are suboptimal:

A involves team extension, which contradicts Agile's preference for stable, cross-functional teams.

B is misaligned—technical investigation is a team responsibility, not the Product Owner's.

D avoids learning and may compromise solution quality.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C – Ensure the team captures the technical dependencies as issues within the backlog and prioritize based on value optimization. In Agile, technical considerations are factored into backlog refinement and sprint planning. Dependencies should be visualized and managed as part of adaptive planning while still striving to deliver maximum value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog items with technical dependencies should be identified and addressed collaboratively. Agile teams balance value with feasibility and technical constraints to optimize delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement and Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“While business value drives prioritization, technical constraints influence the ordering of stories. Agile planning is adaptive; dependencies and delivery risks are identified early and managed through backlog reordering.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may discard valuable features unnecessarily.

B risks accumulating technical debt and incomplete work.

D shifts responsibility away from the team and PO unnecessarily.

Answer: C

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Sprint reviews are a crucial Scrum event for obtaining early feedback from stakeholders, which allows the team to inspect the progress and adapt the product accordingly. By skipping sprint reviews in favor of only release reviews, the team loses the opportunity to make adjustments and improvements throughout the project. The scrum master should emphasize the importance of regular feedback and ensure the team stays aligned with Scrum principles for continuous improvement and value delivery.

The correct answer is D — Ensure that planning and prioritizing includes consideration of security requirements.

Non-functional requirements (such as security, performance, or compliance) must be included in backlog prioritization and planning sessions. Agile teams must incorporate these concerns into their definition of done and acceptance criteria to ensure continuous compliance and product integrity.

PMI Agile Practice Guide emphasizes:

“Non-functional requirements (NFRs) must be prioritized and planned for alongside functional user stories. They are not optional, and failure to include them early often leads to system failure or technical debt.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Planning Considerations)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile teams should treat NFRs as constraints that are baked into every sprint. Rather than isolating them, they should be considered in backlog refinement and story definition.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A may help, but meeting agendas alone are not sufficient for managing NFRs.

B may assist with knowledge, but it doesn’t guarantee prioritization.

C implies treating the NFR as a risk rather than a core requirement.

Answer: D

The correct answer is C — Facilitate team brainstorming of the risks resulting from complexity for the risk register.

Technical complexity introduces risks that must be identified and managed early. Agile leaders support teams by facilitating collaborative risk identification, not by dictating solutions. Brainstorming sessions help surface concerns and lead to proactive mitigation strategies.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Risks are best identified through team collaboration. Facilitated risk identification sessions encourage broad participation and lead to better awareness and ownership of potential issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“In agile projects, technical risks are treated early. Collaborative identification and visibility are key to creating a risk-adjusted delivery plan.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is valid long-term, but brainstorming comes first for awareness.

B limits risk planning to a fixed period (Sprint 0), which may not be enough.

D promotes innovation but not structured risk identification.

Answer: C

—

A spike is a time-boxed research activity used in Agile to explore uncertainties or unknowns, such as dependencies in this case. If the product owner is unsure about the risks related to migrating to a new version of a database, they can request a spike from the team. This will allow the team to investigate the dependencies, assess potential risks, and gather the necessary information to move forward with the user story. This helps reduce uncertainty and makes it easier to make informed decisions about the next steps.

In an adaptive approach to project management, particularly in agile, empowering team leads to manage their teams’ issues and impediments is a key practice. This allows for more autonomy within the teams, ensures that obstacles are handled promptly, and promotes frequent communication among team leads. By giving the leads the authority to resolve issues, they can ensure smooth collaboration across cross-functional teams and maintain alignment with the overall project goals.

To identify the features that offer the maximum value, the product owner should focus on understanding the needs and priorities of the product's end users. By identifying the users and their key activities, the product owner can ensure that the features included in the roadmap directly address the most important user needs and deliver the highest value. This user-centric approach ensures that the product delivers tangible benefits to its intended audience and aligns with their requirements.

The correct answer is D — A list of questions for the team and customer representative.

In Agile, creating a shared product vision is a collaborative effort that begins with open dialogue. The team should prepare insightful, value-driven questions to understand the customer’s needs, pain points, desired outcomes, and business drivers. This supports co-creation of the vision rather than relying on rigid documentation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“A shared product vision aligns the team and stakeholders. Early collaboration and asking the right questions help establish understanding and purpose.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 – Agile Mindset)

Mike Griffiths:

“Visioning meetings are facilitated conversations where teams and stakeholders explore product goals and user needs. Questions—not documents—drive clarity.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A implies a rigid, document-driven mindset—contrary to Agile.

B assumes the backlog exists before visioning.

C is too early for acceptance criteria before vision alignment.

Answer: D

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The requirement for the home button to be recognizable is subjective and requires clarification from a design perspective. The team should consult the design team or subject matter experts (SMEs) who have expertise in user experience (UX) and interface design. These experts can provide specific guidelines or criteria for what constitutes a recognizable home button, such as color, shape, placement, or icons. This ensures that the team can create an appropriate, measurable test for the requirement.

Once the team has clarity on the user stories and agrees they are ready, the next step in agile planning is toestimatethem. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimating)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile estimation techniques likestory pointsorPlanning Pokerhelp the teamgain a shared understanding of effort, complexity, and delivery time.

Option Ais correct: estimating comes before development and guides prioritization and planning.

Option Bprematurely dives into task-level detail before effort is understood.

Option Cskips planning and development entirely.

Option Drefers to retrospective, which comes after execution, not before.

The correct answer is B – Create a team norms document to set participation guidelines. Establishing team norms improves psychological safety, trust, and collaborative behavior. It provides a structured way to handle differences of opinion and ensure equal contribution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team norms or working agreements are guidelines created by the team to set expectations for behavior, participation, and communication. These norms are agreed upon early and revisited as needed to support healthy collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“High-performing agile teams create shared agreements that clarify roles, expectations, and behavior. When team conflict or disconnects arise, practitioners should guide the team to revisit or develop such norms.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A lacks structure and may not address the root issue.

C delays resolution and misuses the stand-up’s purpose.

D waits too long to act; issues should be addressed immediately, not deferred.

Answer: B

‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾

Value stream mapping is a powerful tool in Agile and Lean methodologies used to visualize and analyze the flow of materials and information across the entire process. By mapping the current state, the team can identify bottlenecks, delays, and inefficiencies, especially when multiple teams are involved in sequential activities. Once these gaps and constraints are identified, the team can work on improving the process, such as by finding ways to increase the number of systems migrated per day from two to three, thus improving overall efficiency.

The correct answer is D – Develop and distribute a high-level summary of how Agile offers greater benefits than predictive to the organization's executive directors, and if executive directors agree with the summary, distribute it organization-wide.

Cultural change must be supported from the top. Executive buy-in is crucial for any organizational transformation. Agile coaches work with leadership to promote Agile values, educate key decision-makers, and cascade change throughout the organization in a structured and supported way.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cultural change requires executive sponsorship. Coaches must engage with senior leadership to build understanding, alignment, and support before broader rollout.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Introducing Agile)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“Agile adoption is most effective when leadership embraces its principles. Change must be seeded and supported at the executive level before diffusing to teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2 – Agile Mindset)

Other options:

A gives control to mid-management, which may hinder transformation.

B misdirects effort (vendors, not coaching focus).

C risks premature deployment without leadership support.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is B — The stakeholder who can prevent the project from achieving its goals.

