PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Questions and Answers

The correct answer is D – Work with the team to ensure that acceptance criteria is being properly defined and understood.

Incomplete work that fails to meet stakeholder expectations often results from unclear or misunderstood acceptance criteria. Clarifying the definition of “done” and ensuring alignment between the Product Owner and development team can drastically reduce rework and defects.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Clear and testable acceptance criteria help ensure shared understanding. Quality issues frequently stem from misaligned expectations or vague requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Teams must understand what success looks like for each story. Poorly defined or misunderstood acceptance criteria are a major cause of defects and missed expectations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options explained:

A (spike) is used for research or uncertainty—not fixing misunderstood requirements.

B (burndown chart) helps track progress, not resolve defects.

C may help indirectly but doesn't address the core problem of unclear requirements.

Answer: D

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When overwhelmed by support tickets, the agile approach is toprioritize systemic problem-solving over reactive work. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Quality and Continuous Improvement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), agile teams should identifyroot causesrather than just addressing symptoms. Byanalyzing the backlog, the team can spot patterns and addresssystemic issues, reducing incoming ticket volume in the long run.

Option Cis correct: addressing the root cause improves sustainability and overall efficiency.

Option Aleads to burnout and is unsustainable.

Option Bignores prioritization or value.

Option Dis not a strategic response—it increases cost without solving the core issue.

The correct answer is D — Get the product owner and team to meet to prioritize the work.

Agile teams prioritize collaboratively with the product owner, who represents the business value perspective. Technical tasks (sometimes called “chores”) may not deliver immediate business functionality but are important for sustaining delivery capacity. It’s essential to balance technical work with feature delivery through backlog prioritization.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams work with the product owner to prioritize backlog items, including technical debt or tasks that improve efficiency. Prioritization is a shared activity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Product owners collaborate with teams to ensure technical tasks that improve delivery capacity are balanced with business features.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A dismisses tasks that could improve long-term velocity.

B ignores team ownership.

C escalates prematurely rather than promoting collaboration.

Answer: D

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The first priority for the Scrum Master should be to ensure the project has a dedicated, cross-functional team. Scrum teams are self-organizing and cross-functional, meaning they have all the skills needed to complete the work without relying on external resources. The Scrum Master should focus on forming a team that can collaboratively work on the product development, ensuring they are committed to the project and understand their roles and responsibilities within the Scrum framework. This is essential for the team to be effective and aligned with the Scrum principles, ensuring that they can deliver value in iterative cycles.

Based on the velocity chart, the team has completed 43, 42, 44, and 46 story points in previous sprints. The average number of completed story points is 43.75, and committing to 44 story points for the upcoming sprint aligns closely with this average. It offers a realistic target that takes into account the team's capacity while providing a reasonable chance of completing the planned work within the sprint.

The correct answer is D — Periodically, at both the release and project level.

Agile planning is iterative and layered. When new requirements or constraints emerge, plans should be updated at the appropriate levels—sprint, release, and potentially the overall project level. Periodic adjustments ensure continued alignment with business needs and system dependencies.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile planning is done at multiple levels: product vision, roadmap, release, iteration, and daily. These plans are continually updated based on new learning and stakeholder feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths:

“Effective planning includes periodic updates at all planning horizons. Adjusting at both the project and release levels ensures strategic alignment and tactical feasibility.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A misses the iterative nature of Agile planning.

B and C are too narrow in scope.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Add a task to the product backlog to allow the team time to investigate and experiment prior to estimating.

When the team lacks experience or clarity around a new feature or technical solution, they should perform a time-boxed research activity, known as a spike. Spikes allow the team to explore unknowns, validate assumptions, and gather information needed to provide accurate estimates.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“When the team is unable to estimate due to uncertainty, a spike can be added to the backlog. This allows time for research, experimentation, or prototyping to enable informed estimation.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths also writes:

“Spikes are used to investigate technical or functional elements. A spike helps reduce uncertainty and informs future planning and estimation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options are less effective:

B (Wideband Delphi), C (Planning Poker), and D (Three-point estimation) are techniques for estimation, not suitable when the team lacks enough information to estimate in the first place.

Answer: A

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The Scrum Master’s role as a servant leader is to support the team, not to resolve conflicts for them. It is important for the team to work through their disagreements themselves, as this fosters collaboration and improves their problem-solving skills. The Scrum Master should encourage open communication and guide the team toward healthy conflict resolution, ensuring that the disagreements are addressed constructively. This approach helps the team build trust, improves their cohesion, and strengthens their ability to handle challenges in the future.

The correct answer is A — Coordinate a collaboration session so all the team members are involved in the solution process.

Agile encourages cross-functional collaboration and collective problem-solving. When technical uncertainty arises, the best course of action is to leverage the team’s combined knowledge through collaboration rather than working in isolation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams rely on collaboration, especially when solving complex problems. A diversity of input and joint ownership leads to better and faster decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile practitioners should encourage collaborative decision-making. Technical decisions made in isolation can result in integration issues and delay. Collaboration unlocks shared ownership.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

B shifts focus away from current challenges.

C is long-term and not immediately actionable.

D may help, but it introduces external dependency instead of leveraging team knowledge.

Answer: A

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In Agile, continuous integration and regression testing should be part of every iteration to ensure that the product is always in a potentially shippable state. These practices help catch issues early in the development process, preventing defects from accumulating and becoming harder to fix later. By integrating and testing frequently, the team ensures that new code works with existing code and that the product maintains its quality throughout the development lifecycle. This approach aligns with Agile principles of delivering working software regularly and maintaining high-quality standards throughout each iteration.

The correct answer is A — Capture risks and make them visible, and use a burndown chart to focus on reducing risks early in the project.

Technical uncertainty is a key area of risk in Agile projects. These risks should be clearly communicated, visualized, and prioritized early in the project to allow timely mitigation. Agile teams are empowered to make decisions and highlight blockers rather than delay work or seek hierarchical intervention.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams actively manage risk through transparency and continuous feedback. Risks should be made visible on information radiators and addressed early in the project to prevent impact on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams facing uncertainty must surface risks openly and early. Using charts such as risk burndown and dashboards helps keep focus on managing these risks iteratively.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts the time-boxing principle of sprints.

C raises awareness but lacks proactive risk mitigation.

D introduces a command-and-control dynamic, which is not agile.

Answer: A

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As a scrum master, the goal is to foster a collaborative and self-organizing environment. When conflicts arise, it is essential to guide the team in resolving the issue on their own rather than making unilateral decisions. The scrum master should:

Coach the team individually to understand the root causes of the conflict and ensure each team member feels heard.

Then, bring the team together in a more structured environment, such as the Sprint review, to discuss the disagreement openly and constructively. This helps the team resolve conflicts and learn how to handle similar situations in the future.

A cumulative flow diagram (CFD) is a powerful tool to visualize the flow of work across different stages of the process and identify where bottlenecks are occurring. By using a CFD, the team can see the buildup of work in specific columns, such as the "Ready to be tested" queue, and determine where delays are happening. Identifying bottlenecks is the first step in improving flow and addressing the slower delivery. Once the bottleneck is identified, the team can make adjustments to improve speed, such as optimizing the testing process or redistributing workload.

The correct answer is A — Provide feedback for completed user stories.

Stakeholder involvement in Agile is ongoing. Their primary role is to give timely and actionable feedback on delivered product increments to ensure alignment with their expectations and business value goals. This feedback is then used to refine the product backlog and guide future iterations.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholders should engage regularly to inspect product increments and provide feedback to guide value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“In agile projects, stakeholders ensure their needs are met by actively reviewing completed work and providing feedback to influence upcoming work.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B is the team's responsibility; stakeholders should focus on the “what,” not the “how.”

C is the product owner's responsibility.

D is a collaborative task but not solely a stakeholder responsibility.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Ask the Product Owner to select an item from the backlog on which to work. The Product Owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog. When a team finishes its sprint work early, it should collaborate with the Product Owner to identify the next highest-value item to pull into the sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner owns the backlog and prioritization. If work is completed early, the team may pull in the next most important backlog item, subject to capacity and readiness.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Execution)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“If there’s remaining capacity in the sprint, teams should consult the Product Owner to select the next item. The Scrum Master facilitates, but the PO owns content decisions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A skips prioritization.

B misplaces decision-making authority.

D incorrectly involves the Scrum Master in backlog decisions.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Encourage self-organization by communicating the importance of a collaborative approach in decision making about the requirements.

Agile teams thrive on collaboration and shared ownership. When conflicts arise between stakeholders and team members, the project manager (or Scrum Master) acts as a facilitator to encourage respectful discussion and team-driven decisions. Agile emphasizes self-organization, transparency, and frequent collaboration between customers and teams.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages ongoing stakeholder engagement and collaborative decision making. The Agile leader helps teams self-organize and resolve issues through direct communication and mutual respect.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Agile promotes co-creation. The project manager’s role is to facilitate dialogue, not dictate requirements. The best outcomes come from collective decisions aligned with value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options explained:

A contradicts Agile principles of team and stakeholder collaboration.

B gives unilateral authority to the customer, which can disrupt team ownership.

C excludes the team from the conversation, weakening transparency.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D – Add a variety of users, such as business analysts and domain experts, to the team.

When direct access to a true end-user is not possible, Agile teams can maintain strong customer representation by including subject matter experts, business analysts, or domain experts who have a deep understanding of user needs. This helps maintain focus on value delivery and minimizes the risk of developing the wrong product.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“If actual customers are not available to participate, the team may rely on proxies, such as product owners, subject matter experts, or business analysts who can effectively represent the voice of the customer.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“In the absence of true users, teams can engage stakeholders who are closest to the user’s experience—such as domain experts or business analysts—to ensure continuous feedback and guidance.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options fall short:

A increases output speed but doesn’t address misalignment with user value.

B adds technical depth but not business perspective or user empathy.

C changes cadence but doesn’t improve customer representation.

Answer: D

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Agile promotescross-functional teamsandreducing bottlenecksthrough knowledge sharing and skill development. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Cross-functional Teams)recommends that team members developT-shaped skillsto handle more types of work. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)advocates forskill broadeningto improve team throughput and resilience.

Option Ais correct: cross-training removes dependencies and improves flow.

Option Bdelays action and prolongs the issue.

Option Creduces delivery capacity rather than addressing the root cause.

Option Darbitrarily limits scope and doesn’t resolve the underlying skill gap.

The daily standup is focused on ensuring the team stays synchronized on their commitments for the sprint, and it is meant to be a short meeting where team members quickly discuss what they did the previous day, what they plan to do today, and any blockers they are facing. It is not a forum for external stakeholders to ask detailed questions about the sprint backlog or delivery timelines, as this can disrupt the team's focus and hinder the meeting's efficiency.

By explaining that the standup is about synchronizing commitments, the project manager helps the business partners understand the purpose of the meeting and suggests an appropriate time and place for discussing more detailed or strategic topics.

In an Agile environment, fostering a culture of collaboration and effective communication is key to success, especially when working with a diverse team. By creating a shared vision, the project manager aligns the team towards common goals, which helps reduce misunderstandings. Using techniques to increase empathy and positive interaction ensures that team members understand and respect each other's different perspectives. This approach promotes a collaborative environment where diverse ideas can be valued and conflicts can be addressed constructively.

Creating apsychologically safe environmentis a key agile principle. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2 Team Environment), leaders should build trust and inclusion, especially for new or hesitant team members. Demonstrating that input isrespected and acted uponhelps new members gain confidence.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes thatinclusive collaborationand modeling desired behaviors in team settings are more effective than handling everything in private or through hierarchy.

Option Bis correct because it combines assurance and public demonstration of team values.

Option Amay violate psychological safety.

Option Cimplies isolation and reduces integration.

Option Dis helpful but lacks the team visibility that builds mutual trust.

The correct answer is B – Invite the team to evaluate the suggestion and measure the effectiveness of the implementation.

In Agile, continuous improvement is a shared responsibility, and retrospectives are meant to be collaborative sessions where all team members—regardless of experience—can contribute. Ideas that could enhance performance should be discussed by the team as a whole and, when deemed valuable, tested and evaluated in upcoming sprints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team owns the process and should inspect and adapt at regular intervals. During retrospectives, the team identifies potential improvements and experiments with them in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Retrospectives empower teams to improve. All suggestions, regardless of origin, should be treated with respect. Teams test ideas and inspect outcomes to improve incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options fall short:

A delays action and discourages innovation.

C makes the product owner responsible for a team process decision, which is outside their role.

D promotes hierarchy, which undermines team collaboration and Agile values.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D — By advising the team to remain committed and focused on project goals.

Agile teams should remain focused on the sprint or iteration goals once committed. Outside demands, even from senior stakeholders, can distract the team and cause scope creep or reduced quality. The agile coach plays a vital role in protecting the team from such disruptions and reinforcing their commitment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders help teams focus on delivering committed work. Coaches work to eliminate distractions and protect the team from external interferences.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths:

“One of the coach’s roles is to guard the team’s focus. When unrelated demands arise, the coach should guide the team to stay aligned with the current sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A encourages unsustainable practices.

B implies hierarchy not present in Scrum or Agile.

C misuses estimation and undermines trust.

Answer: D

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Agile promotestransparency through information radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards. These tools are designed to make real-time progress visible to all stakeholders. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1: Communications)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders should be directed to thesereal-time, transparent sources of truth.

Option Bis correct: using an information radiator promotes transparency and reduces dependency on individuals.

Option Ais inappropriate—standups are for the team.

Option CandDare manual approaches that reduce transparency and don't scale.

In an agile environment, the product backlog should be continuously refined based on input from all relevant stakeholders, including the customer, business, and team members. It's essential for the whole team to collaborate when discussing and prioritizing the backlog to ensure that stakeholder needs and feedback are incorporated throughout the process. The backlog should reflect the team's understanding of what is most valuable to the stakeholders and the product, allowing the team to focus on delivering the highest priority features that align with the stakeholders' goals.

The correct answer is A – Conduct frequent demos and obtain feedback from users throughout the development of the next release. Agile is feedback-driven. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews) help gather customer input to continuously enhance the product and optimize value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent demonstrations and validation with stakeholders ensure that teams deliver value continuously and adapt the product based on real-time feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Feedback and Product Review)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Customer feedback loops are vital to agile. Demos provide a mechanism for validating delivered functionality, identifying improvement opportunities, and maximizing product value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts continuous delivery and customer collaboration.

C may help with scale, but doesn’t directly address value improvement.

D is more about process quality than business value.

Answer: A

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To improve the team’s productivity, it is essential to keep both the product backlog and the iteration backlog up to date. The product backlog contains the overall product features and requirements, while the iteration backlog focuses on the work planned for the current iteration. Ensuring that both backlogs are updated as issues and new tasks arise will help maintain clarity and avoid confusion, enabling the team to prioritize and track progress more effectively. This will also help minimize delays and rework, as the team will have a clear, accurate view of what needs to be done and what has been accomplished.

The best approach to resolving this conflict is collaborating, as it encourages open communication and active participation from all team members. In this case, the graphic designer’s non-participation is causing frustration within the team. The Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion where the designer can express their concerns, and the team can share why their attendance in meetings is important. By collaborating, the Scrum Master can help find a solution that addresses both the designer’s needs and the team's expectations, ensuring better teamwork and alignment moving forward. This approach encourages mutual respect and fosters a cooperative environment.

When teams face conflicts about priorities or direction, they shouldfall back on agile values and principles. According to theAgile Manifesto and PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.2 Agile Mindset), decisions should be grounded in values such ascollaboration, sustainability, simplicity, and delivering customer value.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset)highlights that teams should beself-organizing, and consensus should emerge from aligning decisions with core agile values—rather than defaulting to top-down directives or contractual obligations.

Option Ais correct: referring to theagile framework and team valuesenables internal resolution in a collaborative and value-driven way.

Option B(contracts) andOption C(priority list) are more rigid and transactional.

Option Dbypasses the team’s ability to self-resolve, which is not ideal for a mature agile team.

The correct answer is D – Ask the team to decide if the task should be reassigned. In agile, the Scrum Master serves as a servant leader and facilitator, not a manager. Task decisions are made by the team through collaboration and self-organization.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams self-organize and make decisions collaboratively. The Scrum Master facilitates discussion and decision-making but does not dictate task assignments.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Empowerment and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“The Scrum Master’s role is to empower the team to find their own solutions and make informed decisions that support sprint goals. When adjustments are needed, the team should decide how to proceed.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A undermines self-management and may create fear or pressure.

B implies outside control instead of team autonomy.

C ignores opportunity for improvement and team input.

Answer: D

The correct answer is C — Conducted an end-of-phase demonstration.

Agile emphasizes continuous feedback. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews or product demos) allow stakeholders, including the customer, to inspect the product increment and provide real-time feedback. Had the team demoed the product, they might have discovered the deficiencies before release.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“A demo or review allows stakeholders to inspect the product increment and provide feedback. Demonstrations reduce the risk of unmet expectations and confirm that the team is building the right product.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile avoids large, end-of-phase validations. Instead, customer feedback is solicited at the end of every iteration through structured demos. This allows for early course correction and alignment with expectations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A is a waterfall artifact and not aligned with agile workflows.

B is analysis-heavy and doesn’t ensure real stakeholder feedback.

D (retrospective) improves process, not product validation.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Advise the team of the risks and invite them to change.

Agile teams are encouraged to self-organize, but this should not result in the formation of silos, which can hinder collaboration and shared knowledge. As a servant leader, the Agile practitioner or Scrum Master should coach the team by facilitating discussions about the risks of silos (e.g., dependency bottlenecks, reduced flexibility) and encourage cross-functional collaboration.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders help teams reflect and improve. When silos form, the coach facilitates awareness of the impacts and invites the team to adopt knowledge sharing practices.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Silos reduce adaptability and team learning. A coach should raise awareness and help the team find new behaviors that support agility and collaboration.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

A escalates prematurely and undermines team self-management.

B enforces rules instead of fostering understanding.

C imposes a solution instead of empowering the team to solve its own issues.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D because organizational transformation to agile requires more than process changes—it requires a shift in mindset. Training teams on agile values and principles builds a shared foundation and helps foster commitment to agile ways of working.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile transformation requires attention to both practices and mindset. Leaders must help teams embrace agile values, empower decision-making, and promote an agile culture through education and active support.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Organizational Change and Transformation)

From PMBOK® Guide – 7th Edition:

“Successful transformation begins with people understanding the why and how of agile. Change cannot happen effectively without adequate training and communication.”

(PMBOK Guide 7th Ed., Principle 1 – Be a Diligent, Respectful, and Caring Steward)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile success is rooted in the team’s understanding of core principles. Agile leaders must invest in developing a strong foundational mindset, as well as practices. Education is a critical enabler of sustainable agile adoption.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Option A is a partial strategy but doesn’t ensure cultural transformation.

Option B is necessary but not sufficient—buy-in alone won’t change behavior.

Option C is tactical and useful but doesn’t address team-wide mindset change.