Stakeholder prioritization is based on power and influence. Those who can significantly impact or block project success (positively or negatively) should be prioritized. This ensures their concerns are addressed and their support is cultivated early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder engagement is critical in agile. The team must identify those who have the most influence over project outcomes and ensure early and frequent communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Stakeholder Engagement)

PMBOK® Guide:

“Stakeholder prioritization involves assessing who has the greatest influence on project success.”

—

The correct answer is D — Up-to-date project radiators.

Information radiators provide at-a-glance visibility into project status, progress, blockers, and other key metrics. Sharing or including these visual tools in extended stakeholder communication ensures transparency and up-to-date awareness, which aligns with agile values.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators provide immediate and transparent access to project health and status. They reduce the need for formal reporting and keep stakeholders aligned in real time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths:

“Using radiators to keep stakeholders informed improves trust, accelerates decision-making, and supports ongoing engagement.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and B are not relevant for stakeholder reporting.

C is too narrow and lacks the holistic view offered by radiators.

Answer: D

To reduce stakeholder risk and encourage early investment in high-risk/high-reward projects, agile recommends breaking the solution intosmall, incremental deliverablescalledMinimally Marketable Features (MMFs). According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Roadmap and MMFs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), delivering MMFs early allows the business to realize value quickly, validate assumptions, and reduce risk—especially helpful for uncertain or experimental projects.

Option Bis correct: MMFs demonstrate business value early, promoting trust and investment confidence.

Option A (PPC)andD (EV)are traditional project tracking metrics, not suited for early-stage agile investment justification.

Option C(story points) is used forcapacity planning, not financial justification.

If the team members are already communicating regularly with each other and the customer, the daily coordination meetings may not be necessary. The project manager should adapt to the team's needs by reducing the frequency of these meetings, allowing the team to focus more on delivering work. This approach supports Agile principles of minimizing waste and encouraging efficient communication, ensuring that meetings are only held when they add clear value. The team can use alternative methods (e.g., a digital board or asynchronous communication) to stay aligned.

Analyzing theburndown chart, we see:

Points Planned(gray squares): decreasing steadily from 50 to 0 over 10 days (ideal burn).

Points Completed(gray triangles):plateau between days 3–6, lagging significantly behind planned completion.

This indicates that theteam is behind schedule, and unless they accelerate, they mayfail to complete all committed work.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Burndown Charts)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Monitoring Progress), such divergence between the ideal and actual burn lines indicates that the iteration isat risk.

Option Ais correct: the iteration isin jeopardydue to lack of progress mid-sprint.

Option Bis incorrect—scope removal would show a downward shift in planned points.

Option Cis false—the team isbehind, not ahead.

Option Dis misleading—velocity appears inconsistent (e.g., plateau from day 3–6).

The correct answer is B — Two-way communication.

Agile thrives on collaboration and transparency. In sprint planning, the product owner presents the business needs (via user stories), and the team responds with estimates and commitments. This mutual communication fosters alignment, shared understanding, and trust, which is characteristic of two-way communication.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects rely on high levels of communication and collaboration, especially between the product owner and development team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths:

“Two-way communication allows feedback and clarification. Sprint planning is a prime example where the PO and team interact to shape and commit to sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to managing emotions, not communication style.

C is unrelated to agile practice.

D (reciprocal communication) is a less common term and not directly aligned with the scenario.

Answer: B

—

To reduce stakeholder risk and encourage early investment in high-risk/high-reward projects, agile recommends breaking the solution intosmall, incremental deliverablescalledMinimally Marketable Features (MMFs). According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Roadmap and MMFs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), delivering MMFs early allows the business to realize value quickly, validate assumptions, and reduce risk—especially helpful for uncertain or experimental projects.

Option Bis correct: MMFs demonstrate business value early, promoting trust and investment confidence.

Option A (PPC)andD (EV)are traditional project tracking metrics, not suited for early-stage agile investment justification.

Option C(story points) is used forcapacity planning, not financial justification.

The correct answer is C – Amount of work that can be accomplished in an iteration. To create a release plan, an agile team uses its historical or estimated velocity—how much work the team can complete in a single iteration. This information helps forecast how many iterations will be needed to complete the prioritized work in the product backlog.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Velocity is used to determine how many iterations are required to complete the release backlog. Release planning requires an understanding of how much work can be completed per iteration to forecast delivery timelines.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams use their average velocity—the amount of work completed per iteration—as the basis for release planning. This supports predictable and empirical planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A focuses too narrowly on a single story, not the full release.

B focuses on individual capacity, which is contrary to agile’s emphasis on team output.

D is vague; capacity is better measured by iteration.

Answer: C

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The best approach for the agile coach would be to address the root cause of the concern immediately and help the team reflect on their current processes to identify ways to improve. This can be achieved by engaging the team in a discussion that focuses on understanding the issues related to the technical design and the definition of done (DoD).

This will allow the team to openly discuss and identify specific areas of the technical designs that do not meet the DoD. By understanding the underlying issues, the coach can help the team find solutions and ensure that future work aligns with the agreed-upon quality standards and expectations.

Velocity is a measure of the amount of work a team can handle during a sprint, typically measured in story points. While it can fluctuate slightly from sprint to sprint, the goal is to have velocity stabilize over time, as this helps in forecasting future sprints and planning. An increase in velocity from 27 to 35 could indicate an improvement in the team's capacity to deliver, which should be celebrated if it aligns with the team's capabilities. However, a stable velocity over time is what typically matters for predictability and planning.

The correct answer is A – Conduct frequent demos and obtain feedback from users throughout the development of the next release. Agile is feedback-driven. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews) help gather customer input to continuously enhance the product and optimize value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent demonstrations and validation with stakeholders ensure that teams deliver value continuously and adapt the product based on real-time feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Feedback and Product Review)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Customer feedback loops are vital to agile. Demos provide a mechanism for validating delivered functionality, identifying improvement opportunities, and maximizing product value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts continuous delivery and customer collaboration.

C may help with scale, but doesn’t directly address value improvement.

D is more about process quality than business value.

Answer: A

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A product roadmap is a high-level visual representation of a product's development strategy, highlighting upcoming product releases and the features or goals that will be included in each release. By displaying the roadmap, the agile project manager is ensuring that all stakeholders are aligned on what the product will deliver and when, helping to manage expectations and communicate progress. This is essential for ensuring that everyone involved in the project has a shared understanding of the product's direction and key milestones.

To prevent the prioritization meeting from turning into a brainstorming session, the product owner should ensure that user stories are well-defined before they are added to the backlog. By reviewing the items with the product owner’s teammates (or stakeholders) beforehand, the product owner can clarify the details of the stories and ensure they are properly defined. This allows the team to focus on prioritization during the meeting, rather than spending time clarifying vague requests. This proactive approach improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the prioritization process.

In Scrum, the goal is to have open discussions during estimation, where all team members, including junior developers, can express their thoughts and assumptions. The Scrum Master should encourage the junior developers to keep their estimations because these can highlight different perspectives, constraints, or assumptions that others may not have considered. This helps create a more comprehensive understanding of the work and fosters a collaborative environment. It also builds confidence in junior team members, allowing them to contribute more effectively and learn from their peers in the process.

The correct answer is C — The stakeholders will learn whether or not the implementation has worked by getting immediate feedback so they can correct their assumptions for the next sprint.