Answer: D

The correct answer is D – Confirm managers and stakeholders are invited to product review meetings. Agile promotes early and continuous feedback from stakeholders through regular reviews (e.g., sprint reviews or demos). Their active engagement ensures alignment with evolving business needs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Demonstrating working product increments at iteration reviews allows stakeholders to inspect progress, provide feedback, and align expectations. Agile teams rely on these sessions to validate whether the product meets business requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and 5.2 – Reviews)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Frequent stakeholder reviews reduce risk by capturing early feedback. Stakeholder participation in iteration reviews ensures alignment and continuous validation of business goals.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A includes only the team; stakeholders are critical to product validation.

B is insufficient—product owner alignment alone doesn’t ensure business alignment.

C refers to documentation, not collaboration.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Work with the stakeholder directly rather than go through different layers of people. Agile emphasizes direct communication and collaboration with stakeholders to reduce miscommunication and ensure clarity. When requirements differ depending on who is asked, the agile practitioner must go directly to the source for clarification and alignment.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Face-to-face conversation is the most effective method of conveying information to and within a development team. Agile encourages working directly with stakeholders and product owners to minimize miscommunication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement; Agile Manifesto Principle #6)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“To reduce noise and confusion, agile practitioners are encouraged to engage stakeholders directly rather than relying on intermediaries or second-hand interpretations.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Option A contradicts agile’s value of responding to change. Option B is an indirect solution that does not eliminate confusion. Option D is internal to the team and doesn’t resolve inconsistencies from stakeholder communication.

Answer: C

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Retrospectives are held toinspect what went well and what could be improved. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6), teams should use retrospectives to identifyissues, root causes, and impediments, not just successes. Identifying and discussing theproblems that arosehelps the team avoid similar issues in future sprints.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)emphasizes the importance of open discussions around problems and the value of asafe environmentwhere teams can reflect and improve.

Option Bis correct: by highlighting the problems that emerged, the Scrum Master sets the stage for continuous improvement and alignment with organizational goals.

Pair programmingis aproven agile techniquefor improving quality, sharing knowledge, and ramping up less experienced developers. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Quality and Engineering Practices)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)recommend using pair programming to improve team cohesion and performance when skill gaps are affecting velocity.

Option Ais correct: pair programming supports learning and improves delivery quality.

Option Bmisuses the retrospective—it’s not for backlog prioritization.

Option Cmay be helpful, butestimation changesdon’t directly address the skill gap.

Option Dmay reduce risk short-term but doesn’t help the team improve or grow.

The correct answer is D – Have the Product Owner explain the product vision and review the release plan with the team. One of the Product Owner’s key responsibilities is to communicate the product vision and ensure the team understands how their work aligns with business value. This fosters alignment and motivation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner is responsible for communicating the product vision and roadmap. This ensures that the team understands the ‘why’ behind the work and how each piece contributes to overall business goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and Product Vision)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams need context for their work. The product owner provides this by clearly sharing the vision and maintaining a transparent roadmap.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is useful but doesn’t address the larger product context.

B may help with story structuring but doesn’t clarify vision.

C delays resolving an immediate misunderstanding.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D — Discuss the issue with the team at the next project retrospective.

Fatigue and declining productivity are ideal topics for the sprint retrospective. Retrospectives provide a dedicated time for the team to reflect on what's working and what's not, and they promote continuous improvement in a psychologically safe environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives allow teams to reflect on how they work and to continuously improve their practices, processes, and team dynamics.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Retrospectives are opportunities to openly discuss issues such as burnout or fatigue and decide as a team what improvements to implement.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A (daily standup) is focused on immediate blockers, not deep reflection.

B might help but creates unnecessary ceremony; the retrospective is the correct venue.

C escalates the issue outside the team prematurely.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is B – Set expectations regarding the appropriate level of details requested during this stage. In Agile, early project stages are focused on vision, strategy, and high-level planning, not detailed documentation. The agile practitioner must educate stakeholders on progressive elaboration and set realistic expectations about how information is delivered over time.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In the early stages of an agile project, requirements and plans are intentionally kept at a high level. Agile practitioners work closely with stakeholders to set appropriate expectations and explain how details will emerge iteratively.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.4 – Agile Project Initiation and Stakeholder Expectations)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this:

“During project inception, agile practitioners should clarify that detailed specifications evolve through iterative planning. Setting appropriate expectations is critical to building trust and maintaining alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A contradicts agile principles of just-in-time elaboration.

C is too rigid and may alienate stakeholders.

D abdicates responsibility and doesn’t help manage expectations.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Encourage the product owner and team to analyze the impact of the changes and prioritize the backlog.

Agile embraces change, even late in the development cycle, but it must be managed through value-driven prioritization. Instead of blindly accepting all changes or overrunning the budget, the product owner collaborates with the team and stakeholders to evaluate the impact, adjust priorities, and ensure high-value items are delivered within constraints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams welcome change but balance it with value delivery by continuously prioritizing the product backlog. When scope increases, the team and product owner must evaluate trade-offs and adjust delivery accordingly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Backlog grooming is a key mechanism to handle change. Product owners collaborate with stakeholders and the team to evaluate new requests, weigh impacts, and reprioritize as necessary.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are incorrect:

A may be true in some organizations but is not an Agile principle.

B contradicts Agile’s emphasis on sustainable pace.

D may help clarify budgets but doesn’t resolve the issue collaboratively.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – Assume the team member's tasks to meet iteration goals and notify the Product Owner. Agile teams are self-organizing and accountable. High-performing teams take ownership of shared goals and redistribute work as needed to maintain commitment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams collaborate to deliver sprint goals, adapting to changes such as unavailability of team members. They adjust workload and communicate impacts transparently.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When team composition changes, the team must redistribute work to ensure delivery. Ownership, trust, and flexibility are core traits of high-performing agile teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A signals dysfunction and abdicates team responsibility.

B implies external management of team staffing.

C violates the principle of self-organization.

In Scrum, velocity is a metric that measures the amount of work a team can complete in a given sprint, usually measured in story points or work units. However, velocity is not a metric for team efficiency or quality. It primarily reflects the team's capacity to complete work within a sprint and can help forecast future work delivery once the team becomes stable. A team may have a stable velocity, but that does not necessarily mean they are producing higher-quality or more efficient deliverables.

The Scrum Master should facilitate a conversation between the team and the senior manager to understand the purpose and expectations behind the request for real-time updates to the burndown chart. By aligning on the reporting requirements and discussing potential impacts on team productivity, the Scrum Master can ensure that the metrics are meaningful and do not interfere with the team's ability to deliver value. It's important to find a balance between transparency and efficiency, ensuring that the team’s workflow isn’t disrupted by unnecessary administrative tasks.

Velocity is a measure of the amount of work a team can handle during a sprint, typically measured in story points. While it can fluctuate slightly from sprint to sprint, the goal is to have velocity stabilize over time, as this helps in forecasting future sprints and planning. An increase in velocity from 27 to 35 could indicate an improvement in the team's capacity to deliver, which should be celebrated if it aligns with the team's capabilities. However, a stable velocity over time is what typically matters for predictability and planning.

The correct answer is C – Work with product owners and turn product backlog items into potentially shippable product increments.

Agile is grounded in the principle of delivering value early and often. Agile teams deliver value by continuously converting high-priority product backlog items into working software or product increments. These increments are potentially shippable, meaning they meet the Definition of Done and could be released at any point if the business chooses. Collaboration with the product owner ensures that the most valuable features are prioritized and refined before development begins.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams focus on delivering small, valuable, and potentially shippable increments of working product on a regular basis. This allows for frequent feedback and ensures that teams are always working on the most valuable features.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Working software is the primary measure of progress in agile projects. Agile teams collaborate with product owners to break down backlog items into increments that can be developed, tested, and delivered within a single iteration.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Option A contradicts agile principles, which emphasize cross-functional teams capable of analysis, development, and testing.

Option B is a supporting activity but does not directly increase value delivery.

Option D reflects traditional project management thinking and does not align with the iterative, adaptive nature of agile.

Answer: C

Thedaily stand-up (daily Scrum)is atime-boxed coordination meetingwhere each team member answers the three key questions: What did I do yesterday? What will I do today? Are there any blockers? According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Daily Stand-ups)andScrum Guide, in-depth discussions should betaken offlineto avoid disrupting the stand-up’s purpose.

Option Ais correct: deferring detailed conversations maintains stand-up focus.

Option Bmay derail the time-boxed meeting.

Option Coverreacts and undermines team self-management.

Option Dmight be appropriate later but not during the stand-up.

Kaizen is a Japanese term that means "continuous improvement," which is a fundamental principle in Agile. It focuses on making incremental, continuous improvements to enhance processes and quality. Standup meetings and retrospective meetings are common Agile practices that support Kaizen. Standup meetings provide a daily check-in to ensure the team is aligned, while retrospectives allow the team to reflect on the sprint, identify areas for improvement, and make adjustments. Continuous improvement is at the core of Kaizen, and these practices enable the team to refine their processes over time, leading to better product quality and customer satisfaction.

The correct answer is A – Reduced or improper customer collaboration.

One of the core principles of Agile is continuous collaboration with the customer. If multiple feature changes are only identified during a late-stage review, it typically indicates that the customer was not involved sufficiently throughout the development process.

From the Agile Manifesto (cited in the PMI Agile Practice Guide):

“Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.”

“Working software is delivered frequently… with a preference to the shorter timescale.”

And from the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Ongoing engagement with the customer helps align product features with actual needs and reduce surprises during late-stage reviews.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“When customers are involved in iteration reviews and backlog grooming, their evolving needs are captured in real time. Surprises during release reviews usually reflect a failure of ongoing communication.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options don’t directly address the root cause:

B may contribute, but customer collaboration is the key differentiator in agile.

C and D are traditional causes of waterfall-style failure, not typically root causes in agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Align with stakeholder expectations and releasable product increments.