Agile welcomes stakeholder involvement throughout the project lifecycle. Demos (also called sprint reviews) are critical opportunities for stakeholders to inspect the product increment and provide feedback, which helps teams pivot or adapt early and often. Immediate feedback reduces the risk of building features that do not meet business needs.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Iteration reviews/demos provide stakeholders with the opportunity to see working product increments and offer feedback while there is still time to make changes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths supports this by stating:

“Engaging stakeholders during sprint reviews allows assumptions to be challenged early. This feedback loop ensures value alignment and reduces the likelihood of rework.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A incorrectly distances stakeholders from essential agile feedback cycles.

B shifts focus away from value to effort-based metrics.

D is more about long-term ROI, not immediate iterative feedback.

Answer: C

—

Story point estimation in agile is acollaborative team activity, and consensus is critical. Techniques likePlanning Pokerare designed to reveal differences in understanding. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Estimating Techniques)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), when there's adiscrepancy in estimates, it is essential todiscuss and understand the rationalebehind differing views.

Option Cis correct: the team shoulddiscuss and clarifyto reach a shared understanding.

Option Aignores potential misunderstandings.

Option Bunnecessarily delays estimation.

Option Dis incorrect—the team, not the customer, estimates the effort.

Understandingproduct vision and customer goalsis foundational to agile. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1 Agile Mindset and Values), early engagement helps teamsconnect their work to real customer outcomes, which increasesmotivation, alignment, and value delivery.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset) also notes thatclear understanding of business goalsensures that team members build the right thing—not just build things right.

Option Ais correct: aligning the team with the product’s purpose drivesvalue-oriented thinking.

Option Bis secondary—understanding comes before acceptance.

Option Cis unrealistic and not the goal of this meeting.

Option Dmay occur, but the main benefit is deeper alignment with value.

Step 1: Identify Remaining MVP Story Points

The backlog lists the MVP-related stories that are not yet started:

Accessibility – color blind → 4 story points

Increase security → 21 story points

Add AI chatbot → 5 story points

Total remaining MVP story points = 4 + 21 + 5 = 30

Step 2: Consider Velocity and Sprint Progress

The risk register mentions a reduction of 1 story point per sprint from sprints 4 through 6 due to the holiday schedule.

If we assume the team's normal velocity is 10 story points per sprint (hypothetically), it would drop to 9 story points per sprint for sprints 4-6.

Step 3: Calculate Completion Sprint

If the team normally completes 10 story points per sprint, they would require approximately 3 sprints (Sprint 7, Sprint 8, and Sprint 9) to complete the remaining 30 story points.

The correct answer is D – Create a risk burndown chart showing the reduction of risks over time.

In Agile, risk management is integrated into each iteration. A risk burndown chart is a visual information radiator that tracks the total risk exposure and how it changes over time, making risk transparent and easy for the team to understand.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“A risk burndown chart can be used to communicate the decreasing level of project risk over time and encourage discussion on risk mitigation strategies.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.4 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths also states:

“Agile teams use tools like risk burndown charts to visualize risks and track mitigation. They provide real-time understanding of current and remaining risks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options:

A is a responsibility assignment matrix (not risk-focused).

B and C are traditional (predictive) methods and don’t align with Agile risk communication.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Explore options for increasing knowledge in the next iteration's backlog.

One of the key principles of Agile is continuous learning and improvement. When the team identifies a skills gap during a retrospective, the appropriate response is to turn that learning need into actionable items in the upcoming backlog. This can include training, pairing, spikes, or experimenting in a time-boxed way during the next iteration.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should regularly inspect their tools, practices, and outcomes and incorporate improvement actions into their backlog. Continuous learning is a shared responsibility.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Retrospectives & Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths also supports this:

“Improvement actions should be planned, prioritized, and implemented like any other work. Skills development should be addressed through backlog items such as training, spikes, or pairing.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options fall short:

B adds scope mid-sprint, which violates Agile principles (sprint backlog should remain stable).

C may be viable long-term, but doesn’t address the team's agreed goal of learning the tool.

D brings in an external expert rather than empowering the team to grow their capabilities.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Align with stakeholder expectations and releasable product increments.

In Agile, sprint or iteration reviews provide an opportunity for the team to present completed work and validate it against stakeholder expectations. Demonstrations should showcase working, potentially shippable increments that align with business goals and value delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The purpose of iteration reviews is to showcase a working product increment. The review should focus on what was completed and how it aligns with stakeholder expectations and business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Iteration Review)

PMBOK® Guide further reinforces this point:

“The team should deliver functional product increments that are valuable to stakeholders. These should be validated for alignment with scope and business value.”

(PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition, Section 5.5 – Validate Scope)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Product demonstrations should confirm stakeholder needs are being met. The team’s focus should be on verifying value delivery, product completeness, and stakeholder alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Feedback)

Why other options fall short:

A is valuable context, but doesn’t directly ensure demonstration success.

C reflects team improvement but is not the purpose of a product demo.

D speaks to collaboration, not validation of stakeholder alignment.

Answer: B

In Agile, flexibility and adaptability are key, especially when dealing with uncertain or changing requirements like evolving government regulations. The agile coach should ensure that the team is building the product incrementally, allowing for adjustments as needed. This way, when the regulatory changes occur, the team can adapt quickly without disrupting the entire release process. By focusing on delivering small, workable increments, the team can respond to changes more efficiently.

To estimate the project's conclusion using velocity, we use the formula:

Given:

Velocity = 40 story points per sprint

Remaining Work = 240 story points

Sprint Duration = 2 weeks

Since each sprint is 2 weeks, the total duration will be:

6 × 2 weeks = 12 weeks = 3 months

The correct answer is A – Jointly meet with the team and product owner to discuss options and determine the end date. Agile promotes collaborative decision-making. When significant changes in performance arise, discussions should occur between the team and product owner to assess impact, explore value delivery, and make informed decisions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams regularly review performance trends. Changes in velocity should prompt discussions between the team and product owner to evaluate implications and opportunities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Release Planning)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Forecasting must remain collaborative. Teams and product owners work together to determine whether to ship early, expand scope, or adjust timelines.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B skips stakeholder collaboration.

C assumes backlog expansion without value validation.

D contradicts agile principles of delivering value early.

Answer: A

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The Scrum Master should act as a facilitator and protect the team from unnecessary distractions that do not add value. By attending the meetings in place of the team members, the Scrum Master can assess the meetings' value and determine if they are essential to the team's progress. If the meetings are unnecessary or inefficient, the Scrum Master can work with stakeholders to improve or remove them, ensuring that the team’s time is used productively and that they can focus on delivering value.

TheMoSCoW method(Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have) is aprioritization techniquecommonly used in agile to determine which stories deliver the most value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Prioritization Techniques)lists MoSCoW as one of the methods used by product owners and teams toprioritize backlog items.

Option Ais correct: MoSCoW is a proven agile prioritization method.

Option Bis used forestimation, not prioritization.

Option Cis not a standard agile prioritization method.

The Scrum retrospective is the appropriate place for the team to reflect on what went well and what didn’t, including the missed sprint goals. The Scrum master should facilitate an open and constructive discussion about the impediments faced during the sprint, such as the unavailability of the specialist, and help the team find ways to avoid or mitigate similar issues in future sprints. This helps the team continuously improve and ensures that they are better prepared for future challenges.