In Agile, sprint or iteration reviews provide an opportunity for the team to present completed work and validate it against stakeholder expectations. Demonstrations should showcase working, potentially shippable increments that align with business goals and value delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The purpose of iteration reviews is to showcase a working product increment. The review should focus on what was completed and how it aligns with stakeholder expectations and business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Iteration Review)

PMBOK® Guide further reinforces this point:

“The team should deliver functional product increments that are valuable to stakeholders. These should be validated for alignment with scope and business value.”

(PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition, Section 5.5 – Validate Scope)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Product demonstrations should confirm stakeholder needs are being met. The team’s focus should be on verifying value delivery, product completeness, and stakeholder alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Feedback)

Why other options fall short:

A is valuable context, but doesn’t directly ensure demonstration success.

C reflects team improvement but is not the purpose of a product demo.

D speaks to collaboration, not validation of stakeholder alignment.

Answer: B

The correct answer is C – Encourage all feedback then work with the customer to prioritize work for future sprints. Agile welcomes continuous feedback and values customer collaboration. All feedback should be collected and considered, but the product backlog is reprioritized to align with capacity and business goals.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile promotes constant feedback to refine product direction. Feedback is incorporated into the backlog, prioritized based on value, and delivered incrementally according to capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Continuous Customer Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Stakeholder feedback is essential in agile. Not all feedback can be implemented immediately, but it should be welcomed, evaluated, and prioritized transparently in collaboration with the product owner and stakeholders.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A implies a heavy process not aligned with agile.

B prematurely limits feedback before collaborative prioritization.

D ignores the product owner’s prioritization role.

Answer: C

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The "Life Timeline" exercise is a technique used to buildpsychological safety and vulnerability-based trust. According toMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), exercises that encourage sharing personal stories and emotional journeys fosterdeep interpersonal connection, which is foundational tohigh-performance teams.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Building Trust)emphasizes the role of emotional intelligence and trust-building in agile teams, stating that teams become high-performing when they feelsafe to express themselveswithout fear of judgment.

Option Bis correct: the exercise builds vulnerability and trust—key drivers of high performance.

Option Afocuses on trust but doesn't emphasizevulnerability, which is central here.

Option Cis too generic.

Option Dmisframes the purpose—it’s about building connection, not assessing competencies.

To reduce stakeholder risk and encourage early investment in high-risk/high-reward projects, agile recommends breaking the solution intosmall, incremental deliverablescalledMinimally Marketable Features (MMFs). According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Roadmap and MMFs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), delivering MMFs early allows the business to realize value quickly, validate assumptions, and reduce risk—especially helpful for uncertain or experimental projects.

Option Bis correct: MMFs demonstrate business value early, promoting trust and investment confidence.

Option A (PPC)andD (EV)are traditional project tracking metrics, not suited for early-stage agile investment justification.

Option C(story points) is used forcapacity planning, not financial justification.

Agile promotes maintaining theintegrity of the sprint commitmentonce it begins. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Managing Change), new requirements discovered mid-sprint should beadded to the product backlogand reprioritized for a future sprint unless they arecritical blockers.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)explains that backlog management is key to handling emerging work. Agile teams should not reactively shift focus, as it disrupts flow and predictability.

Option Bis correct: placing the new requirement in the backlog respects sprint boundaries and ensures proper prioritization.

Option Adisrupts sprint scope mid-course.

Option Cis unnecessary unless the issue is blocking progress.

Option Dviolates the principle of sprint focus and planning discipline.

When a feature is too large to fit into a sprint, agile recommendsdecomposing it into smaller user storiesor increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and MVPs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), teams should break down epics or large stories intoMinimum Viable Product (MVP)segments and deliver value incrementally.

Option Ais correct: this enables the team to deliver value sooner and iteratively build on it.

Option Bdelays addressing customer concerns.

Option Csacrifices overall product balance.

Option Dviolates time-boxing principles in Scrum and agile.

Effective stakeholder engagement starts withshared understanding and agreement on goals and requirements. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2 Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the need tocollaborate with stakeholders early and often, especially on prioritization and epic-level expectations.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)underscores thatmisunderstandings are reduced when all parties are aligned on what "done" means, and epics and requirements arecollaboratively defined.

Option Ais correct: agreement and shared understanding reduce misalignment and conflict.

Option Bintroduces unnecessary delays in planning.

Option Cis useful but insufficient if initial requirements are misunderstood.

Option Dmay help in contract terms but doesn’t solve day-to-day misalignment.

With a limited budget of $17,000 remaining, the product owner should prioritize features that provide the most value to the customer. This means considering the business needs, customer feedback, and potential value of each feature rather than focusing solely on completing all planned features. Features like the Reporting Module, which have not started and have a high estimated cost, might need to be reconsidered or deferred based on priority. By assessing which features deliver the most value to stakeholders and aligning with the overall objectives, the product owner can make the most efficient use of the remaining budget.

In this scenario, the development team is working closely with different business units to deliver value early and often. This aligns with the agile value of delivering working software frequently, with a preference for shorter timescales. By collaborating with business units, the team is enabling early feedback and adapting to changing requirements, which is a core principle of agile methodologies like Scrum.

When the organization transitions from longer to shorter iterations, it’s crucial to provide the team with the right support and ensure they have the resources to adapt. Requesting support from the enterprise coach and HR can help the team manage this change effectively, providing them with necessary training or assistance. Additionally, assessing the impact of the change and brainstorming solutions with the team helps address concerns about testing and ceremonies, while allowing the team to provide input on how they can adapt to the new iteration length without compromising quality or efficiency.

The correct answer is D — Up-to-date project radiators.

Information radiators provide at-a-glance visibility into project status, progress, blockers, and other key metrics. Sharing or including these visual tools in extended stakeholder communication ensures transparency and up-to-date awareness, which aligns with agile values.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators provide immediate and transparent access to project health and status. They reduce the need for formal reporting and keep stakeholders aligned in real time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths:

“Using radiators to keep stakeholders informed improves trust, accelerates decision-making, and supports ongoing engagement.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and B are not relevant for stakeholder reporting.

C is too narrow and lacks the holistic view offered by radiators.

Answer: D

Servant leadership is about supporting the team, empowering them, and ensuring they have what they need to succeed. The team leader should focus on removing impediments that block the team's progress. By doing so, the leader enables the team to work more efficiently and effectively, without being obstructed by recurring issues. This aligns with the servant leadership mindset of putting the team's needs first and helping them reach their goals.

The correct answer is D – Stop updating the documentation and initiate an analysis to identify its value and act on the findings.

Agile promotes the creation of “just enough” documentation. If a document isn’t being used and adds no value, the team should reflect on whether to discontinue or improve it. Retrospectives are the appropriate venue to identify such inefficiencies and implement continuous improvement.

From the Agile Manifesto (referenced in PMI Agile Practice Guide):

“Working software over comprehensive documentation.”

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams minimize non-value-added work. If documentation is not being used or reviewed, teams should examine whether it is necessary, and if not, discontinue or replace it.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.1 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Documentation should serve a purpose. If stakeholders do not find value in it, the team should discontinue or refactor it to meet actual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options fall short:

A prolongs the wasteful practice unnecessarily.

B lacks the analysis needed before eliminating documentation.

C enforces process over value, which contradicts Agile principles.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is B – Ensure there is a balanced mix of people who are experts and members with broad experience based on the work to be performed and determine training needs.

Scrum encourages cross-functional, self-organizing teams with complementary skills. Building a balanced team that reflects both depth and breadth of experience ensures optimal delivery while enabling team learning.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are cross-functional. The team may need T-shaped skills—members with deep expertise in one area and a willingness to broaden knowledge in other areas. Creating balanced teams with knowledge diversity leads to better collaboration and learning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Team selection should prioritize diversity of skill sets and the ability to collaborate, not just performance history. The goal is a team that can deliver value collectively, not as individuals.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are not suitable:

A may reduce team diversity and discourage healthy conflict resolution.

C may not be feasible in distributed environments and is not a strict requirement.

D focuses on individual velocity contributions, which contradicts Agile’s team-based delivery focus.

Answer: B

The correct answer is D – Communicate the risk of a negative ROI to the stakeholders, and update the release plan. Agile values transparency and collaboration. When the team identifies risks to business outcomes such as ROI, they must promptly inform stakeholders and work collaboratively to reassess scope, value, and strategy.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams provide ongoing visibility to stakeholders. If delivery metrics reveal financial concerns, the product owner and stakeholders evaluate whether to pivot, persevere, or stop.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Transparency)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile planning is value-based. If ROI is unlikely to be achieved, stakeholders must be informed early so informed decisions can be made.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A assumes trimming scope is sufficient without stakeholder input.

B contradicts team stability and morale principles.

C helps identify inefficiencies but doesn’t replace transparency.

Answer: D

Agile teamsembrace changeandcollaborate with customersto deliver value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1: Agile Mindset)supports responding to change—even late in the development cycle—if it results in business value. The team shouldaccept the new goal, replan with the product owner, andadjust scope or priority if needed, rather than resist or escalate.

Option Ais correct: it reflects the agile value ofresponding to change and delivering early value.

Option Bis too rigid and contrary to agile principles.

Option Cimplies a punitive model that does not align with collaborative agile contracts.

Option Dintroduces unnecessary cost and overhead without first trying to replan collaboratively.

When calculating cycle time, it's important to consider delays and bottlenecks in the process. Cycle time refers to the total time taken for a single unit of work to go through the entire process from start to finish. By identifying and understanding delays or bottlenecks, the team can gain insights into where improvements can be made to optimize the flow and reduce overall cycle time. This approach helps in identifying inefficiencies and improving the team's ability to deliver value more effectively.

In agile environments, planning should be flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Just-in-time (JIT) refinement refers to the practice of refining the backlog and details of the product features as they become more relevant, rather than attempting to plan everything upfront. This allows the team to respond to changes and new information as they emerge, which aligns with agile principles of iterative development and adaptability.

A psychologically safe environment is essential for aproductive retrospective, especially in the presence of team conflict. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)recommends reviewingworking agreements or ground rulesto remind the team of respectful behavior and to promote openness. This helps reset expectations and encourages participation without fear of judgment.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)emphasizes that retrospectives are abouttrust and transparency, and setting the tone properly enables team learning and resolution.

Option Ais correct: reviewing ground rules reinforces team norms and supports safety.

Option Bmay make individuals feel singled out.

Option Cignores the interpersonal issue and postpones resolution.

Option Descalates unnecessarily and bypasses team ownership.

Capturing and reviewinglessons learnedis a vital practice in both agile and traditional environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives)andPMBOK® Guide (Lessons Learned Register), continuous learning from project execution helps teams and organizationsimprove predictability, quality, and efficiency.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)highlights the importance of documenting insights and feeding them into future projects for organizational maturity.

Option Ais correct: creating and reviewing a lessons learned repository supportsorganizational learningand better delivery.

Option Bconfuses issue tracking with structured learning.

Option Cremoves responsibility from the team—agile encouragesteam ownership of improvement.

Option Dis helpful in some contexts but is not a repeatable organizational improvement tool like a lessons learned repository.

Distributed or remote teams are common in modern agile environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.4 Working with Distributed Teams)and thePMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 10.1), the agile practitioner mustenable effective collaboration among all team members regardless of location. The guide recommends usingvideo conferencing, collaborative workspaces, shared boards, and communication toolsto simulate the benefits of co-location.

Mike Griffiths, in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), supports the use ofcollaboration toolsto foster team cohesion and support agile values like communication and transparency, even when teams cannot be physically co-located.

Option Ais correct: collaboration tools bridge the gap in distributed environments.

Option BandDpromote siloing or team hierarchy, which undermines agile unity.

Option Cmoves away from agile values by emphasizing documentation over interaction.

Sprint reviews are a crucial Scrum event for obtaining early feedback from stakeholders, which allows the team to inspect the progress and adapt the product accordingly. By skipping sprint reviews in favor of only release reviews, the team loses the opportunity to make adjustments and improvements throughout the project. The scrum master should emphasize the importance of regular feedback and ensure the team stays aligned with Scrum principles for continuous improvement and value delivery.

Once scope and acceptance criteria are known, the next step is toestimate the size and effort of backlog items, which enables planning. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Backlog Estimation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)recommend using estimation techniques (e.g., story points, T-shirt sizing) to determine therelative effort of each backlog itembefore performing release or sprint planning.

Option Dis correct: backlog estimation enables velocity-based forecasting.

Option AandBcome after estimation is complete.

Option Cis too narrow—iteration planning comes later.

The agile facilitator should focus on keeping the daily coordination meeting (daily stand-up) focused and efficient. If the meeting is becoming unproductive or lengthy, the facilitator needs to actively manage the flow and intervene when team members deviate from the meeting's objective, which is to quickly discuss progress, identify blockers, and align on the work for the day. By doing this, the facilitator can help the team maintain the purpose and time-box of the meeting, which is generally 15 minutes.

In agile, when uncertainty exists around a technical or functional aspect of work, the team can use aspike—a time-boxed research or prototyping activity—to explore the unknown. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 User Stories and Spikes),spikes are ideal when the team lacks information or confidenceabout a proposed solution and needs to experiment before committing.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explains thatspikes are used to investigate technical approaches, prove concepts, or explore new technologies, and they provide the team with the insight and confidence needed to proceed with less risk.

Option Ais correct because a spike would allow the team to explore the new framework in a controlled way.

Other options such asIshikawa diagrams (B),pre-mortems (C), andtrend analysis (D)are useful in other contexts, but not suitable for increasing confidence in new technical implementation approaches.

The correct answer is D – Fishbone diagram. Also known as an Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, this analysis tool helps teams identify root causes of delays or inefficiencies. In this scenario, the team needs to understand the causes of delayed release cycles to make process improvements.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Root cause analysis tools such as fishbone diagrams can help teams identify underlying causes of inefficiencies or failures, supporting continuous improvement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths also writes:

“A fishbone diagram helps the team brainstorm and categorize the potential causes of a problem, enabling a structured investigation into delays or bottlenecks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is for identifying and managing risks, not diagnosing root causes.

B analyzes progress metrics but doesn’t provide root cause insights.

C is for understanding customer satisfaction, not operational delays.

Answer: D

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Agile teams areself-organizingand responsible for determining how to deliver their commitments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), the best course of action is tosupport the team in evaluating trade-offs—especially when innovation like a spike canenhance efficiency. The project leader shouldenable, not dictatedecisions.

Option Ais correct: it respects team autonomy while supporting innovation.

Option Bdiscourages innovation and learning.

Option Cmay delay needed improvement and demotivates team initiative.

Option Dremoves the team's ability to decide and self-manage priorities.

The correct answer is C — Work with the product owner to assess the impact for reprioritization.

Agile recognizes that new priorities may emerge during a sprint. The product owner owns the backlog and prioritization. If a request threatens sprint commitments, it should be reviewed and discussed with the product owner to determine the trade-offs and make informed decisions.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“New requests should be assessed in collaboration with the product owner. The team should make prioritization trade-offs in a transparent manner to maintain focus on delivering value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Iteration Planning and Section 5.7 – Change Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Product owners are responsible for backlog prioritization. When urgent issues arise, teams should discuss them with the PO rather than unilaterally shifting focus.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A risks burnout and violates sustainable pace.

B avoids accountability.

D assumes the change can wait, which may not align with customer needs.

Answer: C

—

A user story that is too large to complete in one sprint is considered anepic. Agile teams shouldsplit it into smaller, valuable, testable stories. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Decomposition)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)recommendbreaking down large storiesand renegotiating sprint scopecollaborativelywith the product owner.

Option Cis correct: this aligns withcollaborative planning and story decomposition.

Option Ais rigid and dismisses collaboration.

Option Bpromotes unsustainable practices.

Option Dviolates the principle offixed-length iterations.

The correct answer is A – Conduct regular one-on-one meetings to review development features and trace them back to the product roadmap. Close collaboration between the agile leader (e.g., Scrum Master or Project Lead) and the Product Owner ensures alignment between the product strategy and development execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent and open collaboration between the Product Owner and agile project leader helps maintain alignment between delivery and business objectives. These discussions link work to roadmap-level planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile leadership includes partnering with the Product Owner to ensure that work being done contributes to overall product goals. Roadmap alignment is critical.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

B is more appropriate for the Product Owner, not the project leader.

C implies waterfall-style communication.

D oversteps the Product Owner’s authority in setting feature priorities.

Answer: A

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Agile promotesself-organizing teams, where leadership canemerge naturally. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Team Empowerment and Leadership)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)both emphasize supporting team members who take on informal leadership roles, as this strengthens team capability and fosters growth.

Option Ais correct: nurturing emerging leaders aligns with agile values ofempowerment and self-organization.

Option Bmay suppress initiative.

Option Cescalates unnecessarily.

Option Dapplies hierarchical control inconsistent with agile team dynamics.

Given the global distribution of the stakeholders and their high interest in the project (as indicated in the stakeholder power/interest grid), a dynamic feedback platform is the most effective way to ensure consistent engagement. By leveraging collaboration tools that allow asynchronous feedback, the team can accommodate stakeholders in different time zones, reducing the delay in obtaining feedback and helping to speed up the decision-making process. This approach ensures that all stakeholders can contribute when it’s convenient for them, without the need for synchronized meetings, thus improving overall engagement and decision-making efficiency.

The project manager should ensure that risks are clearly visible to all team members so that everyone is aware of potential issues and can take action as necessary. Displaying the RAID log visually makes it easy for the team to see the status of risks, assumptions, issues, and dependencies in real-time. This encourages the team to follow up on risks and keep them top of mind, facilitating more proactive management of potential threats to the sprint's success. This approach also helps in maintaining transparency and continuous monitoring of risks throughout the sprint.

In an agile environment, even a chaotic one, a release plan should focus on providing a high-level view of the product's objectives, the key features to be developed, and the iteration timelines. Including dependencies and specifying the responsible teams for each component ensures that expectations are set clearly for stakeholders while also providing the flexibility needed to adapt to changes. By outlining both the objectives and iteration details, the product owner ensures transparency and alignment with stakeholders while maintaining the iterative nature of agile development. This approach allows for informed decision-making without locking the team into overly rigid plans.

The correct answer is B — Hold regular retrospectives and have team members commit to specific actions.

Regular retrospectives enable the team to continuously reflect and adapt their processes and product based on new challenges or insights. Commitment to specific action items ensures accountability and fosters a culture of learning and responsiveness.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should hold regular retrospectives to identify areas for improvement and define concrete actions. These actions are tracked and reviewed in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Continuous improvement is a core agile value. Retrospectives allow teams to evaluate their performance and commit to actionable improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is a waterfall mindset.

C lacks structured reflection and accountability.

D is a poor coding practice and anti-pattern.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is D – Make use of a Kanban board so that the team will have a clear view of the work in progress (WIP) for the release.

Agile teams use information radiators like Kanban boards to visualize work, improve flow, identify bottlenecks, and maintain team focus. Visibility of work enhances self-organization and accountability while reducing ambiguity and delays.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban boards provide visibility into the work in progress. They support collaboration, improve team focus, and are effective in both Scrum and Kanban approaches.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.1 – Visual Controls)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Visual tools such as task boards and Kanban boards allow the team to manage their flow and workload. This enables collaboration and transparency without micromanagement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options fall short:

A introduces unnecessary meetings, potentially disrupting flow.