The agile lead is emphasizing the importance of creating a safe environment for disagreement, which encourages constructive conflict. In Agile, this is crucial because it allows team members to openly express differing opinions and perspectives. Such discussions often lead to better decision-making by surfacing various viewpoints and potential solutions. When teams feel safe to disagree, it fosters creativity, innovation, and problem-solving without fear of retribution. This aligns with Agile principles of collaboration, transparency, and continuous improvement.

The correct answer is D – Facilitate a product development roadmap workshop. Engaging stakeholders early through a roadmap workshop helps align expectations, prioritize outcomes, and build shared understanding around value delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product roadmaps provide a high-level view of deliverables and timing. Facilitating roadmap workshops ensures that all stakeholders contribute to and align with the vision.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Product Roadmap and Planning)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Roadmap workshops allow stakeholders to discuss release priorities and business goals, ensuring engagement in the planning process and continuous alignment throughout the project.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A reflects a waterfall mindset.

B involves team-level planning, not broad stakeholder engagement.

C is informative but not collaborative or sufficient for planning.

Answer: D

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The team lead should facilitate a constructive discussion by restating both perspectives clearly, which can help ensure that all team members understand each other's viewpoints. Asking for more details about both approaches allows the team to analyze each method's pros and cons, fostering a collaborative, solution-focused discussion. Creating a chart of similarities and differences can provide a visual representation that helps the team make an informed decision, highlighting which elements from both approaches might be beneficial. This approach encourages open communication, avoids escalation, and leads to a productive exploration of options without dismissing either side.

Gold-plating—adding extra features not requested or prioritized—is ananti-patternin agile. Agile emphasizesdelivering the highest-priority features first, and product changes should always go through theProduct Ownerfor prioritization and validation.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Backlog and Value Delivery)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), when capacity is available, the team should pull more storiesfrom the prioritized backlog, ensuring that all work aligns with stakeholder-defined value.

Option Dis correct: confirm backlog priority and use time to delivercustomer-prioritized value.

Option Asupports scope creep.

Option Bis partially correct but doesn’t optimize the time to deliver value.

Option Cperpetuates gold-plating and undermines value alignment.

Social awareness—a key element ofemotional intelligence (EI)—is the ability to understand and respect others' feelings, perspectives, and dynamics, especially indiverse teams. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Emotional Intelligence and Team Collaboration)highlights that social awareness is essential when planning inclusive team-building activities, as it helps the leader consider cultural and personal differences.

Mike Griffiths also discussesEQ (Emotional Quotient)in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)as vital to managingdiverse, high-performing teams.

Option Bis correct: social awareness allows the leader to design inclusive and engaging team activities.

Option A(networking) is more external-facing.

Option C(communication) is important but not specific to diversity sensitivity.

Option Dis broad and not specific to the interpersonal nuance required here.

The correct answer is D – Facilitate a just-in-time exploration of the functionality by the customer and the team.

Agile promotes emergent planning and just-in-time elaboration. When a customer cannot clearly define how a feature should function, collaborative exploration at the point of need (just-in-time) ensures shared understanding, timely feedback, and minimized waste.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“User stories are deliberately kept light to encourage conversation. These conversations often occur just before the story is scheduled for development—known as just-in-time elaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Preparation and Refinement)

Andy Crowe also explains:

“Agile teams defer detail until the last responsible moment. This supports flexibility and better understanding through collaboration. Facilitating exploration sessions when needed helps clarify expectations and reduce uncertainty.”

(Andy Crowe, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Value Delivery)

Why other options are less suitable:

A may be helpful for technical uncertainty, but the issue here is lack of functional clarity from the customer.

B (iteration 0) is more of a preparatory stage; it is not typically used mid-project.

C suggests decomposition but without resolving the lack of understanding; it assumes the problem is granularity, not clarity.

Hence, the correct agile action is to engage collaboratively at the point of need: D

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The correct answer is D – Turn the requests into user stories and prioritize them. In agile, all feature requests must be expressed in the form of user stories and added to the product backlog. Once added, they are prioritized collaboratively with the product owner and stakeholders, usually based on value, risk, and effort.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product backlog refinement includes breaking down large items into user stories, reprioritizing items, and ensuring they are properly understood by the team. This activity is critical in ensuring the right items are worked on at the right time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Refinement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile teams transform customer needs into user stories during backlog grooming. These are then prioritized by the product owner to ensure maximum value is delivered early.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Option A ignores customer needs. Option B (ordering by complexity) does not consider value. Option C skips the important step of converting feature requests into properly structured backlog items.

Answer: D

=========

Agile fosters asafe-to-fail environmentwhere experimentation is encouraged. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Process Improvement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement), teams should be empowered totest new ideasandlearn from outcomes, regardless of whether those experiments succeed or fail.

Option Dis correct: promoting experimentation supports learning and innovation.

Option Adiscourages risk-taking and limits growth.

Option Bcreates fear and undermines psychological safety.

Option Cmixes accountability with experimentation, which can discourage honest learning.

When plotting performance and dependencies on the product roadmap, the product manager should consider features, stages of development, technology and infrastructure, dependencies, and risks. These components are critical for understanding how the product will evolve over time, the technical requirements, how different parts of the system depend on each other, and the potential risks that may arise. This approach ensures that the team can manage dependencies effectively, mitigate risks, and deliver the product in line with business goals and timelines.

The correct answer is D – It helps to quickly resolve issues using the sponsor's influence. A sponsor's presence in Scrum ceremonies (like sprint reviews or retrospectives) helps escalate and resolve high-level issues, remove organizational blockers, and reinforce alignment between the team and the business.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Active sponsor engagement can accelerate issue resolution, remove organizational impediments, and provide vital support to the team. Sponsors are valuable allies in ensuring team success and organizational alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When sponsors are visible and engaged, teams benefit from faster decision-making, quicker escalation of issues, and improved morale. Their influence can break through bureaucratic barriers.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A misattributes sprint discipline to sponsor involvement—this is a team responsibility.

B is passive and doesn’t reflect tangible benefits.

C is useful but not the primary advantage of sponsor participation.

Answer: D

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Planning Pokeris a well-known estimation technique where team members use numbered cards (usually Fibonacci series) to estimatestory point valuesbased on relative size. It’s aconsensus-based estimation method, as described in thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimation Techniques)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Estimating Techniques).

Option Dis correct:Planning Pokeris explicitly designed for estimating stories in terms of points.

Option A (Parametric)is more common in traditional (predictive) planning.

Option B (One-to-one comparison)refers to relative sizing without collaboration.

Option C (Affinity)is another agile technique but typically used forgrouping stories into size buckets, not direct story point consensus estimation.

At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

The correct answer is D – Provide a delivery range based on the team's estimated velocity.

In Agile, planning is iterative and inherently uncertain. Rather than committing to a fixed schedule, it is best practice to provide a forecasted delivery window based on the team’s actual measured velocity. This reflects the inspect-and-adapt mindset of Agile.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams forecast delivery using velocity ranges derived from completed work. Ranges reflect uncertainty and promote realistic expectations with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Planning with ranges rather than fixed commitments respects the uncertainty of estimates and the empirical nature of Agile delivery. Forecasts should be based on velocity trends and updated iteratively.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are less suitable:

A suggests triangulating data but wrongly implies a precise commitment.

B is more of a work preparation activity, not a planning technique.

C (analogous estimation) is better suited for initial planning, not for an in-progress agile project with real velocity data.

Answer: D

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When an agile team's velocity is slowing down, it is essential to regularly evaluate and adjust how the team is performing. By using feedback loops in every sprint, the team lead can continuously assess the team's progress, identify bottlenecks, and address issues early on. These feedback loops, typically discussed in sprint retrospectives, provide an opportunity for the team to identify the root causes of challenges, such as miscommunications, and make improvements to ensure better performance in future iterations. This approach promotes ongoing reflection and adaptation, which are core principles of Agile.

In this scenario, the team faced delays due to the absence of a single tester. To prevent similar issues in the future, the team should work on becoming more cross-functional, where team members are skilled in multiple areas (e.g., testing multiple data sources). Encouraging team members to become general specialists reduces bottlenecks and dependency on a single individual, ensuring that the team can continue to make progress even if someone is unavailable. This fosters greater flexibility and resilience within the team, improving overall efficiency and minimizing disruptions in future implementations.

The correct answer is D — Engaged key stakeholders periodically to collect requirements.

Agile is based on frequent stakeholder collaboration. Continuous engagement ensures evolving needs are captured and prevents misalignment. Waiting for planning meetings or demos is too late to catch missing input.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams ensure stakeholder engagement is ongoing throughout the project. This helps validate requirements and prevent surprises during reviews.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Stakeholders should be consulted early and often. Relying on static requirements leads to gaps. Agile teams maintain constant feedback loops.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is too early and one-time.

B may help but is reactive.

C is a predictive approach inconsistent with agile.

Answer: D

The correct answer is A — Coordinate a collaboration session so all the team members are involved in the solution process.

Agile encourages cross-functional collaboration and collective problem-solving. When technical uncertainty arises, the best course of action is to leverage the team’s combined knowledge through collaboration rather than working in isolation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams rely on collaboration, especially when solving complex problems. A diversity of input and joint ownership leads to better and faster decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile practitioners should encourage collaborative decision-making. Technical decisions made in isolation can result in integration issues and delay. Collaboration unlocks shared ownership.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

B shifts focus away from current challenges.

C is long-term and not immediately actionable.

D may help, but it introduces external dependency instead of leveraging team knowledge.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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This situation introduces technical uncertainty. In agile, such scenarios are best addressed byspikesorincremental implementationandearly feedback. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Experimentation)suggests that uncertain work should be prototyped, tested early, and shown during sprint reviews for feedback and learning.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)recommends testing high-risk integrations early and iteratively, rather than over-planning.

Option Dis correct: developing, testing, and demonstrating early minimizes risk and aligns with agile principles.

Option Aleans toward waterfall-style planning and over-documentation.

Option Bincorrectly assumes non-functional requirements are less valuable—they’re critical in many systems.

Option Cmay delay necessary architectural work and increase risk.

The correct answer is A — Suggest the product owner start by focusing on the next 2 sprints instead of 10.

Agile embraces progressive elaboration — planning is done in detail only for the near term, while long-term plans remain high level and flexible. By encouraging short-term focus, the Scrum Master helps the product owner shift from a predictive mindset to an adaptive one.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects plan at multiple levels (release, iteration, and daily), focusing on near-term commitments while allowing flexibility for change. Planning multiple sprints in detail violates the principle of adaptability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Progressive Elaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Detailed long-term estimates reduce agility. The product owner should learn to prioritize work based on value, and accept that estimates beyond the next sprint or two are rough forecasts.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

B undermines agile principles by reverting to waterfall planning.

C misuses the retrospective, which is team-focused.

D may alienate the product owner rather than encourage a mindset shift.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is B – Prioritizing stories.

The MoSCoW method is a prioritization technique used in Agile to categorize requirements and backlog items based on their business value. It helps stakeholders and teams agree on what is essential to deliver versus what is desirable or optional.

MoSCoW stands for:

M – Must have

S – Should have

C – Could have

W – Won’t have (this time)

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The MoSCoW prioritization method helps stakeholders classify backlog items based on their criticality and desired delivery timing. This enables better alignment with business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“MoSCoW is a simple but effective method for clarifying which features are essential and which can be deferred. It enhances transparency during prioritization discussions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A – Estimating story size involves techniques like planning poker or T-shirt sizing.

C – Product validation is done via demos, acceptance criteria, and stakeholder feedback.

D – Progress tracking uses tools like burndown charts or cumulative flow diagrams.

Answer: B

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The Definition of Done (DoD) is a shared understanding of what it means for work to be considered complete. It is typically defined by the project sponsor and project team in collaboration. The DoD outlines the criteria that must be met for user stories, features, or tasks to be considered done, ensuring alignment between stakeholders and the development team. While the product owner, Scrum master, and stakeholders may influence the criteria, the final agreement on what constitutes "done" is determined by the project team and sponsor.

The correct answer is D – Write tests that will be used to know when a story has been correctly developed. This practice aligns with Test-Driven Development (TDD) and Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD), which are common in agile environments. Agile promotes defining “done” through clear acceptance criteria and tests before coding begins.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use test-first practices, such as TDD or ATDD, where acceptance tests are written before development begins. This ensures that functionality is built to meet agreed expectations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Agile Testing and Quality Strategies)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Defining acceptance criteria or tests before development is a core agile practice. It ensures the team understands what success looks like and builds quality in from the start.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Option A may be useful but is unrelated to the new requirements.

Option B is not standard—customers help define acceptance criteria but rarely write tests.

Option C skips an important quality control step and doesn’t align with test-first practices.

Answer: D

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Agile promotestransparency through information radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards. These tools are designed to make real-time progress visible to all stakeholders. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1: Communications)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders should be directed to thesereal-time, transparent sources of truth.

Option Bis correct: using an information radiator promotes transparency and reduces dependency on individuals.

Option Ais inappropriate—standups are for the team.

Option CandDare manual approaches that reduce transparency and don't scale.

The correct answer is D — Periodically, at both the release and project level.

Agile planning is iterative and layered. When new requirements or constraints emerge, plans should be updated at the appropriate levels—sprint, release, and potentially the overall project level. Periodic adjustments ensure continued alignment with business needs and system dependencies.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile planning is done at multiple levels: product vision, roadmap, release, iteration, and daily. These plans are continually updated based on new learning and stakeholder feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths:

“Effective planning includes periodic updates at all planning horizons. Adjusting at both the project and release levels ensures strategic alignment and tactical feasibility.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A misses the iterative nature of Agile planning.

B and C are too narrow in scope.

Answer: D

—

Agile promotescross-team collaboration and shared understanding of goals, especially when dependencies exist. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.1: Team Collaboration and Alignment)recommends usingvision alignment and shared objectivesto reduce silos and improve coordination. Avision-sharing sessionensures that all teams understand thebusiness context and mutual interdependencies, helping build accountability and improve collaboration.

Option Bis correct: shared vision fosters alignment and commitment.

Option Ais punitive and against agile values of collaboration.

Option Cdisrupts team stability and should not be a first step.

Option Daddresses the symptom (delivery delay) but not theroot cause(lack of shared vision/accountability).

The correct answer is A — Lead the team and help them to constantly improve the processes in the project.

The Scrum Master is responsible for ensuring that retrospective action items are tracked and followed up on. While the team owns the improvement actions, the Scrum Master provides support, accountability, and facilitation to ensure that continuous improvement happens.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master facilitates continuous improvement by helping the team reflect, identify actions, and ensure those actions are implemented.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Retrospectives are only effective if outcomes are tracked. The Scrum Master ensures improvement ideas are not forgotten and become part of the team’s evolution.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B uses a confrontational tone—contrary to servant leadership.