B may lead to micromanagement and undermine team ownership.

C implies a command-and-control style, which is contrary to Agile principles.

Answer: D

Once the team has clarity on the user stories and agrees they are ready, the next step in agile planning is toestimatethem. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimating)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile estimation techniques likestory pointsorPlanning Pokerhelp the teamgain a shared understanding of effort, complexity, and delivery time.

Option Ais correct: estimating comes before development and guides prioritization and planning.

Option Bprematurely dives into task-level detail before effort is understood.

Option Cskips planning and development entirely.

Option Drefers to retrospective, which comes after execution, not before.

Agile roles are clearly defined to avoid overlap and confusion. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3 Agile Roles), theProduct Owneris responsible forbacklog prioritization and stakeholder communication, not managing team tasks. Task management is the domain of the self-organizing team and facilitated by the Scrum Master or Agile Project Manager.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)reinforces that resolving role confusion through discussion helpsrealign expectations and improve team performance.

Option Cis correct: by clarifying roles and responsibilities, the agile project manager helps prevent overreach and ensures smoother collaboration.

Option Aaddresses the issue too late and in the wrong forum.

Option Bmisrepresents agile dynamics (self-organizing teams).

Option Drisks team morale and doesn’t address the root cause.

The correct answer is A — A formalized agile approach offers controlled flexibility in dealing with unknown variables in a manner that adds business value.

Agile is designed to operate effectively under conditions of high uncertainty. It allows for controlled experimentation, feedback loops, and adaptive changes, all while maintaining a focus on delivering business value. This makes it ideal for environments reliant on data analytics and frequent changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide the flexibility to respond to changing conditions and unknowns while ensuring that value delivery remains aligned with stakeholder needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 – Agile Principles)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile’s incremental delivery model enables teams to validate assumptions and adapt based on feedback and data—making it a natural fit for data-driven organizations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

B is factually incorrect and overly simplistic.

C misrepresents agile as a formal change-control process.

D is an opinion, not a principle.

The correct answer is B – Manage communication between all team members and the customer to promote effective and transparent collaboration. Agile values open, direct, and frequent communication, particularly between team members and stakeholders. Transparency, collaboration, and shared understanding reduce misunderstandings and promote customer satisfaction.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile values individuals and interactions over processes and tools. Frequent, open, and direct communication with stakeholders is essential. Agile teams are encouraged to engage stakeholders frequently to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Agile fosters transparency and trust through direct communication. Information should flow freely between all team members and stakeholders to facilitate quick feedback and mutual understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A and C limit communication and transparency.

D is useful for conflict resolution, but not for broad issue management or stakeholder communication.

Answer: B

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This situation introduces technical uncertainty. In agile, such scenarios are best addressed byspikesorincremental implementationandearly feedback. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Experimentation)suggests that uncertain work should be prototyped, tested early, and shown during sprint reviews for feedback and learning.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)recommends testing high-risk integrations early and iteratively, rather than over-planning.

Option Dis correct: developing, testing, and demonstrating early minimizes risk and aligns with agile principles.

Option Aleans toward waterfall-style planning and over-documentation.

Option Bincorrectly assumes non-functional requirements are less valuable—they’re critical in many systems.

Option Cmay delay necessary architectural work and increase risk.

The correct answer is A – Hold a meeting with the team and the Product Owner to develop the team charter, working agreement, guiding principles, and product vision. This collaborative approach fosters shared understanding, ownership, and alignment early in the project.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team chartering process includes developing working agreements, clarifying the product vision, defining team norms, and establishing the team's mission. Early alignment builds trust and commitment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“A strong start includes co-creating team values, the product vision, and working agreements. Doing this together builds a strong foundation for delivery.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Chapter 4 – Team Formation)

Incorrect options:

B separates the Product Owner from the team early on.

C reverses the roles—vision should be owned by the Product Owner.

D is helpful, but not a prerequisite for team alignment and success.

Answer: A

The Definition of Done (DoD) is a shared understanding of what it means for work to be considered complete. It is typically defined by the project sponsor and project team in collaboration. The DoD outlines the criteria that must be met for user stories, features, or tasks to be considered done, ensuring alignment between stakeholders and the development team. While the product owner, Scrum master, and stakeholders may influence the criteria, the final agreement on what constitutes "done" is determined by the project team and sponsor.

Technical debtrefers to the accumulated cost of suboptimal design or code, often due to shortcuts or lack of refactoring. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality and Technical Debt)recommends treating technical debt as animpedimentthat should be logged, tracked, and discussed openly so it can be prioritized and addressed.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)advises teams to be transparent about technical debt and elevate its visibility so that product owners and stakeholders can make informed decisions.

Option Cis correct: logging technical debt as animpedimentbrings visibility and ensures discussion.

Option Amay indicate a problem, but it’s indirect.

Option Bdistorts estimation metrics and is not advised.

Option Dcould help but does not communicate impact explicitly.

The correct answer is B — Balance risk reduction and value-adding activities in the next iteration.

Agile recommends actively managing risks as part of iteration planning. While delivering customer value remains a top priority, severe risks should be mitigated as early as possible. The team should consider allocating capacity in the next sprint to reduce risk while still maintaining delivery focus.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams incorporate risk mitigation work into iteration planning. Teams should prioritize high-impact risks early and balance risk management with delivering customer value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Agile Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Agile does not separate risk management into a different process—it is embedded within backlog prioritization. Addressing risk early can prevent downstream impacts, and teams must weigh risk vs. value regularly.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A disrupts current iteration goals and contradicts agile time-boxing.

C ignores the severity of the risk.

D escalates unnecessarily—agile promotes team-level decision-making first.

Answer: B

—

This approach reinforces the core values of agile, particularly the idea that a self-managed team should be collaborative and support one another. The agile lead should focus on creating a safe environment where team members feel comfortable sharing challenges and asking for help. This will not only help the junior team member but also improve the overall team dynamics and performance by fostering a culture of openness and mutual support.

To support quick feature delivery while maintaining quality, the best approach is to automate integration, testing, and deployment activities. This aligns with the principles of Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment (CI/CD), which streamline processes and reduce the manual effort required to test and deploy software. This approach can help the team to quickly release features with confidence that they meet quality standards, reducing manual errors and speeding up the delivery cycle.

The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

=========

Agile emphasizestransparency and team self-organization. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), a common practice is tomake work and issues visible to everyoneand allow the team to collaboratively manage their workflow. Using ashared workspace or boardhelps prevent redundant efforts and improves efficiency.

Option Dis correct: shared visibility and self-allocation promote team ownership.

Option Amisuses the backlog—issues aren't typically prioritized by customers.

Option Bis directive and may reduce collaboration.

Option Cfocuses on analysis, not immediate resolution or coordination.

Kanban is continuous and can lead toburnout or low moraledue to lack of visible milestones. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)suggest thatrecognizing and celebrating milestones or delivery pointsis essential to maintain motivation, especially in long-running Kanban teams.

Option Ais correct:celebrating completed workgives the team a sense of closure and achievement, improving engagement.

Option Bmight help temporarily but doesn’t address theroot motivational issue.

Option Cadds pressure and is counterproductive.

Option Dmay improve flow but doesn't directly address thelack of visible progress recognition.

The correct answer is D — A list of questions for the team and customer representative.

In Agile, creating a shared product vision is a collaborative effort that begins with open dialogue. The team should prepare insightful, value-driven questions to understand the customer’s needs, pain points, desired outcomes, and business drivers. This supports co-creation of the vision rather than relying on rigid documentation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“A shared product vision aligns the team and stakeholders. Early collaboration and asking the right questions help establish understanding and purpose.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 – Agile Mindset)

Mike Griffiths:

“Visioning meetings are facilitated conversations where teams and stakeholders explore product goals and user needs. Questions—not documents—drive clarity.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A implies a rigid, document-driven mindset—contrary to Agile.

B assumes the backlog exists before visioning.

C is too early for acceptance criteria before vision alignment.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is A – Work with the team to improve collaboration by fostering group decision-making and conflict resolution techniques.

One of the core principles of Agile is self-organizing teams. Teams must learn to make decisions collaboratively. If they are struggling, the Scrum Master or Agile Coach should facilitate improved team dynamics, encouraging consensus-building and effective conflict resolution techniques such as consensus, dot voting, or facilitation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are empowered to make decisions. Coaches support this by teaching group decision-making techniques and fostering a culture of psychological safety and collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“When teams hesitate to make decisions, the coach’s role is to facilitate better team dynamics—not to make decisions for them. Group decision-making leads to greater commitment and alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

B gives decision-making power to the Product Owner inappropriately for technical matters.

C fragments accountability and may cause misalignment.

D may help in leadership development but doesn’t guarantee collaborative decision-making.

Answer: A

A complete and realistic backlog must include not onlyfunctional storiesbut alsonon-functional and support taskssuch as infrastructure setup, analysis, and design. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Backlog Composition)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)emphasize including all types of work in the backlog to ensureaccurate effort planning.

Option Dis correct: effort must includetechnical tasks, not just feature delivery.

Option Asuggests speculation on velocity and cost increases, which is unreliable.

Option BandC(adding buffers or padding estimates) violate agile’s principle of transparency and simplicity.

The team lead should facilitate a constructive discussion by restating both perspectives clearly, which can help ensure that all team members understand each other's viewpoints. Asking for more details about both approaches allows the team to analyze each method's pros and cons, fostering a collaborative, solution-focused discussion. Creating a chart of similarities and differences can provide a visual representation that helps the team make an informed decision, highlighting which elements from both approaches might be beneficial. This approach encourages open communication, avoids escalation, and leads to a productive exploration of options without dismissing either side.