C implies micro-management and contradicts self-organization.

D avoids responsibility for facilitating improvements.

Answer: A

—

Even if a team is high-performing and stable, theScrum Master’s role remains valuablein facilitating continuous improvement, removing impediments, and protecting agile principles. However, in mature teams, a Scrum Master cansupport other teams or initiativeswhile still offering guidance to the original team.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Agile Roles)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)both emphasize thatScrum Masters evolveinto more strategic, cross-team roles as teams mature.

Option Ais correct: it reflects astrategic redeployment of a seasoned Scrum Masterwhile maintaining light support to the current team.

Option Brisks losing agile momentum and undermines continuous improvement.

Option CandDconfuse roles—Scrum Master and Product Owner must remain distinct.

The correct answer is C – Low-risk and low-value. Agile teams prioritize features that deliver the highest value earliest while also addressing risk. Features with low business value and low risk can be deferred as they contribute the least to business objectives and present no urgency.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams maximize value by focusing on delivering high-value and high-risk features early. Low-value, low-risk items are often deferred or dropped entirely if they don’t contribute meaningfully to customer outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Features should be prioritized by value and risk. Items with low value and low risk are the lowest priority. Delivering high-value features quickly enables feedback and learning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A should be prioritized early to mitigate risk and deliver value.

B are non-critical and risky—often avoided or discarded.

D delivers value, and therefore should be prioritized above low-value items.

Answer: C

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In Agile, continuous integration and regression testing should be part of every iteration to ensure that the product is always in a potentially shippable state. These practices help catch issues early in the development process, preventing defects from accumulating and becoming harder to fix later. By integrating and testing frequently, the team ensures that new code works with existing code and that the product maintains its quality throughout the development lifecycle. This approach aligns with Agile principles of delivering working software regularly and maintaining high-quality standards throughout each iteration.

The correct answer is A – The team will be unable to understand the iteration's status. Agile relies on transparency and timely updates to progress tracking tools such as task boards, burndown charts, and digital boards. Incomplete or delayed updates obscure the team's true progress, making it difficult to inspect and adapt.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Visibility of progress is key to agile. Without timely updates to task boards or status indicators, teams lose the ability to inspect and adapt effectively during iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“If user stories or tasks are not updated, burndown charts and velocity metrics become inaccurate. This compromises team transparency and decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B is not directly impacted by status updates.

C might result as a side effect, but A is more fundamental.

D misrepresents the problem—it is about progress tracking, not collaboration metrics.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Cross-train some members in the automation framework to broaden their capacity with that skill. Agile teams are cross-functional and self-organizing. Cross-training helps build resilience, reduce skill bottlenecks, and ensure continuous delivery without unnecessary delays or dependence.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cross-training improves team performance and flexibility. Agile encourages developing T-shaped skills—broad knowledge across functions and deep knowledge in one.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Cross-Functionality)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“High-performing agile teams actively cross-train to address skill gaps and reduce dependencies. This enhances velocity and self-sufficiency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B undermines team self-management and is not the PO’s responsibility.

C delays the needed skill improvement.

D sacrifices quality and value.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D — The team should reevaluate time and cost estimates to reflect the latest understanding of the work effort.

Agile supports progressive elaboration and adaptive planning. When actual effort consistently exceeds estimates, it signals a need to recalibrate estimation practices. The team should revisit their velocity, estimation techniques, and potentially re-estimate upcoming work with improved understanding.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile uses adaptive planning, where teams update estimates based on new information. This supports better forecasting and risk management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths:

“Estimation accuracy improves over time. Agile teams regularly inspect estimation practices and adjust based on historical data and team maturity.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

—

The correct answer is C – Identify and monitor issues through a risk burndown chart.

Risk burndown charts track how risk exposure is increasing or decreasing over time. This agile artifact is used to communicate risk trends and drive conversations around risk mitigation. It’s especially useful when risks threaten iteration goals or release timelines.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Risk burndown charts are visual tools that track remaining project risk. They help identify whether risks are increasing or decreasing and enable proactive management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Risk Management in Agile)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Tracking risks visually, such as in a risk burndown chart, helps stakeholders understand exposure levels and fosters risk-mitigation behavior across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Risk Management)

Why the other options fall short:

A delays action and does not help real-time monitoring.

B tracks tasks, not risk.

D (issue log) may help but lacks the proactive visual trend tracking provided by a burndown chart.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D — Work with the team to analyze the market opportunity and create a tailored agile approach if needed.

Agile promotes context-based tailoring. Just because an approach works well in one project doesn’t guarantee it will fit another. The agile leader should collaborate with the team to analyze current needs and adapt or design the most suitable process accordingly.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“There is no one-size-fits-all approach. Agile methods should be tailored to suit the project context and objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Tailoring Agile)

Mike Griffiths:

“Teams must evaluate project needs and customize their process accordingly. Blind reuse of past methods often fails to address unique challenges.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A involves stakeholders, but D emphasizes team and tailoring for delivery.

B ignores the unique needs of the new project.

C undermines agility and team ownership.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is C — Update current user stories.

Acceptance criteria are part of a user story’s definition and describe the specific conditions under which the story is considered complete. As user stories evolve and more clarity is gained, acceptance criteria must be updated within the user story itself to ensure mutual understanding of scope and expectations between the product owner and the development team.

According to PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Acceptance criteria are detailed during backlog refinement and are commonly added to user stories to define the done conditions. These are updated throughout the lifecycle of the story as more details emerge.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 — Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this:

“Acceptance criteria serve as the test conditions for confirming user stories. They are not fixed and can be elaborated collaboratively during grooming or development, and are updated directly in the user story.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 — Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A refers to adding more stories, not updating existing ones.

B (retrospectives) are used for process improvement, not for editing user stories.

D (project plan) reflects a traditional mindset and not applicable in Agile.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is B – Break the story up and focus on the most valuable parts. Agile promotes progressive elaboration, and large or complex stories (epics) should be broken down into smaller, testable user stories. This practice enables clarity, faster feedback, and more accurate planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Large stories (epics) should be split into smaller user stories to enable understanding, estimation, and incremental delivery. Stories should be small enough to be completed within an iteration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – User Stories and Story Splitting)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When a user story is too large or unclear, the team should break it down into smaller pieces, focusing on the most valuable parts first. Story splitting is a key agile practice.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A discourages collaboration and learning.

C delays the resolution unnecessarily.

D avoids solving the actual problem and abandons valuable work.

Answer: B

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Agile roles are clearly defined to avoid overlap and confusion. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3 Agile Roles), theProduct Owneris responsible forbacklog prioritization and stakeholder communication, not managing team tasks. Task management is the domain of the self-organizing team and facilitated by the Scrum Master or Agile Project Manager.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)reinforces that resolving role confusion through discussion helpsrealign expectations and improve team performance.

Option Cis correct: by clarifying roles and responsibilities, the agile project manager helps prevent overreach and ensures smoother collaboration.

Option Aaddresses the issue too late and in the wrong forum.

Option Bmisrepresents agile dynamics (self-organizing teams).

Option Drisks team morale and doesn’t address the root cause.