The daily scrum is the appropriate forum for team members to raise and discuss any impediments or blockers they are facing. By addressing the impediments directly in the daily scrum, the team can collaborate and work together to find solutions in real time. This ensures that issues are identified early and are dealt with in a timely manner. Relying solely on emails for communication can lead to missed opportunities for immediate resolution and may cause frustration, as seen in this case. Encouraging the team member to raise the impediments during the daily scrum will help ensure they are addressed quickly and effectively.

Knowledge sharing and organizational learning are core elements of scaling agile. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 8.4 Organizational Change Management)and thePMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 10.2 Manage Communications), the project manager shouldactively disseminate lessons learned, best practices, and project outcomesto promote agile adoption across the organization.

Mike Griffiths reinforces in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)thatcontinuous feedback loops and transparent communicationare essential to agile transformation success.

Option D is correct because regular meetings specifically focused onsharing outcomes and learningfrom the pilot project helpembed agile valuesand improve future implementations.

Transparency is key in agile. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications)emphasizes the use ofinformation radiators—visual displays such as task boards, burndown charts, or Kanban boards thatimmediately communicate project status. These tools make progress visible to all stakeholders without needing detailed documentation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)reinforces thatcollocated displays or shared online boardsreduce misunderstandings and keep stakeholders aligned.

Option Dis correct: a public project board offersreal-time visibilityand promotes transparency.

Option Acontradicts agile by emphasizing documentation over working software.

Option Blimits visibility to a subset of stakeholders and is passive.

Option Cdisrupts the team’s daily focus—stand-ups are not intended for stakeholder participation.

Theproduct owneris responsible formaintaining and prioritizing the product backlogbased on stakeholder input. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Product Backlog and Prioritization)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), when a sponsor is dissatisfied, the product owner should confirm that their needs are clearly prioritized and represented in the backlog.

Option Bis correct: ensuring priorities are accurately captured aligns delivery with stakeholder expectations.

Option Ais reactive and not productive.

Option Cpresumes funding is the issue without confirming alignment.

Option Dundermines the product owner’s role.

The correct answer is B — Set the velocity to the delivered story points of the last sprint.

Agile velocity is a historical measure, not a target. It represents the amount of work a team actually completed in a previous sprint and should be used to help guide future sprint planning. Teams should not inflate, manipulate, or "game" their velocity; instead, they should use it as a basis for realistic planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Velocity is calculated by totaling the points for all fully completed stories. It is a measure of what the team can complete—not what it hopes to complete—and should be used as an empirical baseline for planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Velocity should be based on historical data from previous sprints. Teams should not artificially inflate velocity by changing estimation practices or slicing stories merely to appear more productive.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A promotes splitting for manipulation, not for clarity.

C suggests altering estimation practices for the sake of metrics.

D implies gaming the system to falsely increase velocity.

Answer: B

—

Analyzing theburndown chart, we see:

Points Planned(gray squares): decreasing steadily from 50 to 0 over 10 days (ideal burn).

Points Completed(gray triangles):plateau between days 3–6, lagging significantly behind planned completion.

This indicates that theteam is behind schedule, and unless they accelerate, they mayfail to complete all committed work.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Burndown Charts)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Monitoring Progress), such divergence between the ideal and actual burn lines indicates that the iteration isat risk.

Option Ais correct: the iteration isin jeopardydue to lack of progress mid-sprint.

Option Bis incorrect—scope removal would show a downward shift in planned points.

Option Cis false—the team isbehind, not ahead.

Option Dis misleading—velocity appears inconsistent (e.g., plateau from day 3–6).

The correct answer is C – Seek regular input from project stakeholders, and reflect this input in the backlog’s priorities. Agile is a stakeholder-driven process, and backlog refinement should be informed by continuous feedback. The product owner maximizes value by regularly reviewing stakeholder needs and reprioritizing accordingly.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product owner is responsible for maintaining the backlog and ensuring it reflects stakeholder priorities. Ongoing engagement with stakeholders ensures the product delivers maximum value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile product owners engage stakeholders continuously to update priorities and deliver value incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is good practice but doesn’t address the stakeholder engagement challenge.

B confuses story size with business value.

D lacks the agility required in a fast-moving project.

Answer: C

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The goal of each iteration in Agile is to deliver working software frequently, typically at the end of each iteration. This allows the team to gather feedback early and make improvements quickly. The emphasis is on delivering usable software that provides value to the customer, rather than just completing tasks or preparing timelines. This approach aligns with the Agile principle of delivering working software frequently to ensure continuous progress and customer satisfaction.

The correct answer is A – The team will be unable to understand the iteration's status. Agile relies on transparency and timely updates to progress tracking tools such as task boards, burndown charts, and digital boards. Incomplete or delayed updates obscure the team's true progress, making it difficult to inspect and adapt.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Visibility of progress is key to agile. Without timely updates to task boards or status indicators, teams lose the ability to inspect and adapt effectively during iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“If user stories or tasks are not updated, burndown charts and velocity metrics become inaccurate. This compromises team transparency and decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B is not directly impacted by status updates.

C might result as a side effect, but A is more fundamental.

D misrepresents the problem—it is about progress tracking, not collaboration metrics.

Answer: A

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Delivering value in agile depends onfrequent prioritization and real-time feedback. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Prioritization), product owners and agile teams mustcontinuously reprioritize the backlogbased on changing stakeholder needs, market shifts, and feedback. Failure to do so can result in building the wrong product—even if it's "done."

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) stresses thatvalue delivery is iterative and depends on current priorities, not static backlogs. It is vital that teams confirm that they're working on thehighest-value itemsbefore committing to a sprint.

Option Ais correct: proper backlog refinement and reprioritization ensures alignment with evolving stakeholder needs.

Option Bis an anti-pattern; agile welcomes change even late in development.

Option CandDare irrelevant or do not address the core issue of prioritization.

Relying solely on the developers' experience with similar systems to define functionality can be limiting and potentially result in misaligned expectations with actual user needs. Effective Agile teams should focus on understanding and addressing the needs of end users, leveraging continuous feedback from customers, and engaging stakeholders directly. This ensures the product is built to meet real user expectations and can evolve as necessary based on user input. Instead of relying on previous experience, the team should be focused on co-creating value with customers through collaboration, feedback, and agile practices like user stories and regular testing.

To assessprocess efficiency, agile teams usevalue stream mappingto identifywaste, delays, and non-value-adding steps. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Process Analysis and Value Stream Mapping), value stream analysis helps determine how efficiently a process converts inputs into valuable outputs, making it ideal for supporting customer inquiries on operational performance.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) reinforces the value of usingvalue stream mappingfor both software development processes and operational workflows to increase transparency and drive improvements.

Option Bis correct: reviewing thevalue streamprovides a structured way to evaluate efficiency.

Option AandDare important for team improvement and performance but don’t focus onprocess activity efficiency.

Option Crelates tovalue prioritization, not operational efficiency.

The correct answer is C — Facilitate team brainstorming of the risks resulting from complexity for the risk register.

Technical complexity introduces risks that must be identified and managed early. Agile leaders support teams by facilitating collaborative risk identification, not by dictating solutions. Brainstorming sessions help surface concerns and lead to proactive mitigation strategies.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Risks are best identified through team collaboration. Facilitated risk identification sessions encourage broad participation and lead to better awareness and ownership of potential issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“In agile projects, technical risks are treated early. Collaborative identification and visibility are key to creating a risk-adjusted delivery plan.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is valid long-term, but brainstorming comes first for awareness.

B limits risk planning to a fixed period (Sprint 0), which may not be enough.

D promotes innovation but not structured risk identification.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is B – The entire team is responsible for quality, but each team member's role may vary as stated in the definition of done (DoD).

In Agile, quality is a shared responsibility. While specialists like QA may have defined roles, all team members are expected to contribute to maintaining and improving product quality. The Definition of Done (DoD) captures shared criteria for acceptance and completion.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are cross-functional and collectively accountable for quality. Specific roles may perform different tasks, but everyone contributes to ensuring the product meets the agreed-upon standards.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Quality and Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths clarifies:

“Quality is everyone’s responsibility. Teams should define what 'done' means and ensure that all members understand and uphold those standards during development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

A implies all members must be involved in every component, which may not be efficient or realistic.

C incorrectly assigns surprises or gaps solely to QA.

D misrepresents the Product Manager's role and overemphasizes top-down functionality.

Answer: B

A quick mock-up (or prototype) is a highly effective way to visually represent the product's features and functionality to stakeholders. This allows stakeholders to get a tangible sense of what the product will look like and how it will work. By iterating on this mock-up and adjusting it based on feedback, the team can build consensus and gain stakeholder approval more effectively. This approach encourages active collaboration and ensures that the product aligns with stakeholder expectations early in the development process.

The sponsor is looking at the product roadmap, which is a visual representation of the product's planned features and their expected delivery timelines across multiple releases. It typically shows the major milestones, planned releases, and features grouped by their respective release numbers. This aligns with the sponsor's inquiry about when a specific feature will be ready, as the roadmap provides a high-level view of the product's development and release schedule.

When the team isuncertain about a technical solution, aspike—a timeboxed research task—is used to explore possible approaches. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)recommend spikes as aformal way to explore unknowns and reduce riskin the backlog.

Option Bis correct: spikes provide structure for resolving uncertainty.

Option Aignores the technical risk.

Option Cdisrupts team structure and ownership.

Option Ddefers the problem without seeking resolution.

When considering an increase in scope, it's important to first align with the organization's higher-level objectives. Seeking executive approval on the approach ensures that the change is in line with organizational priorities and gets the necessary buy-in from key stakeholders. Additionally, determining the purpose and value proposition helps clarify the benefits of the new scope, ensuring the team focuses on delivering value that is clear and beneficial to the organization. These actions are critical before making any further decisions or changes.