Creating apsychologically safe environmentis a key agile principle. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2 Team Environment), leaders should build trust and inclusion, especially for new or hesitant team members. Demonstrating that input isrespected and acted uponhelps new members gain confidence.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes thatinclusive collaborationand modeling desired behaviors in team settings are more effective than handling everything in private or through hierarchy.

Option Bis correct because it combines assurance and public demonstration of team values.

Option Amay violate psychological safety.

Option Cimplies isolation and reduces integration.

Option Dis helpful but lacks the team visibility that builds mutual trust.

The correct answer is C – Passive-aggressive. When a team delivers work but avoids open discussion or interaction, especially in meetings, it may indicate passive-aggressive behavior. This behavior might reflect unresolved tension, lack of engagement, or unwillingness to collaborate transparently.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams thrive on open communication and collaboration. Passive-aggressive behavior, where communication is avoided despite task completion, can hinder trust and team health.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths warns:

“Silence or avoidance in agile teams may signal underlying issues. While work might be completed, lack of transparency and communication should be addressed early to maintain team cohesion.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to real-time communication and is unrelated to emotional dynamics.

B is contradicted by the lack of vocal interaction.

D implies disorder or lack of structure, which is not evident here.

Answer: C

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The correct answer isB – Review possible options and make an informed decision to cut losses based on delivered business value.In agile, decisions arecontinuously evaluatedbased onvalue delivery,inspect-and-adapt principles, andbusiness justification.

From thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects emphasize delivering the highest value features early and frequently. When new information emerges—such as the high risk of failure of a critical feature—the product owner must evaluate the cost-benefit, assess remaining value, and make a business-based decision.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

“The agile mindset embraces failure as a learning opportunity but also encourages continuous evaluation of whether a project should continue. It is better to stop a project early based on value delivery assessments than to continue wasteful efforts.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Fail Fast to Learn Quickly)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Booknotes:

“Agile teams reassess business value frequently. If remaining features do not justify additional investment due to technical, market, or cost concerns, the product owner may decide to stop the project and preserve resources. This decision should always be informed by the value already delivered versus expected benefits.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

Ais a possible outcome, but prematurely terminating without analyzing value delivery is hasty.

C(bringing in experts) may increase costs and still not solve the fundamental issue of failing value.

Dignores the significance of the critical feature and assumes it can be deferred without impact—this may not be viable.

Answer: B

The correct answer is D — Explain to the team the importance of reducing team size by reducing specializations and bottlenecks and that every team member plays an equal part.

Agile promotes cross-functional, self-organizing teams where all members are responsible for delivering a working product increment. Avoiding specialized silos reduces bottlenecks and improves overall flow. Everyone contributes based on team needs, not personal preferences or status.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams minimize individual silos by encouraging cross-functional collaboration. Everyone contributes to the team goal, even if the task is outside their core skillset.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.1 – Team Composition)

Mike Griffiths:

“Specialization often becomes a bottleneck in agile teams. Agile promotes generalizing specialists—team members who are willing to stretch outside their expertise to help the team meet its goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A promotes a command-and-control model—contrary to Agile servant leadership.

B reinforces silos and inefficiency.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on team ownership.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is D – Set up a meeting with the stakeholder to modify the working agreement and ensure future engagement.

Agile values regular collaboration with stakeholders. When a stakeholder becomes disengaged, the first step is to address it through open communication and mutual agreement. Revisiting or modifying the working agreement helps reset expectations and reestablish commitment in a collaborative and respectful way.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams work closely with stakeholders and set expectations through working agreements that are revisited and refined as necessary. These agreements include communication preferences and participation expectations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this:

“Creating and maintaining stakeholder engagement requires ongoing alignment of goals and expectations. When participation drops, revisit agreements and reset expectations collaboratively.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options fall short:

A may help short-term but doesn’t address the root issue of misalignment or expectation gaps.

B comes across as directive rather than collaborative.

C escalates prematurely without attempting resolution directly with the stakeholder.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A — To better listen, serve, and help the team grow their strengths individually and as a team.

An agile coach is a servant-leader whose role is to guide the team by modeling agile values, being present, actively listening, and helping teams grow. Coaching in agile is about enabling—not controlling—the team. A coach’s mindfulness, authenticity, and presence inspire the same behaviors in the team.

PMI Agile Practice Guide notes:

“The agile coach models the agile mindset, including being present, self-aware, and aligned with agile principles. This helps the team build trust, foster collaboration, and grow capabilities organically.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Effective coaches guide by example. By modeling agile values and demonstrating presence, emotional intelligence, and listening, coaches help teams unlock their full potential.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B suggests control rather than collaboration.

C is anti-agile and contrary to the servant-leader model.

D is valid but lacks the depth of A, which captures the coach’s mindset and actions.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – The Agile team should engage stakeholders regarding the proposed designs and ensure that sufficient engagement occurs throughout the project in an adaptive way.

Agile thrives on continuous stakeholder engagement. Ignoring feedback or rigidly sticking to past decisions defeats Agile's principle of responding to change over following a plan. Even if designs have been created, collaboration must continue.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often helps ensure alignment and mitigates late surprises. Adaptive planning allows for feedback and refinement throughout the lifecycle.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Stakeholder collaboration and frequent inspection are cornerstones of Agile. Late feedback is better than no feedback. Teams must adapt.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options:

B discourages collaboration.

C emphasizes documentation over interaction.

D is drastic and unnecessary.

Answer: A

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When calculating cycle time, it's important to consider delays and bottlenecks in the process. Cycle time refers to the total time taken for a single unit of work to go through the entire process from start to finish. By identifying and understanding delays or bottlenecks, the team can gain insights into where improvements can be made to optimize the flow and reduce overall cycle time. This approach helps in identifying inefficiencies and improving the team's ability to deliver value more effectively.

The correct answer is A – Continue working on the task until it is completed. Agile teams commit to the sprint goal and are expected to deliver what they’ve planned to the best of their ability. If a task takes longer than estimated, the team inspects and adapts but generally tries to complete the committed work within the current sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are committed to delivering the work they planned for the iteration. If estimates are off, the team inspects the impact and continues, learning from it for future planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Commitment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“If something takes longer than expected, the team should strive to complete it and use the experience to improve future estimation. Agile teams maintain sprint commitment integrity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B is punitive and unaligned with Agile values.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on stable teams and sustainable pace.

D breaks commitment and risks value delivery.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Invite the team to evaluate the suggestion and measure the effectiveness of the implementation.

In Agile, continuous improvement is a shared responsibility, and retrospectives are meant to be collaborative sessions where all team members—regardless of experience—can contribute. Ideas that could enhance performance should be discussed by the team as a whole and, when deemed valuable, tested and evaluated in upcoming sprints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team owns the process and should inspect and adapt at regular intervals. During retrospectives, the team identifies potential improvements and experiments with them in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Retrospectives empower teams to improve. All suggestions, regardless of origin, should be treated with respect. Teams test ideas and inspect outcomes to improve incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options fall short:

A delays action and discourages innovation.

C makes the product owner responsible for a team process decision, which is outside their role.

D promotes hierarchy, which undermines team collaboration and Agile values.

Answer: B

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), stories areonly marked complete if they meet the Definition of Done (DoD) and are accepted by the product owner and stakeholders. If the customer (or their representative) raises a legitimate concern during the review, the story should be treated asincompleteuntil consensus is reached or it meets expectations.

Option Ais correct: if the story does not meet customer expectations, it should be reprioritized for the next sprint or refined.

Option BandDincorrectly assume that product owner or team authority overrides customer feedback.

Option Csuggests discarding the story, which is inappropriate if the customer still needs the functionality.

Stakeholder feedback is critical in agile, and the goal isdelivering value, not simply completing a checklist.

The correct answer is A — Capture risks and make them visible, and use a burndown chart to focus on reducing risks early in the project.

Technical uncertainty is a key area of risk in Agile projects. These risks should be clearly communicated, visualized, and prioritized early in the project to allow timely mitigation. Agile teams are empowered to make decisions and highlight blockers rather than delay work or seek hierarchical intervention.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams actively manage risk through transparency and continuous feedback. Risks should be made visible on information radiators and addressed early in the project to prevent impact on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams facing uncertainty must surface risks openly and early. Using charts such as risk burndown and dashboards helps keep focus on managing these risks iteratively.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts the time-boxing principle of sprints.

C raises awareness but lacks proactive risk mitigation.

D introduces a command-and-control dynamic, which is not agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – Assume the team member's tasks to meet iteration goals and notify the Product Owner. Agile teams are self-organizing and accountable. High-performing teams take ownership of shared goals and redistribute work as needed to maintain commitment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams collaborate to deliver sprint goals, adapting to changes such as unavailability of team members. They adjust workload and communicate impacts transparently.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When team composition changes, the team must redistribute work to ensure delivery. Ownership, trust, and flexibility are core traits of high-performing agile teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A signals dysfunction and abdicates team responsibility.

B implies external management of team staffing.

C violates the principle of self-organization.

The Definition of Done (DoD) is a crucial agile practice that outlines the agreed-upon criteria for when a deliverable is considered complete and ready for release. It ensures that all aspects of the deliverable meet the necessary standards and requirements before it is finalized. Additionally, the team should demonstrate the deliverable, typically during a sprint review or other appropriate meeting, to confirm that it meets stakeholder expectations and aligns with the project goals. This practice helps ensure that the deliverables are truly complete and ready for release, avoiding rework and maintaining a high level of quality.

The correct answer is D — Facilitate a team retrospective.

A drop in team morale and performance signals the need for a structured conversation where the team can reflect, diagnose root causes, and propose changes. Retrospectives are the Agile mechanism for identifying and addressing performance issues in a collaborative, non-blaming environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives allow teams to reflect on their performance, discuss what's working or not, and commit to improvement actions. This is the key mechanism for continuous team development.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Team disengagement often stems from unresolved issues or lack of empowerment. Retrospectives are critical for rebuilding engagement, trust, and improving team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A skips team-level resolution and risks undermining trust.

B manipulates metrics without solving the root problem.

C is useful for daily progress updates but not for deep reflection.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – To participate in establishing a shared vision as a member of the team.

Stakeholder engagement ensures alignment between the team and business needs. Early and continuous involvement helps define product vision, clarify priorities, and ensure that the delivered product meets customer expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often increases transparency, encourages shared ownership, and ensures that the product being developed aligns with business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Projects are more successful when stakeholders co-create the product vision and maintain involvement. Agile teams encourage active participation to ensure delivery of value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why other options fall short:

B (acceptance criteria) is mainly defined by the Product Owner, not all stakeholders.

C is typically owned by the development team.

D is not a core stakeholder responsibility in Agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Retrospective meeting.

The retrospective is a key Agile ceremony dedicated to continuous improvement. It provides a safe space for the team to reflect on what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve. When morale is low or conflicts arise, retrospectives help surface issues and co-create solutions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a vital part of continuous improvement. They are used to inspect team processes, relationships, and interactions to find ways to work more effectively.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.7 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The retrospective is the heartbeat of improvement. It is where the team reflects, adjusts, and grows. Conflict and low morale are ideal triggers for a meaningful retrospective.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Other options explained:

A (Standup) is for daily coordination, not reflection.

C (Demo) is customer-facing and not a morale tool.

D (Offsite) may help later, but is not a formal Agile method for resolving internal team issues.

Answer: B

The goal of each iteration in Agile is to deliver working software frequently, typically at the end of each iteration. This allows the team to gather feedback early and make improvements quickly. The emphasis is on delivering usable software that provides value to the customer, rather than just completing tasks or preparing timelines. This approach aligns with the Agile principle of delivering working software frequently to ensure continuous progress and customer satisfaction.

The correct answer is D – Ensured that the team was comprised of cross-functional, generalized specialists.

Agile teams are expected to be cross-functional and self-sufficient. A lack of a required skill that halts progress typically points to an improperly constructed team. Building teams with broad (T-shaped) skills ensures they can collectively deliver value without external dependencies.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are ideally composed of cross-functional members who have both depth in a specialty and breadth across disciplines. This enables the team to self-organize and deliver complete increments of value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“Agile favors generalized specialists or T-shaped professionals who can collaborate across functions. This improves agility, resilience, and continuity within iterations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are insufficient:

A is a reactive strategy; proactive skill assessment is preferred.

B may delay critical features unnecessarily.

C creates external dependencies, which agile seeks to avoid.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Create an environment of continued learning by providing opportunities for team members to develop their skills as generalized specialists.

Agile encourages the concept of “T-shaped” team members—individuals who have deep expertise in one area and broad skills across multiple areas. Promoting cross-skilling and continued learning reduces risk, increases collaboration, and helps build a resilient, self-sustaining team.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should strive to become cross-functional and develop generalized specialists who can collaborate effectively across domains.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Building High-Performing Teams)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile promotes team learning. Encouraging members to grow as generalized specialists reduces reliance on single individuals and improves flexibility.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A helps but is not sufficient on its own.

B is a solid practice but doesn't directly promote skills growth.

D goes against Agile values of team development and empowerment.

Answer: C

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When there is uncertainty about how certain product features should work, creating a prototype is an effective way to reduce that uncertainty. Prototyping allows the product owner to test ideas, gather feedback from users early in the process, and make adjustments based on real-world input. This approach helps clarify the product's functionality and ensure that the team is building something that meets user needs, all while maintaining flexibility and adaptability in the Agile environment.

Capturing and reviewinglessons learnedis a vital practice in both agile and traditional environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives)andPMBOK® Guide (Lessons Learned Register), continuous learning from project execution helps teams and organizationsimprove predictability, quality, and efficiency.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)highlights the importance of documenting insights and feeding them into future projects for organizational maturity.

Option Ais correct: creating and reviewing a lessons learned repository supportsorganizational learningand better delivery.

Option Bconfuses issue tracking with structured learning.

Option Cremoves responsibility from the team—agile encouragesteam ownership of improvement.

Option Dis helpful in some contexts but is not a repeatable organizational improvement tool like a lessons learned repository.

The correct answer is C — During the retrospective, discuss the issue and create an action plan to avoid it in the future.

When teams misestimate or experience incomplete work, it’s important to reflect during the retrospective and create action items. This is a fundamental aspect of agile: continuous inspection, adaptation, and team-driven improvement.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives help identify opportunities for improvement. The team reviews its estimation accuracy and adjusts processes or practices based on patterns observed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 — Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“Estimating complexity is an area for ongoing learning. Teams use retrospectives to improve their sizing, identify knowledge gaps, and refine their planning techniques.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A unnecessarily involves a project manager (non-agile).

B assumes one-size-fits-all rules, which limits team agility.

D ignores the structured opportunity the retrospective provides for team learning.

Answer: C

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