In Scrum, teams are self-organizing, meaning they are responsible for managing internal dynamics and conflicts. The scrum master should act as a servant leader by facilitating conflict resolution rather than imposing decisions.

The scrum master should mediate the situation by fostering open communication and helping the team address concerns constructively.

Encouraging team collaboration and respectful communication is key to maintaining morale.

Escalating to senior management or removing a team member should be a last resort.

Attending meetings does not directly resolve the issue but can help the scrum master observe and intervene when necessary.

By facilitating conflict resolution and supporting team self-organization, the scrum master ensures a healthy and productive work environment.

At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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Understandingproduct vision and customer goalsis foundational to agile. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1 Agile Mindset and Values), early engagement helps teamsconnect their work to real customer outcomes, which increasesmotivation, alignment, and value delivery.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset) also notes thatclear understanding of business goalsensures that team members build the right thing—not just build things right.

Option Ais correct: aligning the team with the product’s purpose drivesvalue-oriented thinking.

Option Bis secondary—understanding comes before acceptance.

Option Cis unrealistic and not the goal of this meeting.

Option Dmay occur, but the main benefit is deeper alignment with value.

The correct answer is A – To participate in establishing a shared vision as a member of the team.

Stakeholder engagement ensures alignment between the team and business needs. Early and continuous involvement helps define product vision, clarify priorities, and ensure that the delivered product meets customer expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often increases transparency, encourages shared ownership, and ensures that the product being developed aligns with business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Projects are more successful when stakeholders co-create the product vision and maintain involvement. Agile teams encourage active participation to ensure delivery of value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why other options fall short:

B (acceptance criteria) is mainly defined by the Product Owner, not all stakeholders.

C is typically owned by the development team.

D is not a core stakeholder responsibility in Agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Have team members work in pairs to learn from each other and develop new skills. Pairing encourages collaboration, knowledge sharing, and skill development, which helps reduce dependency on specific individuals and enhances engagement through variety.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Pair programming and other collaborative work methods help reduce repetition, promote learning, and improve motivation. These techniques allow for shared ownership and skill diversity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Continuous Learning and Team Development)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Cross-training and pairing reduce boredom, eliminate knowledge silos, and increase team flexibility. They are effective responses to reduced motivation from repetitive work.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A may temporarily help morale but doesn’t address the root cause.

C is more suitable for analyzing inefficiencies, not directly resolving monotony.

D adds cost and doesn’t solve the underlying engagement problem.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is B – It prevents a wasteful buildup of requirements inventory that may never be processed. Rolling wave planning is a core agile planning practice where detailed planning is deferred until closer to execution. It aligns with lean principles by avoiding over-specification and prioritizing only near-term, high-value work.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Rolling wave planning minimizes wasted effort by only detailing work that is near execution. Planning further ahead can result in rework or unused artifacts if requirements change or become irrelevant.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Rolling Wave Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile avoids big upfront planning. Rolling wave planning reduces waste, improves responsiveness, and focuses on delivering the highest-value features first while leaving less valuable work unplanned until necessary.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A is misleading; agile allows varying levels of detail, not fixed.

C is a traditional (waterfall) planning mindset.

D suggests fixed scope per release, which contradicts agility.

Answer: B

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The primary reason for delivering a minimally viable product (MVP) is to reduce risk as quickly as possible. By releasing a version of the product with just the essential features, the team can quickly test assumptions, gather feedback from users, and make necessary adjustments before investing more time and resources. This approach allows the team to identify and address potential risks early in the process, ensuring that the product is on the right track and meets user needs before full-scale development continues.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Requirements and User Stories)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning),epics are large user storiesthat must be decomposed into smaller user stories for accurate planning and inclusion in sprints.

Thetwo main driversfor breaking down epics are:

Size– Epics are typically too large to be completed in a single iteration and must be divided to create manageable pieces of work.

Priority– High-priority epics are decomposed early to allow the team to work on the most valuable items first.

This makesOption Athe correct answer. The decision to decompose the epic is based on the need to fit it into sprint capacity and to align with backlog prioritization.

A developer is unable to work on their tasks within an iteration, because senior management is constantly pulling them into production incident analyses.

This is a blocker because the developer is unable to work on tasks within the iteration due to external interruptions (senior management pulling them into production incident analyses), preventing the team from progressing.

The offshore testing team is pulled away at the last minute from a high-profile initiative and testing cannot be resumed until a new testing team is assigned.

This is also a blocker because the offshore testing team has been pulled away at the last minute, causing a halt in testing until a new team is assigned. This delay impedes progress and prevents the team from moving forward with their work.

The correct answer is A – Facilitate team agreement on the definition of done (DoD) during the chartering process.

The “Definition of Done” is a shared understanding among the team of what it means for work to be considered complete. Disputes over whether a deliverable is done usually arise due to the lack of a clearly defined and agreed-upon DoD.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should define and agree on the Definition of Done (DoD) early. This shared understanding reduces ambiguity and misalignment over when a task is complete.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The Definition of Done provides clarity, especially in multi-functional teams. It avoids misunderstandings and disputes about work completeness.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

B refers to a team formation stage but doesn’t address the root cause of conflict.

C and D help improve backlog clarity but don’t resolve issues around completion criteria.

Answer: A

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2.1), the Scrum Master’s role includesremoving impediments and shielding the team from outside interference. A team member being pulled into work on a different project is a classic example of an impediment. Recording the issue in a risk register is appropriate, but more importantly,the Scrum Master must communicate and resolve the issue.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes that agile teams require full dedication and protection from context switching, as multitasking reduces productivity and increases error rates. Merely documenting the issue is not enough—the Scrum Master must take steps toescalate and resolve the interference, potentially by negotiating with the former supervisor or re-clarifying role boundaries.

Therefore,Option Cis correct as it involvesactively addressing the threatrather than passively monitoring or adjusting around it.

The correct answer is C – Risk-value quadrant. This technique is a prioritization matrix that helps teams identify and rank backlog items by evaluating their business value against their risk. This ensures early delivery of high-value and high-risk features, supporting fail-fast learning and reducing uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The risk-value matrix helps prioritize features by plotting them based on business value and implementation risk. High-value/high-risk items are often addressed first.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The risk-value quadrant is a powerful tool to guide agile prioritization. It ensures the most valuable and uncertain items are tackled early to deliver insights quickly.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is used for estimation, not prioritization.

B is a scheduling concept, not a prioritization method.

D refers to story quality (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable), not prioritization.

Answer: C

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Upon joining a team, a Scrum Master should focus onfacilitating team collaboration, removing impediments, and creating a psychologically safe space. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Scrum Master Role)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 3: Team Performance)stress that early efforts should center onservant leadership, helping the team identify and solve their own challenges.

Option Cis correct: supporting the team through facilitation reflects the core role of a Scrum Master.

Option Ais prescriptive and not aligned with cross-functional team philosophy.

Option Bmay be necessary later, but first, trust and team dynamics must be established.

Option Dfalls under the Product Owner’s responsibility, not the Scrum Master’s.

The correct answer is A — Stakeholders should have regularly been engaged to obtain feedback and reduce the functionality risk.

In Agile, stakeholder engagement and iterative feedback loops ensure that the solution being built is aligned with business value. Simply meeting documented requirements is insufficient. Agile practices such as demos and user feedback sessions minimize the risk of building features that fail to deliver value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile emphasizes ongoing stakeholder engagement. Demonstrating working software at the end of each iteration and gathering feedback ensures that the product is delivering business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Value-driven delivery is achieved not just by delivering what was asked for, but by ensuring it actually meets customer needs. Regular feedback from stakeholders is critical to avoid building low-value features.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to the lean principle of “decide as late as possible,” but feedback, not delay, would have addressed the issue.

C is unrelated to this context.

D lacks the collaborative engagement approach emphasized in Agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Lack of shared knowledge of user stories.

Distributed teams face challenges in collaboration, knowledge sharing, and communication. Without regular interaction, team members may not fully understand user stories, acceptance criteria, or customer needs. This leads to misalignment and potentially lower-quality outputs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams face barriers to communication and knowledge sharing. Agile teams must use collaboration tools and practices to ensure that all members share an understanding of the user stories and priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Remote Agile teams must work harder to ensure clarity in user stories and maintain shared understanding. Without this, misunderstandings increase.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (frequent integration) is a benefit, not a risk.

C is irrelevant to Agile effectiveness.

D is less common with Agile roles clearly defined (PO, SM, Dev Team).

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D — Ensure that planning and prioritizing includes consideration of security requirements.

Non-functional requirements (such as security, performance, or compliance) must be included in backlog prioritization and planning sessions. Agile teams must incorporate these concerns into their definition of done and acceptance criteria to ensure continuous compliance and product integrity.

PMI Agile Practice Guide emphasizes:

“Non-functional requirements (NFRs) must be prioritized and planned for alongside functional user stories. They are not optional, and failure to include them early often leads to system failure or technical debt.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Planning Considerations)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile teams should treat NFRs as constraints that are baked into every sprint. Rather than isolating them, they should be considered in backlog refinement and story definition.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A may help, but meeting agendas alone are not sufficient for managing NFRs.

B may assist with knowledge, but it doesn’t guarantee prioritization.

C implies treating the NFR as a risk rather than a core requirement.

Answer: D

Before the workshop, the team members should read and identify relevant user stories from the product backlog that directly contribute to the goal of developing the feature for receiving and resolving customer complaints. This ensures that the stories being worked on are well-understood and aligned with the release goal.

The team should also consider the possible risks associated with each selected user story, such as technical challenges or dependencies. Additionally, they should evaluate the value each story adds to the final user (customer), ensuring that the team focuses on delivering maximum value in the release.